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Incident Command Level 1 > Revision 22 > Flashcards

Revision 22 Flashcards

1
Q

What does ACM stand for ?

A

Aluminium
Composite
Material

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2
Q

What does EAS and EACIE stand for?

A

Evacuation
Alert
System

Evacuation 
Alert 
Control
Indicating 
Equipment
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3
Q

When do you send fire surrounded message?

A

3 or more jets in use
All 6 pump fires and above

When all jets are in position and no possibility of further assistance being required.

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4
Q

If the fire sector commander is under pressure to commit BA crews,when should they be committed ?

A

When a safe system of work is in place

SSOW

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5
Q

When is it an offence to obstruct emergency service personnel ?

A

When fire rescue service personnel are protecting a property from Fire.

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6
Q

What is an ORT officers role,at an incident ?

A

To provide support to the incident commander and monitoring officer by offering assistance, knowledge and experience to resolve the incident.
(Among other roles as well)

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7
Q

When should smoke blockers be deployed ?

A

The door from the stairwell to the Fire flat.

Option involving the word stairwell

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8
Q

When should external safety spotters be deployed ?

A

When resources allow and when a clear line of sight to the building can be maintained.

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9
Q

When can the sprinkler main valve be shut off ?

A

When the incident commander is satisfied that the operated sprinklers or drenchers can be dispensed with.

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10
Q

How long will control reserve an appliance before a scheduled revisit ?

A

30 minutes

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11
Q

When can you reduce the hazard zone around an Acetylene cylinder that has been involved in a fire ?

A

After being cooled for one hour and a CAP test is completed.

Cylinder
Assessment
Process

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12
Q

When will a monitoring officer take over from the incident commander ?

A

Only if risk critical.

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13
Q

What is the definition of a tactical withdrawal ?

A

The removal of personnel from a specific area of potential danger in a safe and planned manner.

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14
Q

What is the definition of an emergency evacuation ?

A

The immediate and controlled with drawl of all personnel from the scene of operations to a place of safety.

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15
Q

What is the definition of a firefighter emergency ?

A

Fire service personnel (or personnel working under the control of London Fire Brigade) are unaccounted for and/or in need of rescue.

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16
Q

What is the PDA for a firefighter emergency ?

A 
6 pumping appliance (3 Stn/O)
 2 fire rescue unit
Fire investigation unit
Command unit
London ambulance service
Press liaison officer
Fire safety officer 
 3 station commanders
1 Group commander
Senior accident investigating officer

DAC (takes over as incident commander If a DAC or higher is not already in charge)

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17
Q

What must take place after an emergency evacuation or FF emergency has been implemented ?

A

Roll Call.
must be overseen or taken by the incident commander.

(This is not required for a tactical withdrawal)

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18
Q

What are the three levels of incident command ?

A

Bronze.
Silver.
Gold.

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19
Q

What is the minimum crew required to go to the bridge head ?

A 
Leading firefighter (fire sector commander )
2 firefighters in BA
1 Entry control Operative.

Answer 4

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20
Q

What are the three phases of an incident ?

A

Initial assessment.
Containing.
Under control.

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21
Q

What is the definition of a flash point ?

A

The lowest temperature at which a flame can propagate in or above the liquid .

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22
Q

What is the definition of a safe system of work ?

A

A safe system of work is a procedure that result from a systematic examination of a working process .
the production of a risk assessment, designed to control hazards and risks by elimination or some other suitable method.

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23
Q

When should the black and yellow hazard tape be used ?

A

To mark the inner Corden (hazard zone )

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24
Q

In the mnemonic METHANE what does the letter A stand for ?

A

Access ( routes that are safe to use)

Major incident declared 
Exact location 
Type of incident 
Hazard present or suspected 
Access 
Number,type and severity casualties 
Emergency service present/required
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25
Q

When should guidelines be used ?

A

If the building has a complex lay out and no obvious way of tracing the way out Exists
example hoses become submerged .

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26
Q

At what height does a building need to offer firefighting fixed installations ?

A

18 Meters

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27
Q

Who can declare a major incident ?

A

Any emergency service.

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28
Q

When should seatbelts be worn in the back of an appliance ?

A

Always.

When responding to incidents, coming back from incidents and whilst on non-emergency business.

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29
Q

Name the initial actions on a compartment fire ?

A

45 mm Jets.

Thermal image camera ETC .

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30
Q

What is the definition of a fire point ?

A

A higher temperature than flash point.
The temperature at which vapour continues to burn after being ignited.
The lowest temperature at which a Volatile combustible substance continues to burn in air after its vapours have been ignited.

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31
Q

When taking over an incident who should the new incident commander communicate this to ?

A

The fire ground.

Control.

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32
Q

What is the definition of a hazard ?

A

Anything with the potential to cause harm.

33
Q

What are the dangers of a basement incident ?

A 
Metabolic heat stress.
Complexed layout.
Chimney effect.
Heat barrier.
All of the above !
34
Q

If you receive a fire survival guidance call (FSG) on an appliance radio where should you record the information ?

A

The control information form.

35
Q

When can you extend a branch guideline ?

A

Never !

36
Q

Working on water when can a firefighter enter the water at level one ?

A

Firefighters can enter water to a depth where the structural firefighting PPE is not compromised and there is no danger of them being swept off their feet.

37
Q

Powers of entry fire services act 2004 when can we make entry ?

A

Only when a suspected fire or reasonably suspect that a person is in danger.

38
Q

Roadways which of the following powers do we have ?

A

Close the road.
Restrict access to property.
Regulate traffic.
All of the above !

39
Q

What are composite cylinders generally used for ?

A

Domestic purposes.

Patio heaters, barbecues etc .

40
Q

Dynamic risk assessment who has overall responsibility for the DRA ?

A

Primary responsibility is the incident commander.

Anyone can act on their own dynamic risk assessment for the interest of safety

41
Q

When should seatbelts be worn on brigade vehicles

A

At all Times !

Driver can remove when preforming a manoeuvre.

42
Q

What is the flow rate of a dry rising main ?

A

1500 lpm .

43
Q

When can ventilation be performed ?

A

Only on the instruction of the incident commander.

44
Q

When is it safe to commit a crew to a fire compartment ?

A

After casting it to a risk to benefit analysis.

45
Q

Who does a sector commander report to ?

A

The incident commander

46
Q

What are some good qualities of an incident commander ?

A 
Self aware.
Display and instill confidence.
Demonstrate and foster trust.
Foster two-way communications.
Understand use of authority.
Set expectations and standards.
Leads safely.
Values and support people.
Is competent.
47
Q

When attending an incident with an unsecured guard dog what action should you take .

A

Request a keyholder.

Request the attendance of police with a dog handler.

48
Q

When attending cross border incident the incident commander should in relations to their crews ?

A

Only work within their own area of operations .

49
Q

What hazard does Aluminium composite material (ACM) pose at an incidence ?

A

Risk of rapid external fire spread leading to debris falling and potentially leading to loss of escape route .

50
Q

What is the minimum size of the initial hazard zone to be set up at an incident involving asbestos ?

A

25m

51
Q

You are attending an incident and as you approach the incident your electronic personal dosemeter (EPD) sounds and so does the crews around you what should your immediate action be ?

A

Withdraw to a position where the EPD stops sounding.

52
Q

When sending informative messages from incidents general principles of messages frequencies are to be followed what are these general principles ?

A

As soon as practical with a maximum of 20 minutes after arrival.

Every 30 minutes if the incident is protected.
Every 60 minutes at incidence of eight pumping appliances or more.

53
Q

A running call is received at station to a person locked out no danger of fire what is your actions ?

A

Advise caller to contact Trades person or refer to the police for 24 hour locksmith availability.

54
Q

When should an incident command pump be established at an incident ?

A

As soon as possible whenever more than one pumping appliance is in attendance.

55
Q

Recipients of orders or briefings should clearly understand what is required of them.

What is the system for confirming this understanding ?

A

The recipient should repeat back the order or briefing.

56
Q

When can a basement procedure implemented message be sent from incident commander ?

A

When BA crews are committed with a minimum 45 mm jet and a support crew protecting egress with a 45 mm jet are present.

57
Q

How long should you cool an LPG cylinder for that has been involved in a fire ?

A

Until it reaches ambient temperature.

58
Q

Shut in lift .

when can you enter the lift shaft .

A

When there is an immediate threat of loss of life or serious life threatening injury.

59
Q

What are the four categories of incident response ?

A

Normal.
Restricted.
Augmented.
Special.

60
Q

Emergency workers obstruction act what provision is there for firefighters ?

A

You cannot obstruct or hinder firefighters when carrying out duties to protect a property on fire.

61
Q

Displaying and instilling confidence is an effective incident command skill why ?

A

Personnel will respond positively to a confident leader which will improve team performance.

62
Q

Demonstrating and fostering trust is an effective command skill why ?

A

Lead people.
Trust.
Impact on crews
All of the above !

63
Q

A wet rising main (WRM)can deliver how much water and for how long ?

A

1500 lpm 45 minutes

64
Q

Where is the bridge head to be positioned for a high-rise incident ?

A

2 floors below the fire in the firefighting lobby.

65
Q

You attend a shed a light incident fire is extinguished with hose reel jet one adult male suffering smoke inhalation
what message should be sent for stop ?

A

Full stop !

Smoke inhalation

66
Q

You are the incident commander at an incident involving a compartment fire. In what circumstances if any would you allow hose reels rather than 45 mm jet to be used for the initial attack ?

A

If reliable information indicates that an initial attack using a hose reel is a sufficient alternative.

67
Q

You attend an electrical substation Where it appears that an unconscious casualty requires rescue.
What is the minimum safe approach distance to the substation for this scenario ?

A

5m

68
Q

What is the tactical mode being described in the statement below ?

“Where the operation is being tackled from with in the perceived hazard area.”

A

Offensive (Oscar)

69
Q

Where should a message be sent giving the outcome of every fire survival guidance (FSG) call ?

A

Control.

70
Q

What are the types of sectors at an incident ?

A

Operational.

Functional.

71
Q

Roadways.

three types of Cordon at a roadway incident ?

A

Traffic cordon.
Inner cordon.
Outer cordon.

72
Q

At an incident where should all media enquiries be directed ?

A

The press liaison officer.

PLO

73
Q

What is the definition of a major incident .

A

A major incident is an event or situation with a large or serious consequence.
Which requires special arrangements to be implemented by one or more emergency response agency.

74
Q

Who is responsible for briefing breathing apparatus (BA) crews ?

A

Incident commander.

Sector commander.

75
Q

Form 2416

Effect entry

A

Proof of right of entry.
Indemnity undertaking Type of service being given.
The address of incident .
The name and where different from the incident,the address of the person requesting the service .
Signature of person requesting service .
iC signature .

76
Q

Evacuation Alarms

A

Have time to check the cause before it goes to full bells.

77
Q

Voltage of electrical gloves

A

3,300v

78
Q

What is the Hot Zone MTFA ?

A

This is a contaminated area where the initial release occurs or disperses. It will be the area likely to pose an immediate threat to the health and safety of everybody in it and is the area of greatest risk. It is located inside the inner cordon and is part of the hazard area.

Incident Command Level 1 (2 decks)

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