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REVISION Flashcards

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1
Q

What is research?

A

A systematic way of asking questions, a systematic method of enquiry

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2
Q

What are the characteristics of research?

A 
systematic 
logical 
empirical 
reductive 
replicable
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3
Q

Name the 4 types of research

A

exploratory
descriptive
explanatory
predictive

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4
Q

what is exploratory research?

A

Used when there is little or no prior knowledge of a topic.
To become familiar with basic facts, settings, and concerns; To create a general picture of conditions; To look for clues about a phenomena.
Generate new ideas, concepts, or hypotheses.
Formulate and focus questions for future research.

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5
Q

what is descriptive research?

A

Provide a detailed, highly accurate picture
Locate new data that contradict past data; To categorise or classify or clarify a sequence of steps or stages; Report on the background or context of a situation
Little attempt to explain the results

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6
Q

what is explanatory research?

A

Is involved in explaining why something happens; Looking for causal relationships between concepts; Link issues with a general principle
Extend a theory
Support or refute an explanation or prediction
Determine which of several explanations is best

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7
Q

what is predictive research?

A

forecast future phenomena, based on findings suggested by explanatory research

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8
Q

who carries out research?

A

academics, government agencies, commercial companies, consultants, managers

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9
Q

name the steps of the traditional method (inductionism)

A

i) Observation and Experiment
ii) Inductive generalisation
iii) Hypothesis
iv) Attempted verification of hypothesis
v) Proof or disproof
vi) Knowledge

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10
Q

what is the problem of observation in inductionism?

A

physical characteristics, experience, sociological factors, culture

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11
Q

what is the problem of the inductive process in inductionism?

A

the arriving at scientific laws by repeated observation - generalising from observation is not logical

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12
Q

what is falsification?

A

where theories must be exposed to refutation (not agreement)

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13
Q

what are the steps of Popper’s method of falsification?

A

i) Problem (usually to rebuff current theory)
ii) Proposed solution (new theory)
iii) Deduction of testable propositions
iv) Tests (to falsify new theory)
v) Choose between old and new theories

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14
Q

what are the problems with poppers method?

A

Newtonian/Einsteinian physics?
Limitations of observations (objective/subjective?)
Human subjective inferences (Collins and Pinch, 1993)
Theories usually complex
Many current theories would have been discarded

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15
Q

what was Thomas Kuhn’s revolutions? (1962)

A

he suggested that science can be split into normal science and revolutionary science

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16
Q

what is normal science?

A

Increases precision of measurement
Adds additional clauses to already known theories
Is ‘conservative’

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17
Q

what is revolutionary science?

A

When anomalies to current theories become too ‘serious’
‘Crisis’ and new paradigm/concepts
Science moves forwards in leaps? (e.g., theory of evolution)

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18
Q

what is Imre Lakatos’ research programmes?

A

More ‘realistic’ view of Science
‘Naive’ induction/falsificationism too simple
Scientists do not abandon theories because of one or two
falsifications
Scientific progress is a contest between rival theories (and
modifications) with the world as a referee
Long time period to decide

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19
Q

what are the steps of the scientific method?

A

i) Define Problem
ii) Read previous literature
iii) Define Hypotheses (Null hypothesis “no difference” “no effect”)
iv) Test the theory (try to falsify null hypothesis)
v) Discuss results in comparison to competing theories
vi) Conclude which theory is best

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20
Q

what is the aim of experimental design?

A

aim to control confounding variables

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21
Q

what are confounding variables?

A
  • can cause false results
  • alter systematically with IV so experimenter not sure whether changes in DV are due to IV or confounding
  • controlled by experimenter
  • E.g researching whether a lack of exercise has an effect on weight gain, confounding variable would be food consumption
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22
Q

what are the characteristics of a lab experiment?

A

well controlled but lacks realism

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23
Q

what are the characteristics of a field experiment?

A

realistic but less well controlled

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24
Q

Describe Independent Groups Design - Randomised Controlled Trial (RCT)

A

Subjects divided into groups by strict randomisation; Check that the two groups do not differ significantly (by chance) in age, weight etc. Potentially confounding variables.

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25
Q

describe Independent Groups Design - Pre-existing groups

A

E.g. elite v novice, patient v control, subjects selected who are on average similar on confounding variables.

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26
Q

describe Matched-Pairs Design – Pre-existing groups design

A

E.g. Each participant in a group of adolescents (10-20 yrs) with hypermobility is matched to an adolescent of the same gender, age and social-economic background.
E.g. Physical activity levels in adolescents with and without hypermobility (survey).

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27
Q

describe repeated Measures Design

A

Same subjects are tested under each condition. Subject is own control!

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28
Q

describe design with combination of multiple groups and multiple conditions

A

E.g. Novice-expert differences in the effect of anxiety on penalty accuracy.
This can be described as a 2 (pre-existing groups) x 2 (conditions) design.

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29
Q

how d you control for fatigue, learning effect, change in concentration etc in repeated measures?

A
  • randomisation of conditions
  • Quasi randomisation
  • Counterbalancing
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30
Q

Give an example of quasi randomisation

A

e.g., first participant through the door does A first, next participant does B first

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31
Q

name the 2 specific sources of error by participants knowing which group they are in

A

Hawthorne effect

John Henry effect

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32
Q

what is the hawthorn effect?

A

experimental group perform better as they know they are being tested

case of a confounding variable

due to the personal interaction between experimenter and experimental group subjects

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33
Q

what is the John Henry Effect?

A

control group tries to be better and succeeds

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34
Q

what is a blind study

A

Experimenters know which participants receive the manipulation and which the placebo; the participants do not.

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35
Q

what is a double blind study

A

Niether experimenters nor subjects know who is receiving the manipulation / placebo

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36
Q

what is a placebo used for

A

To control for socio-psychological subject-investigator effects, the control group often gets a Placebo.
The placebo has all the characteristics of the manipulation, apart from the one aspect that is investigated.

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37
Q

name sources of error (experiment)

A 
selection bias 
assignment bias 
rating or halo effect 
subject researcher interaction 
experimenter bias 
instrumentation 
statistical regression 
post hoc error
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38
Q

what is validity

A

a test is said to be valid if it measures what it claims to measure

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39
Q

define homoscedasticity

A

error is constant

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40
Q

define heteroscedasticity

A

error increases/decreases with size of variable measured

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41
Q

what is internal validity

A

did the manipulation of the IV really cause the change in the DV

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42
Q

Give some threats to internal validity

A

selection - is the control group comparable to experimental

outside events- did something happen between measuring in one condition and measuring the other

repeated testing - learning effect

loss of concentration

instrumentation

drop out

experimenter vias

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43
Q

what is external validity

A

can you generalise your findings to other people, situations tc

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44
Q

what is ecological validity

A

a time of external validity

do lab based results generalise to the real world

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45
Q

what is content related validity

A

appropriate content

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46
Q

what is criterion related validity

A

relationship to other measures

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47
Q

what is face validity

A

does the test appear to test what it aims to test

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48
Q

what is concurrent validity

A

does the relate to an existing similar measure

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49
Q

what is construct validity

A

does the test relate to underlying theoretical concepts

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50
Q

what is predictive validity

A

does the test predict later performance on a related criterion

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51
Q

what is reliability

A

a measure of whether a test would give the same results if it was administered to the same sample at 2 different times

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52
Q

how do you establish reliability

A

stability - tet retest separated by time interval

alternate forms - 2 equivalent forms of the test given to same subjects

internal consistency - test split in to 2

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53
Q

what is the Bland Altman plot

A

a method to compare 2 measurement techniques. the differences between the 2 techniques are plotted against the averages of the 2 techniques

looks at the mean of the 2 numbers and plots that against the difference between the 2 number

middle red line - systematic bias

outer red lines- mean

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54
Q

what is inter rater reliability / objectivity

A

a measure f how objective the results are

if 2 experimenters carried out the same test on the same sample, would the same results be obtained

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55
Q

what are descriptive statistics

A

measures of central tendency
measures of data spread
distribution of the data

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56
Q

what are the measures of central tendency

A

mode

median mean

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57
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages of the mode

A

Advantages
Simplicity; a real score
It can be used with categorical variables (e.g. female/male)
Disadvantages
It may lie completely at one end of the data (not in middle)
It does not allow you to do any further calculations
There may be more than one mode (bimodal/multimodal

58
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages of the median

A

advantages
simplicity
extreme values do not affect it
if the distribution scores is skewed, median is more useful that mean

disadvantages
relatively strongly affected by scores in the middle

59
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages of the mean

A

advantages
insiders all scores
good for interval. ratio data

disadvantaes
nobody may get the mean score
mean score may not exist
sense to outliers

60
Q

what are the m measures of data spread?

A

range, interquartile range, variance, standard deviation, coefficient of variation

61
Q

how do you work out the interquartile range

A

distance between Q1 and Q3 representing the boundaries in the middle 50% of the distribution

62
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages of the interquartile range

A

ineffective by outliers

not influenced by every score in a distribution

63
Q

how do you calculate variance

A

find the mean
take away the mean from each number
square all these numbers
add them up divide by n - 1 (this is the case in most research)

64
Q

what is the coefficient of variation

A

describes data measured on the interval or ratio scale
standard deviation / mean x 100
it is a normalised measure of spread

65
Q

what is negative skew

A

scores clustered to the high values

e.g an easy test

66
Q

what is positive skew

A

scores clustered to the low values

67
Q

what is kurtosis

A

the peakedness of the distribution

68
Q

what is positive kurtosis

A

distribution peaked with long thin tails

69
Q

what is negative kurtosis

A

distribution flat with lots of extreme cases

70
Q

how do you calculate standard deviation?

A

i) Find the mean
ii) Subtract the mean from each score
iii) Square each difference score found in (ii)
iv) Add all the squares
v) Divide the total by (number of scores - 1)
vi) Square root the result

(THE SQUARE ROOT OF VARIANCE)

71
Q

what is random sampling?

A

each individual in the target population is equally likely to be included in the study

72
Q

what is stratified sampling?

A

population is divided then randomly sampled

73
Q

what is systematic sampling?

A

predetermined protocol based on a random starting point and fixed ration

e.g every 10th person through the door

74
Q

what is quota sampling

A

like stratified, but researcher selects and keeps asking people until quota is achieved.

75
Q

what is snowball sampling?

A

existing participants

76
Q

when would you carry out a power analysis

A

to calculate the required sample size

power = chance of finding a significant effect given that it exists in the population

77
Q

what is a type 1 error

A

rejecting a true null hypothesis

78
Q

what is nominal data

A

numerals represent cateogories

79
Q

what is ordinal data

A

numbers indicate rank order of obersavtions

e.g likert

80
Q

what is interval data

A

order and equal intervals between numbers nut not related to true 0

81
Q

what is ratio data

A

numbers represent units with equal intervals measured from true 0

82
Q

what is a hypothesis

A

an expected result which is testable

83
Q

what are statistical tests?

A

tests the hypothesis
the samples are drawn from different distributions in the target population
statistical tests looks at difference in means and spread of the sample distribution

84
Q

what is a false positive (type 1)

A

there is no real difference but you conclude there is a real difference
you make an error in rejecting the null hypothesis

85
Q

when the p value is smaller than alpha..

A

then you reject the null hypothesis

there is a real difference

86
Q

what are false negative results

A

type 2

you accept the null hypothesis but you should have really rejected it and accepted the experimental hypothesis

87
Q

what does H0 and H1 refer to

A

H1- samples are coming from the same population

H1 - samples are coming from a different population

88
Q

what are the advantages and disadvantages of parametric tests?

A

more powerful, sometimes easier to understand

more sensitive to outliers

89
Q

what are parametric tests used for?

A

to test for differences

data must have been measured on parametric scale (interval ratio)

data must have equal variance

sample must have been randomly chosen

sample size must be almost equal

90
Q

what is the t test

A

most common parametric test

compares the differences between means of 2 samples

91
Q

How do you check if data has equal variances?

A

Levenes test

92
Q

What was the Numemberg code for

A

post WW2 and war crimes trials the nuremberg code was created

principles ensure subjects are not abused/mistreated or misled

93
Q

List the points in the Nuremberg code

A

The voluntary consent of the human subject is absolutely essential

The experiment should be such as to yield fruitful results for the good of society, unprocurable by other methods or means of study, and not random and unnecessary in nature.

The experiment should be designed and based on the results of animal experimentation and a knowledge of natural history of any disease or other problem under study that the anticipated results will justify the performance of the experiment.

The experiment should be conducted in such a way to avoid all unnecessary physical and mental suffering

No experiment should ever be conducted where there is an a priori reason to believe that death or disabling injury will occur

The degree of risk taken should never exceed that determined by the humanitarian importance of the problem to be solved by the experiment.

Proper preparations should be made and adequate facilities provided to protect the experimental subject against even the remote possibilities of injury, disabilities or death.

The experiment should only be conducted by qualified persons. The highest degree of skill and care should be required through all stages of the experiment
.
During the course of the experiment, the human subject should be at liberty to bring the experiment to an end if he/she has reached the physical or mental state where continuation of the experiment seems to him/her impossible.

During the course of the experiment the scientist in charge must be prepared to terminate the experiment at any stage, if he/she has probable cause to believe, in the exercise of good faith, superior skill and careful judgement required of him/her, that a continuation of the experiment is likely to result in injury, disability or death to the experimental subject.

94
Q

what is the declaration of Helsinki (1964)

A

created by the world medical association for human research

provides additional info relating to informed consent, novel protocols etc

95
Q

what does a research ethics committee include

A

Senior executive of Institution
Representatives for each of faculties/colleges
Representative of consultant staff of local hospital
Health and Safety representative
Member of the lay community
Member of legal community
Statistician

96
Q

what factors does a REC consider

A 
participants 
recruitment strategies 
informed consent 
scientific background 
procedure 
protection of privacy
97
Q

what forms can medical screen take place

A

Hospital screening
GP letter
Questionnaire (e.g. PAR-Q)
Interview

98
Q

why does an experimenter carry out a risk assessment

A

as part of the ‘duty of care’

consider any likely to unlikely risks to the health of the participant and or the experimenters

99
Q

when is parental permission needed

A

if the subject is younger than 16

100
Q

define fabrication

A

reporting of non existent data

101
Q

define falsification

A

selective reporting of data

102
Q

define plagiarism

A

duplicate publication

103
Q

define correlation

A

statistical testing of relationship

104
Q

what are correlation coefficients used for

A

to quantitatively describe the strength and direction of the relationship between variables

good indicator goodness of fit of the regression line

105
Q

when is pearsons and spearmans rho used

A

Pearson product moment coefficient of correlation - both A and B on interval/ratio scale (parametric)

Spearman rho - when data are ranked (non parametric)

106
Q

what is linear regression

A

aims to predict dependent or criterion variable from the level in independent or predictor variable

107
Q

what is regression analysis

A

fits a model to the data to predict values of the dependent variable from the independent

108
Q

what is Bivariate regression

A

if only 2 variables are plotted, the model is a simple straight line of best fit

109
Q

what are the advantages of a questionnaire

A

data collection for a large sample in a wide geographical distribution in a short time

standardised forms

anonymity

particularly useful as a research methods for examining phenomena that can be assedd through self observation

110
Q

what are the disadvantages of a questionnaire

A

potential misunderstanding or misinterpreting questions or response choices
unknown accuracy or motivation of the respondents

111
Q

what does reliability refer to in a questionnaire

A

whether the respondents read the questions carefully and answers consistently

112
Q

what is the typical advice for question order

A

start with factual questions, move to attitudes
start with easier quicker questions
funnel techniques- broad to narrow
filter questions - exclude from further questions

113
Q

what are epidemiological approaches to research

A

the study of the distribution and determinants of health related status or events in populations and the application of this study to control of health problems

concerned with frequency and distribution of diseases, specific causes and risk factors

114
Q

what is morbitity

A

incidence of a specific disease

115
Q

what is mortality

A

incidence of death from a disease

116
Q

what is prevalence

A

number of existing cases of disease at a given time

117
Q

what is incidence

A

number of new cases of a disease in a specified time period

118
Q

what is a risk factor

A

a factor which is associated with prevalence of a disease

e.g inactivity

119
Q

what is relative risk

A

incidence rate in exposed population / incidence rate in non exposed population

120
Q

what do sports injury epidemiology studies typically address

A

incidence of injury in particular sports
risk of injury associated with certain sports
common sites and types of injuries
cause of the injuries
participation/economical loss due to sports injury

121
Q

what are prospective longitudinal severys

A

same group of subjects followed over time

122
Q

what are retrospective longitudinal surveys

A

group of people are asked to recall matters from the past

look back to determine possible causes

123
Q

what is a meta analysis

A

a statistical method of combining the result of a series of independent previously published studies carried out for the same general purpose

type of systematic literature review

124
Q

explain the procedure of a meta analysis

A 
research question 
define selection criteria 
identify all relevant literature 
read full text and evaluate 
extract study characteristics 
calculate effect size 
apply appropriate statistical techniques to analysis the statistical significance of the results
report all these steps and outcomes
125
Q

what are the advantages of conducting a meta analysis

A

increase power by increase sample size
improve estimates of edict size
resolve uncertainty when conflicting results occurred
improve the generalisability of findings
allows reviewer to find and compare previous studies
allows reviewer to test hypotheses, discover something new about topic

126
Q

what are the disadvantages of meta analysis

A

disagreements over effect size calculations

effect of different sample size in different studies

127
Q

What is the pearson product moment coefficient of correlation used for

A

correlation testing when variables A and B are on interval/ratio

128
Q

what is the spearmans rho used for

A

correlation testing when both variables are ranked

129
Q

How big is important according to Hopkins

A 
trivial = 0 
small effect= 0.2
moderate effect= 0.6
large effect = 1.2 
very large = 2 
nearly perfect = 4
130
Q

what statistical measures are best for parametric data

A

mean, standard deviation

131
Q

what statistical measures are best for non parametric data

A

median and IQR

132
Q

are parametric or non parametric tests more likely to make type 2 error

A

non parametric (also have less statistical power, more conservative, less able to test a difference which is truly there)

133
Q

what is concurrent validity

A

f newly developed test gives same outcomes as gold standard test, then the new test has high concurrent validity

134
Q

what is face validity

A

does the test measure what it appears to

135
Q

what is content validity

A

do all the items on the test adequately represent what you are trying to measure

136
Q

what is construct validity

A

used to attribute too complex to be measured easily or that has no criterion measure

137
Q

when is the pearson product moment used

A

parametric
correlation
both A and B interval/ratio

138
Q

when is the spearman rho used

A

non parametric
correlation
data ranked

139
Q

what is the standard error of the estimate (SEE)

A

indicator of the average error of prediction for the regression equation

the amount of error if you use the linear regression to predict a score

the better the fit of the regression line, the less variability around it and the smaller the SEE

140
Q

what is the correlation coefficient used for

A

to assess the goodness of fit

SPORT SCIENCE RESEARCH METHODS (2 decks)

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