REVISION Flashcards

1
Q

Which body cells do not divide and therefore have to last a lifetime?

A

Neurons
Renal cells
Myocardial cells

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2
Q

What are the big ‘I’s in care of the elderly?

A
Important presenting complaints which need to be considered
Instability
Incontinence (new)
Immobility
Intellectual changes
Inability to look after SLE
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3
Q

What is polypharmacy?

A

The use of multiple drugs, normally >4

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4
Q

Pharmacokinetics = what the body does to the drug

A

Pharmacokinetics = what the drug does to the body

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5
Q

Give some differences in the physiology of elderly patients which may affect drug distribution and action

A

1) Delayed gastric emptying
2) More fat, less lean tissue
3) Reduced liver and renal function
4) Reduced plasma albumi

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6
Q

START and STOPP criteria

A
STOPP = screening tool of older peoples prescriptions
START = screening tool to alert doctors to the right treatment
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7
Q

Which drug is used for delirium tremendous e.g. alcohol withdrawal

A

Chlordiazepoxide

The dose depends on the severity of drinking

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8
Q

Elderly patient with failing vision develops vivid visual hallucinations. Most likely diagnosis?

A

Charles-Bonnet syndrome

important that people are normally aware that they are hallucinating

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9
Q

Management of a patient with COPD who is still symptomatic on a SABA/ SAMA

A

FEV1 >50 = LABA or LAMA

FEV1 <50 = LABA + ICS (or LAMA)

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10
Q

Main differential for bilateral Hilary lymphadenopathy

A

TB or sarcoid

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11
Q

Define delirium

A

Transient, reversible decline in cognitive function, that is acute and fluctuating and occurs in the presence of an acute illness
Loads of causes including infection, stroke, head injury, pain and emotional distress

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12
Q

Neurotransmitters involved in delerium?

A

Low ACh
Dopamine excess

Classically causes reversal of sleep wake cycle, clouding of consciousness, hallucinations, lucid intervals,delusions etc

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13
Q

What is the confusion assessment method?

A
A diagnostic algorithm used in the assessment of delerium.
4 components
1) Acute onset and fluctuating course
2) Inattention
3) Disorganised thinking
4) altered conscious level 

Needs features 1+2 and 3 or 4 to be diagnosed

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14
Q

Define dementia

A

A syndrome of acquired, chronic, global impairment of higher brain function in an alert patient which interferes with there ability to cope with daily living

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15
Q

Features of normal pressure hydrocephalus

A

1) Incontinence
2) Gait disturbance
3) Dementia

Dementia may benefit from shunting

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16
Q

What is the first feature of Alzheimer’s disease?

A

Usually impaired short term memory

Remember
My - memory
Old - orientation 
Granny - grasp e.g. difficulty planning and with executive functions
Converses - communication 
Pretty - personality changes
Badly - behaviour changes
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17
Q

Investigations in a patient with suspected dementia

A

FBC, UE, LFT, calcium TFT, B12 and folate
ECG
Consider CT

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18
Q

Pathology features of alzheimers

A

Amyloid plaques

Neurofibrillary plaques from tau protein

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19
Q

Which gene is associated with alzheimers?

A

APOE e4

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20
Q

What are the 4 alzheimers drugs?

A

1) Donepezil
2) Galantamine
3) Rivastigmine
(All AChE inhibitor)

4) Memantine (only for severe disease)
A N methyl-D aspartame receptor antagonist

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21
Q

Which drugs should be used in a patient with severe Alzheimers?

A

Memantine (a N methyl D aspartame receptor antagonist)

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22
Q

What are the cut offs for diagnosing Alzheimers using MMSE?

A

MMSE is out of 30

Mild = 21-26
Moderate = 10-20
Severe = <10
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23
Q

Which group of patients should you always avoid giving anti-psychotic drugs in?

A

Levy body dementia
(if you have too, use quetiapine)

Rivastigmine and L-dopa can help symptoms)

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24
Q

Best anti-psychotic drug in levy body dementia?

A

Quetiapine

25
Q

List some features of fronto-temporal dementia?

A

Impaired executive function e.g. cannot problem solve/ plan
Social disinhibition - ‘private things in public’
Compulsive behaviour e.g eating
Loss of empathy

SSRIs may be useful - ACHe worsen symptoms
Important that memory and orientation are well preserved

26
Q

What is the SPLATT pnuemonic for assessing falls?

A
S = symptoms
P = previous falls
L = location 
A = activity e.g. standing, peeing, hanging out washing
T = time e.g. first thing, after tablets etc
T = trauma?
27
Q

List some common drugs that can cause falls?

A

1) Anti-hypertensive e.g. diuretics, CCB —> can cause postural hypotension
2) opiates/ benzodiazepines —> cause drowsiness
3) Ant-psychotics —> extra-pyramidal side effects
4) Anti-depressants, especially TCA —> slow central processing

28
Q

How do you check for postural hypotension?

A

Measure BP lying and after standing for 3 minutes

A drop of >10mmg diastolic and >20 systolic is significant

29
Q

Baseline investigations for a patient who falls?

A

FBC, TFT, B12

ECG

30
Q

Consequences of a long lie (>1 hour)

A

Hypothermia (if outside/ unseated room)
Pressure sores
Rhabdomyolysis
Death (its a very bad prognostic indicator)

31
Q

List a good differential for a dizzy patient

A

1) ENT = BPPV, Acoustic neuroma, Labyrinthitis, meniere’s
2) Cardio = hypotension, syncope, arrhythmias
3) Drugs
4) CNS - vertebro-basilar syndrome/ cerebellar disease

32
Q

Trabecular bone is spongy bone

A

Cortisol bone is the hard outer bone

33
Q

What tests should be done to exclude secondary causes of osteoporosis?

A

FBC, LFT, UE, ESR, serum immunoglobulins and urinary Bence Jones proteins to exclude myeloma
Calcium
TFT

34
Q

How do bisphosphonates work?

A

They bind to hydroxyapatite within the bone which inhibits osteoclast recruitment and therefore bone respiration

35
Q

Which drug can be used to increase bone density?

A

Teriparatide
Given by daily sub-cut injection in people with severe disease who are not tolerant of bisphosphonate
Very expensive

36
Q

Which bone drug is given by 3 monthly injection?

A

Denosumab

A monoclonal antibody against RANKL

37
Q

What is osteomalacia?

A

Reduced calcification due to vitamin D deficiency
E.g. there is a normal amount of bone but it is very weak
Features include fractures, skeletal pain, muscle weakness and waddling gait
Alk phos will be high, Ca and phosphate low

38
Q

What is Paget’s disease of bone?

A

An increase in bone tunorver, producing expanded but weakened bone. Usually the skull, pelvis, spine and femur that is affected
Bone pain or nerve entrapment may be the presenting feature - often the 8th nerve

39
Q

Alk phos and calcium are high in patients with Pagets

A

Remember that many will be asymptomatic and diagnosed with finding of raised Alk phos for other reasons

Treatment is usually with risedronate (a bisphosphonate)

40
Q

What is the Sestamibi scan?

A

A technetium scan used in the detection of a parathyroid adenoma e.g. in primary hyperparathyroidism- used to determine anatomy pre-surgery

41
Q

List 5 causes of hypercalcaemia in older patients

A

1) Primary hyperparathyroidism
2) Hypercalcaemia of malignancy
3) Renal disease
4) Myeloma
5) drug induced e.g. thiazides, lithium and vit D

42
Q

What is the CHA2DS2-Vasc score?

A
Calculates the risk of stroke in patient with AF
E.G. age, sex, CHF, HT, previous stroke
DM etc
0 = low risk
1 = low-moderate e.g. consider aspirin
2+ = high —> warfarin
43
Q

Remember that amarousis fugax is a type of TIA

A

Remember that amarousis fugax is a type of TIA

44
Q

What is the ABCD2 score?

A

A tool used to calculate the risk of stroke after a TIA
Age
BP
Clinical features e.g. unilateral weakness (2), speech disturbance (1)
Duration <10 min (0), <1 hour (1), >1hr (2)
DM?

45
Q

Total anterior circulation infarct

A

Middle coronary artery occluded - very bad prognosis
All 3:
1) Higher cortical dysfunction e.g. dysphasia
2) hemianopia
3) Motor/ sensory defect in 2 out of face, arm and leg

46
Q

Partial anterior circulation infarct

A

2/3 of TACI symptoms
E.g. hemianopia, executive dysfunction and motor/ sensory deficit

Branch of MCA or ACA, reasonable outcome but very high chance of recurrence

47
Q

Features of lacunar infarct

A

Occlusion of deep perforating arteries, often with good recovery

Any 1 of:
Motor deficit
Sensory deficit
Hemiparesis 
Ataxia
48
Q

Features of posterior circulation infarct

A

Any one of:
Homonymous hemianopia
Brain stem signs
Cerebellar dysfunction

Good recovery but also high recurrence rate

49
Q

Remember that vertigo can be a feature of a cerebellar stroke

A

Other signs are a focal neurological deficit, ataxia and nystagmus

50
Q

Which drugs should be used in the managment of a SAH?

A

Nimidopine (dyhydropirodine CCB)

Codeine for analgesia

51
Q

Aspirin is given in ALL ischaemic stroke patients

A

300mg acutely and then 75mg daily for at least the first 2 weeks

52
Q

Indications for thrombolysis in stroke?

A

Main one is within 4.5 hours of symptom onset

Also no haemorrhaging stroke, no previous stroke within 3 months and not on anticoagulation

53
Q

Secondary prevention in stroke patients?

A

1) Lifestyle - smoking, diet, salt and alcohol
2) Anti-platelet e.g. clopidogrel 75mg
3) Statin
4) BP

54
Q

What are the 6 features of dependence?

A

1) Strong desire to use substance
2) Withdrawal if not using
3) Tolerance
4) Lack on interest in other things’
5) Using despite harm
6) difficulty controlling substance use

55
Q

What is the main side effect/ risk of MAOI?

A

Mono-amine oxidase inhibitors e.g. moclobemide, hydrazine and phelzine can cause drug reactions and potentially fatal hypertensive crisis

Patients must limit tyramine in their diet —> liver, alcohol etc due to the risk of crisis

Patients should carry a card around - being on a MAOI affects dose of drugs e.g. adrenaline

56
Q

What is the CGA?

A

Comprehensive geriatric assessment, gold standard assessment of older people. Fast, effective and should be used

57
Q

How is tone and reflexes in PD?

A
Tone = increased
Reflexes = normal
58
Q

For BPH, alpha blockers have an effect within a few days

A

5 alpha reductase inhibitors e.g. finestaride take several weeks -

59
Q

Treatment of delirium

A

Treat cause, orientation and good nursing
Oral haloperidol may be required
Avoid benzos as they worsen delirium