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LOIT 2018 ADD > Review to Date > Flashcards

Review to Date Flashcards

1
Q

What will trip AFN-P01?

A
  • LOP
  • SIAS (need to override before restarting pump)
  • CTA-HV-1 or 4 <80% open
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2
Q

What is minimum pump speed for AFA-P01 for adequate oil lubrication?

A

1000 rpm

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3
Q

What does is the SG D/P lockout value and what does it affect?

A
  • 185 psid
  • Lower pressure SG will not be fed
  • (steam supply to AFA is not affected)
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4
Q

Where are AFA-P01 potentiometers located and how are they set?

A
  • Control room, at the turbine (local), RSDP

- Pre-set by surveillance for approx. 3600 rpm.

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5
Q

What will cause a DAFAS actuation?

A
  • SPS actuation on high PZR pressure (2409 psia) & SG level of 20.3% (2 of 4)
  • NO AFAS or MSIS
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6
Q

What are the risks of operating with SG NR level <27%

A

Downcomer feed ring damage may occur with flowrates <250 gpm.

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7
Q

What condenser pressures will cause ARN-P01D (standby condenser air removal pump) to start and take suction on the associated shell?

A

-4.2” HgA in shell A
-4.8” HgA in shell B
-5.3” HgA in shell C
(rule of 8’s)

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8
Q

What conditions are required to receive the red light corresponding to the post filter unit being in the through filter mode?

A
  • Blower received start signal

- All (3) valves are properly aligned (13,19A, 19B)

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9
Q

At what speed should vacuum not be broken in the turbine unless an emergency exists?

A

1200 rpm

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10
Q

What will isolate Aux Steam to the Aux Building?

A

1 psid in any 1 of 20 areas

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11
Q

What will close the Blowdown Containment Isolation Valves & Blowdown Sample Containment Isolation Valves?

A
  • SIAS
  • AFAS
  • MSIS
  • Loss of IA
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12
Q

Describe interlocks and trips associated with the Condensate Pumps?

A
  • Pump will start if level > LO-LO level of 30” in associated hotwell half
  • B pump requires min of 1 suction valve to be open to start
  • Trip on low flow (<3600 gpm for 45s)
  • Trip on LO-LO hotwell level of 30” in associated half
  • Trip on bus undervoltage our lockout
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13
Q

How do the Condensate pump mini flow valves fail?

A

Open on a loss of air or power to the solenoid.

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14
Q

What is the motive force for the condenser vacuum breakers?

A

Spring close, air open.

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15
Q

What will cause the CD demin bypass valve (PDV-195) to auto-open?

A
  • -all conditions valid, even if controller in manual–
  • Demin inlet or oulet valve not fully open
  • Demin high DP (>55 psid)
  • IA low header pressure (reverse acting controller)
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16
Q

How does a Heater Drain Pump trip affect Condenser level?

A

Condenser level will drop (up to 9”), therefore condenser level should be maintained near 41”.

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17
Q

What stator cooling conditions will initiate a turbine trip?

A
  • LO inlet water pressure (549 gpm) (2 of 3)
  • HI oulet temperature (85 C) (2 of 3)
  • LO stater inlet flow, rectifier flow, bushing X flow, connecting ring flow
  • -Trip will occur after 70s delay. NKN-D41 power required to initiate trip
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18
Q

What is the Upper Electrical Limit (UEL) and what determines if it is reached?

A
  • 200 steps or 150” withdrawn

- Reed Switch Position Transmitters (RSPTs)

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19
Q

How many Reed Switch Position Transmitters are there and how do they function?

A
  • There are (2) RSPTs for each of the 89 CEAs

- A magnet closes reed switches on the voltage divider network

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20
Q

What is the purpose of the MG Sets and what precautions must be observed if 1 is lost?

A
  • Receive 480V from L03 & L10 and transform it to reliable 240V
  • CEAs must be moved in MI to prevent overload
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21
Q

How do the CEDMCS UV relays operate?

A
  • Detect voltage on the CEDM bus. If 2 of 4 detect less than 180V,
  • energize K1 & de-energize K2 relays
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22
Q

What will cause a CWP?

A
  • 2 of 4 pre-trip of hi PZR pressure
  • 2 of 4 CPC channel pre-trip on HI LPD or LO DNBR
  • RPCB flag from CEAC or CEA deviation
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23
Q

What will cause an AMI?

A
  • Reactor power <15%

- Reactor power < AMI threshold & TLI<15% & no CEA withdrawal demand from RRS

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24
Q

What will cause a CMA?

A
  • 30s motion in high rate (30 “/m)

- 60s motion in low rate (3 “/m)

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25
Q

How is the Group Middle Average number calculated for the CEA display on B04?

A

Average of all CEAs in group except for highest and lowest CEA.

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26
Q

How does CEDMCS respond to a failure of PNA-D25 or PNB-D26?

A

CEAC failure and (2) RTSGs will open.

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27
Q

How does CEDMCS respond to a failure of PNC-D27?

A

(2) RTSGs will open. Core mimic lights in PacMan shape.

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28
Q

How does CEDMCS respond to a failure of PND-D28?

A

(2) RTSGs will open. Core mimic lights in D shape. CWP signal also.

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29
Q

How does CEDMCS respond to failures of NNN-D11 and/or NNN-D12?

A
  • Loss of NNN-D11 or 12 will have no effect.

- Loss of both will drop all rods, and loss of UEL, LEL, & DRC (mimic)

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30
Q

What is the purpose of Flow Control Valve, FCV-27, in the control oil system?

A

Diverts portion of hydraulic fluid to be cleaned up.

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31
Q

What will auto start the backup control oil pump?

A

CO pressure of 1300 psig.

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32
Q

At what control oil pressure will the main turbine trip?

A

1100 psig (2 of 3).

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33
Q

How does the Boronometer/Rad Monitor Flow Control Valve, CHE-FV-204 fail?

A

Fails Open - AOV, NK power to solenoid.

bypassing flow to boronometer

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34
Q

How does the Seal Injection Temperature Isolation Valve, CHN-UV-231P, fail and what auto actuations does it have?

A

Fails Open - AOV, NK power to solenoid.

Closes on Seal Inj temperature HI-HI (150F) or LO-LO (70F)

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35
Q

How do the Seal Injection Flow Control Valves, CHE-FV-241thru244, fail?

A

Fail Open - AOVs, NK power to solenoid

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36
Q

How does the Seal Bleedoff RV Isolation Valve Fail?

A

Fails Open - AOV, PK power

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37
Q

How does the BAMP Suction Isolation Valve, CHN-UV-532, fail?

A

Fails Open - AOV, NK power

Normally hand-jacked open with air isolated

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38
Q

What are the auto actions associated with the Boric Acid Makeup to Charging Pump Suction Valve, CHN-UV-514?

A

-Opens on a VCT LO-LO level of 5%
-Closes when VCT LO-LO level clears at 15%
MOV,fails as is

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39
Q

What are the auto actions associated with the RWT makeup to Charging Pump Suction Valve, CHE-UV-536?

A

-Opens on a VCT LO-LO level of 5% if CHN-UV-514 has no power.
MOV, NHN-M72 power, fails as is

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40
Q

What are the auto actions associated with the RDT Isolation Valve, CHA-UV-560?

A

-Closes on CIAS
-Closes on HI-HI RDT pressure of 10 psig (no override)
AOV, PK powered to solenoid, fails closed

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41
Q

What are the auto actions associated with the RDT Vent Valve, CHN-UV-540?

A

-Closes on HI-HI RDT pressure of 10 psig (no override)

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42
Q

What are the auto actions associated with the EDT Inlet, Outlet, and Vent Valves, CHN-UV-563,562 & 564?

A

-Close on HI-HI EDT pressure of 7 psig (no override)

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43
Q

What will put a Charging pump into an anti-pump condition if green flagged?

A

-Low suction pressure trip
-Overload or load shed
Can clear anti-pump by taking to stop.

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44
Q

How is VCT level normally controlled?

A

Auto makeup of 34% & stops at 44% based on CHN-LI-226.

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45
Q

How is VCT HI & LO levels controlled?

A
  • Diverts to HUT @ 60%, resets at 58%

- @ 5%, CHN-UV-514 opens, CHN-UV-501 closes, a BAMP starts (536 opens if 514 has lost power). Resets at 15%

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46
Q

What will occur if Seal Injection is isolated to RCPs?

A

HP Seal Cooler inlet temperature will rise to 200-220F, all other temperatures remain normal.

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47
Q

What are the design bases of the AF system?

A

Cooldown @ 75F/hr to 350F

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48
Q

What are the available control power sources for AFN?

A 
PKA-D21
A class battery charger
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49
Q

What will auto start the AFB pump?

A

SIAS
CSAS
LOP
AFAS 1/2

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50
Q

What CR indication will you see on a manual electrical trip of AFA-HV-54?

A

Switch top light green

Switch bottom light red

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51
Q

When AFA-HV-54 trips on overspeed, what is the status of the latch lever?

A

It will be raised to the reset position.

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52
Q

What supplies governor power for AFA?

A

PKA-M41

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53
Q

What happens to the steam supply valves on AFA after a start?

A

134A/138A open

134/138 open 30 sec later

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54
Q

What happens on an AFAS 1/2 (related to AF)?

A 
Both class AF pumps start
Isolation &amp; Control valves to 1/2 SGs open and cycle to maintain level between 25.8-40.8% WR.
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55
Q

What is the max amp limit for AFB?

A

151 amps

122 amps for N

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56
Q

If the RMWT is supplying AF, how are the recirc lines aligned?

A

Still aligned to the CST. Contamination path exists.

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57
Q

When do the AR pump suction valves receive a permissive to open?

A

When the pump’s breaker closes

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58
Q

During hogging operation, is the release monitored?

A

No. RU-141 & the post filter are both bypassed.

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59
Q

What cools the condensate receiver tank?

A

NC via the AS vent condenser.

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60
Q

What happens if RU-7 alarms?

A

Effluent from the AS vent condenser will divert from the condenser to the LRS low TDS HUT.

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61
Q

What cools the BD HX?

A

Condensate

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62
Q

Where is high rate blowdown normally aligned?

A

Condenser, BFT cannot handle it.

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63
Q

How are BOP ESFAS cabinets cooled?

A

Each cabinet cooled by (2) fans, one powered from PN and the other from PK.

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64
Q

Which rad monitors initiate a FBEVAS?

A

RU-31, A train, SFP

RU-145, B train, FB exhaust

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65
Q

What cross trips exist on a FBEVAS initiation?

A 
One channel will cross trip to the other channel (A/B)
FBEVAS cross trips to CREFAS (A to A, B to B)
Manual initiation (B05) will not cause cross trips.
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66
Q

What is unique about manual initiation of A vs. B on FBEVAS?

A

A will trip fan (A in fan)

B closes dampers

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67
Q

What happens if both trains of FBEVAS, CREFAS, CRVIAS, or CPIAS are placed in bypass?

A

Each train will block the other from being put in bypass. Neither will be in bypass.

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68
Q

What is the power supply to the BOP ESFAS cabinets?

A

PNA(B) and PKA(B) auctioneered.

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69
Q

How do you reset the latch lever after a manual/electrical trip of AFA-HV-54?

A

Take the HS to jog closed to get both green lights and reset the latch lever

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70
Q

Which RU monitors will initiate a CPIAS?

A

RU-37 & RU-38

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71
Q

If you get a single CPIAS RU monitor to trip, what signals will initiate?

A

Both trains of CPIAS and both trains of CREFAS.

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72
Q

What will trip the CP exhaust fans?

A

CIAS isolate the dampers which trips the fans.

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73
Q

What RU monitors are associated with CREFAS?

A

RU-29 & RU-30.

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74
Q

What will initiate a CREFAS?

A

Cross trip from FBEVAS or CPIAS, RU-29/30, Test initiation of any of the above, or manual from B05

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75
Q

What is unique about initiating a CREFAS A vs. B from B05?

A

A train will trip the normal supply/exaust fans.

B will close the dampers.

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76
Q

What will indicate a LOP in relation to the LOP/LS module?

A

2 of 4 trip of UV/DV relays. Each channel is comprised of 1 UV and 1DV relay in the following scheme:
1 & 5, 2 & 6, 3 & 7, 4 & 8.

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77
Q

For ESF actuations, what system starts pumps and which moves valves?

A

The BOP ESFAS will only start pumps/motors. The PPS ESFAS repositions valves.

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78
Q

If a CS pump is starts on a CSAS with no SIAS, how can the pump be stopped?

A

Override is for SIAS only, therefore the HS can be taken to stop to anti-pump the pump.

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79
Q

Describe modes of the BOP ESFAS.

A 
0 - normal mode, no input
1 - SIAS/CSAS no LOP
2 - SIAS/CSAS &amp; LOP, DG BKR closed
3 - LOP no SIAS/CSAS, DG BKR closed
4 - Misc (DG RUN, CREFAS, CRVIAS, FBEVAS, etc)
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80
Q

How does a loss of PN affect BOP ESFAS?

A

Cabinets get backup power from PK, but RU monitors powered from PN may trip and initiate.

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81
Q

Why do you need to wait to reset equipment after BOP ESFAS is reenergized?

A

If a spurrious LOP signal is present, it will stay in for 60s and needs to clear first.

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82
Q

What will happen on a HI-HI level in one of the LP FW heaters?

A

The inlet & outlet valves for that entire string will isolate.

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83
Q

What will close the hotwell drawoff valve?

A

LO suction pressure on either FWP

High condenser cation conductivity

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84
Q

How can the auto-start of a CE pump be simulated?

A

A pushbutton on B06 simulates a LO-LO discharge pressure (equated to 549 gpm). Pump will run until secured.

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85
Q

What will prevent auto-start of a CE pump?

A

Electrical fault

Generator differential or stator ground

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86
Q

What will happen to CE trips if NKN-D41 is lost?

A

Power to the CE panel is lost, the CE trips will not function to trip the turbine.

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87
Q

What will open the load contactor downstream of the MG sets?

A

SPLA trip base on 2409 psia in the PZR.

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88
Q

What are the CEA movement speeds in manual?

A

30”/min = 40 steps/min

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89
Q

Where do the CEDM UV relays measure voltage and how/what do they actuate?

A

They measure bus voltage a CEDM cabinets.
2 of 4 relays sensing < 180V, K1 denergize & K2 energize to:
signal EHC to trip turbine
signal RK/RJ/PC for RX trip
signal FWCS for RTO
signal SBCS for QO block

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90
Q

What will cause an AWP?

A

Tav-Tref>6F
Tcold>575F
SBCS demand

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91
Q

What will cause a CWP?

A

2 of 4 pretrips on Lo DNBR, Hi LPD, or Hi PZR pressure

RPCB flag input from or CEAC/CEA deviation

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92
Q

What will cause an AMI?

A 
Tavg mismatch > 5 F when in avg
TLI mismatch > 5% when in avg
RX power mismatch >5% when in avg
RX power <15%
TLI < 15% &amp; RX power < AMI threshold
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93
Q

What modes of rod motion will function without the plant computer?

A

MI & MG. Pulses are sent to PC, sequential and auto will not function without pulses.

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94
Q

What must be done if cooling is lost to CEDMS?

A

If RCS temp > 300F, cooling must be restored within 10 minutes or a rapid shutdown and cooldown is required. If cooling is restored within 40 minutes of loss, shutdown may stop.

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95
Q

How is the control oil purity maintained?

A

FCV-27 diverts a controlled portion of the fluid to be cleaned up.

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96
Q

What will start the standby control oil pump?

A

The standby pump will start when system pressure drops to 1300 psig.

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97
Q

At what pressure will control oil trip the turbine?

A

1100 psig, 2 of 3.

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98
Q

What is the basis for the COLSS LPD POL?

A

The POL is based on 13.1 kW/ft to prevent fuel cladding temperature from exceeding 2200 F.

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99
Q

What are the general functions of COLSS & CPCs?

A

COLSS - monitor & alarm

CPCs - auto trips

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100
Q

What is displayed on the power limit margin meter?

A

Smoothed plant power is compared to the most restricitve of:

License power (typical)
DNBR POL
LPD POL

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101
Q

Why must COLSS compensate for incores?

A

Time delay for rhodium decay

Depletion of rhodium in detectors

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102
Q

How do temperature changes affect radial peaking factors in COLSS?

A

Peaking factors are based on Tcold of 555F. A deviation (hot or cold) will be conservatively increase the peaking factors, reducing the LPD POL.

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103
Q

What does the COLSS CPC Az Tilt Alarm indicate?

A

COLSS calculated tilt is > the value inputted in to CPCs and the CPCs should be updated.

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104
Q

Which detectors will be substituted for in COLSS?

A

Those located in containment (Pzr Press, Th, Tc, RCP delt P)

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105
Q

If RCP delta P increases, how will this affect the POLs?

A

DNBR will decrease (high delta P indicates lower flow)

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106
Q

If all else is held constant and the blowdown constant in COLSS is increased, what will happen to JSCALOR?

A

It will decrease.

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107
Q

What concerns are there with restarting COLSS?

A

Only start 1 computer at a time and allow 10-15 minutes for values to normalize before determined operable.

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108
Q

Hos is Az Tilt affected in COLSS if a rod slips to 10” withdrawn?

A

Incores will see the flux shift and calculate increased tilt.

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109
Q

What happens to the LPD POL if rods are withdrawn?

A

It will generally increase.

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110
Q

What is the purpose of the CPCs

A

Ensure SAFDLs are not exceeded during AOOs.

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111
Q

What is an output of CPCs?

A
  • LPD DNBR trips and pre-trips
  • Aux trips
  • Calibrated neutron flux
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112
Q

Name the CPC aux trips.

A 
Conditions outside analyzed range:
    -PZR pressure 1860 to 2388 psia
    -ASI -.05 to .05
    -Tcold 505 to 590 F
    -Hot pin (radial peak) 1.28 to 7
Asymmetric SG transient 
Thot within 19 F of saturation
<2 RCPs running
VOPT (1%/min ramp)
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113
Q

What is the purpose of the 95% RCP speed trip/pretrip?

A

Loss of 4 RCP’s not detected fast enough by normal calcs, so 95% speed covers blind spot and trips HI LPD/LO DNBR (not aux trip).

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114
Q

When do CPCs shift to/from canned value of ASI going up/coming down?

A
  • When sum of 3 excore safety channels = 51% going up

- When sum of 3 excore safety channels = 45% coming down

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115
Q

What parameters are used to calculate mass flow rates calculated in CPCs?

A

RCP speed sensors, Thot, Tcold and Pzr Pressure

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116
Q

How/why do CEA deviation penalty factors build in over time in CPCs?

A

12 finger rods build in penalty factors that peak at 6 hours to account for Xenon redistribution.

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117
Q

What will illuminate the CEA Deviation lamp?

A

CEA deviation in a subgroup beyond 5.5”

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118
Q

What happens to excore count rates as Tcold decreases?

A

The colder water will absorb neutrons, reducing count rates. CPCs will account for this and boost the signal to compensate.

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119
Q

What must be done when energizing a CPC channel (restoring PN)?

A

All parameters should be bypassed to prevent inadvertant trips.

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120
Q

What signals will auto start a CT pump?

A

SIAS
LOP
CREFAS
CRVIAS

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121
Q

What will close CHB-UV-515. LD to RHX?

A

SIAS

RG HX outlet of 413 F.

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122
Q

What will close CHA-UV-516, LD RG HX Iso?

A

SIAS

CIAS

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123
Q

What will close CHB-UV-523, LD outside Cont Iso?

A

CIAS

LD HX outlet of 135 F

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124
Q

How do the LDCVs 110P/Q fail?

A

Closed on loss of air
Closed on loss of NNN-D11 for PLCS
Loss of indication only on NKN-D42

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125
Q

What will isolate the BP CVs 201P/Q?

A

Loss of air
Loss of NNN-D12 to BP controller
LD HX outlet T of 148 F (backup to 523)
Loss of indication on NKN-D42

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126
Q

What is the relationship between VCT outlet valve CHN-UV-501 and RWT MU to CHG pump valve CHE-UV-536?

A

501 will close at VCT level of 5%. If 514 (which would normally open) has loss of power, 536 will open. If 501 is then opened, 536 will close.

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127
Q

What type of valves are aux spray valves CHA-HV-203 and CHB-HV-205 and how do they fail?

A

SOVs, powered from PK and they fail closed.

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128
Q

What will close the seal injection temperature isolation valve, CHN-UV-231P?

A

Seal injection temp <70 F or >150F

Fails open on loss of air

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129
Q

How do the seal injection flow control valves, CHE-FV-241 through 244 fail?

A

Open (aov’s)

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130
Q

What will close the CHA-UV-506 and CHB-UV-505 seal bleedoff containment isolation valves?

A

CSAS
Loss of air (fail closed)

Bleedoff will continue to RDT through 507.

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131
Q

What is the normal position of the BAMP suction isolation valve, CHN-UV-532?

A

Hand jacked open with air isolated to prevent isolating boration flow path.

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132
Q

What automatic functions are associated with Boric Acid Makeup to Chg Pump suction valve, CHN-UV-514?

A

Opens on VCT LO-LO of 5%

Closes when VCT level recovers to 15%

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133
Q

What will close the RDT isolation valve, CHA-UV-560?

A

CIAS
HI-HI RDT pressure of 10 psig, no override
AOV, fails closed

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134
Q

What will close the RDT Vent valve, CHN-UV-540?

A

HI-HI RDT pressure of 10 psig, no override

AOV, fails closed

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135
Q

What will close the EDT inlet, outlet and vent valves, CHN-UV-563, 562, and 564?

A

HI-HI EDT pressure of 7 psig, no override

AOV, fail closed

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136
Q

What type of rad monitor is RU-155D and what type of radiation does it measure?

A

Area monitor

Gammas

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137
Q

What must be done to the PZR when RCS boron concentration is changed by 50 ppm or more?

A

Initiate PZR spray and heaters to equalize boron concentration within 10 ppm.

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138
Q

What are the quench volumes required in the EDT? RDT?

A

35% EDT

58% RDT

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139
Q

How are the the PZR safety valve locations monitored?

A

Acoustic monitors which light up in CR at 9% and 100% open.

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140
Q

What will happen to letdown boron concentration if temperature of flow through IX’s increases?

A

Resin affinity for boron will decrease and concentration of flow exiting IX will increase.

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141
Q

Will the charging pumps respond to the PLCS if red flagged, auto after start?

A

No. Must be green flagged.

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142
Q

What will anti-pump the charging pumps if they are currently green flagged?

A

Low suction pressure trip
Overload
Load shed

Clear by taking to stop.

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143
Q

What equation relates Letdown, Charging, Seal Injection and/or Bleedoff to determine possible RCS leakage? (Not all may be needed)

A

Charging = Letdown + Bleedoff

Any deviation represents leakage.

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144
Q

What signal is sent to the Charging pumps from the BOP ESFAS sequencer when entering mode 1?

A

The sequencer will prohibit auto start of any charging pump for 40s. This will not trip any running pumps.

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145
Q

What signal is sent to the Charging pumps from the BOP ESFAS sequencer when entering mode 2?

A

All pumps are load shed. After the DG breaker closes on the bus, charging pumps will be prohibited from starting for 40s. PLCS will control after that.

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146
Q

What signal is sent to the Charging pumps from the BOP ESFAS sequencer when entering mode 3?

A

All pumps are load shed. Running pumps will be anti-pumped.

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147
Q

What type of level detector is CHN-LI-226 and what controls does it provide for the VCT?

A

Dry reference leg

Maintains level between 34-44%

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148
Q

What type of level detector is CHN-LI-227 and what controls does it provide for the VCT?

A

Wet reference leg
Diverts to HUT at 60% (resets at 58%)
At 5%: closes 501, opens 514, starts a BAMP

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149
Q

What will occur on a leak of CHN-LI-227 reference leg?

A

Indicated level will peg high and divert. Level will decrease and 226 will control between 34-44%

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150
Q

What will auto stop a RMW pump?

A

Signal from controller
RMWT LO-LO level (both pumps and blue light)
Flow deviation from setpoint
Low discharge pressure (10s alarm, 24s trip)
Loss of control power
Elec protection

Same as BAMP

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151
Q

What is the design basis of the RWT?

A

Support ECCS operation of all pumps running with full flow rate until boil off rate can be matched by 75% flow through single HPSI pump.

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152
Q

What are the tech spec bases of the RWT?

A

20 min (plus 10% margin) full flow from all ESF pumps before switching over to the RAS sump.

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153
Q

What will auto stop a BAMP?

A

Signal from controller
RMWT LO-LO level (both pumps and blue light)
Flow deviation from setpoint
Low discharge pressure (10s alarm, 24s trip)
Loss of control power
Elec protection

Same as RMW pump

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154
Q

How will reactor power be affected if VCT level lowers to 5%?

A

Reactor power will lower.

501 will close, 514 will open and a BAMP will start which will borate the RCS.

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155
Q

How will the RCPs be affected if seal injection is isolated at power?

A

HP Seal cooler inlet temperature will rise to 200-220F, all other seal temperatures will remain as is.

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156
Q

Where can the CW pumps be emergency stopped and what occurs? How does this differ from the normal stop?

A

There is a PB on B07 and at the switchgear that will open the pump breaker and send a signal to close the discharge valve.

The normal stop closes the discharge valve and trips the breaker when the valve is at 8% open.

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157
Q

What happens when the second CW pump in a loop is started (assume cross tie closed)?

A

Pump starts,discharge valve opens to 44%. After 3 minute delay, the discharge valve opens to 100%. Finally, the discharge valve for the first pump opens to 100%.

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158
Q

What interlocks are associated with the dischcharge valve and stopping a CW pump?

A

The pump trips when the valve is 8% open. The valve is interlocked closed for 2 minutes.

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159
Q

If the A, B, and D pumps are running with the cross tie open, what will happen if the B pump is secured?

A

The A and D discharge valves will throttle to 44% to prevent runout.

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160
Q

What is required to open the condenser outlet valves, CWN-UV-9/10?

A

Waterbox pressure must meet setpoint indicatingn waterbox is full.

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161
Q

What override is active when a cooling tower fan is started?

A

A 30s override of the high vibration trip is inserted to allow the fan to come up to speed.

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162
Q

How is steam flow in DFWCS affected if a single transmitter is removed from service?

A

The remaining transmitter will be doubled to approximate steam flow.

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163
Q

For DFWCS 1, what NR SG level transmitter value is used?

A

Normally the highest valve from LT-1111/1112 is used.

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164
Q

What will happen if UIC #1 (control channel NI) is placed in Maintenance on the DFWCS and UIC #2 fails low at rated power?

A

DFWCS will go through swapover, resulting in a reactor trip.

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165
Q

How is an ATUN lockout removed?

A

Manually by the operator on the DFWCS screen.

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166
Q

When will DFWCS use a canned value for FW temperature and what is it?

A

If there is an 8% deviation in transmitters, a value of 425 F will be used.

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167
Q

In what DFWCS modes does SBCS input a signal?

A

1E control only (anticipatory input)

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168
Q

What is the purpose of RTO?

A

Prevent overcooling of the RCS after a trip.

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169
Q

What does the ATUN logic do and what modes it functional?

A

It adjusts the proportional and integral controllers based on FW temp and flow, RX power and steam flow.

Active in 1E and 3E control

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170
Q

When do are the Main Feed Pump controllers only recieving control signals from their associated DFWCSs?

A

RTO

Normally the MFP controllers recieve the higher of the 2 DFWCS.

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171
Q

List what happens to the DFWCS at the following power levels 14%, 15-16.5%, 50% increasing

A

14% Changes to 3E control if selected previously
15-16.5% Swapover if either downcomer>80% open, swapover at 16.5% if not already occured. (15min)
50% Downcomers open to 65% (10% of total flow, 15min)

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172
Q

List what happens to the DFWCS at the following power levels 50%, 15%, 13.5% decreasing?

A

50% Downcomers close
15% swapover
13.5% 1E control

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173
Q

What will cause DFWCS to shift to 1E control?

A

8% deviation feed flow transmitters
8% deviation steam flow transmitters
Decreasing to 13.5% power

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174
Q

After a reactor trip, DFWCS shifts to RTO, what does this mean?

A

RTO feeds based Tave (not level)

Shifts out of RTO at 51.9% and will go back into RTO if it reduces back to 26%

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175
Q

What will happen if you are feeding in RTO and all reactor pumps trip (natural circulation)?

A

Tave will rise and you will overfeed unless you take manual control.

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176
Q

SG level rises to 89%, what happens to DFWCS?

A

DFWCS shifts to HLO at 88% which closes economizer and downcomer valves on the affected generator.

ONLY IF THE VALVES ARE IN AUTO

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177
Q

When will the RX power input for DFWCS be a canned value and what is it?

A

If deviation between channels>8% canned values of:

5% below swapover and 60% above swapover are used

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178
Q

What DG loads are cooled by the spray pond?

A

Jacket water cooler
Lube oil cooler
Intercooler

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179
Q

Without the spray pond, how long can the DG run?

A

15 minutes unloaded

2.6 minutes loaded

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180
Q

How many days of operation are supported by the DG fuel oil storage tanks?

A

7 days (+15% margin for testing)

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181
Q

What is the minimum time the DG can run using the fuel in the day tanks?

A

60 min at rated power + 10% margin

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182
Q

At the TS level of 550 gal (2.75ft) how long will the DG run?

A

1.5 hours at rated load

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183
Q

How many DG starts can the air recievers support without recharge?

A

5

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184
Q

How do the starting air control valves function to start the DG?

A

They open on a start signal and stay open until 280 rpm.

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185
Q

What will trip the overspeed butterfly valve on the DG and how is it reset?

A

Overspeed at 660 rpm

Reset manually

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186
Q

When does the DG essential exhaust and AHU start/stop?

A

Starts 15 min after the DG

Stops after DG stop and room temperature <110 F

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187
Q

What is the purpose of the DG turbocharger and what provides its motive force?

A

It increases DG efficiency

It is driven by the DG exhaust

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188
Q

What are the DG emergency mode trips?

A

Overspeed
Low Engine Oil Pressure (bypassed during start, 20s)
Gnerator Differential

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189
Q

If the DG is taken to override, what trips are re-established?

A

(3) breaker trips

generator overcurrent, neutroal overvoltage, neg sequence

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190
Q

What conditions are required to auto close the DG output breaker?

A

LOP
DG at rated speed and voltage
Normal and Alt breakers open
No 86 lockout present

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191
Q

What is required to manually close the DG output breaker?

A

DG at rated speed and voltage
Alt breaker open
No 86 lockout

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192
Q

If you try to start the DG and nothing happens (no start attempt at all), what is the likely cause?

A

Turning gear not disengaged

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193
Q

What will happen to the DG if class control power is lost while running?

A

The DG will trip, but the output breaker will not open causing it to motor. Breaker must be tripped manually.

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194
Q

What affect does a loss of control air have on a running DG?

A

No affect, control air is required to stop DG. Only available trip is overspeed valve.

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195
Q

What are the design run times and capacity for the DG?

A

5500 kW continuous

6050 kW for 2 hours in 24

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196
Q

If the DG was running in test and was stopped, but is currently in its cooldown, what will happen if a SIAS is recieved?

A

The DG will switch to emergency run without resetting trip header, which will bring in alarms.

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197
Q

What does the hot gas bypass line do and what does it prevent?

A

A portion of the refrigerant goes from the compressor to the bottom of the cooler (bypassing the condenser and flash economizer).

This will prevent surging.

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198
Q

What is the RHPCV and where is it located?

A

The RHPCV is located on the EW outlet to the condenser and regulates flow to reduce stacking.

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199
Q

What are the makeup sources to the EC system?

A

DW
CST backup
Fire water backup to backup

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200
Q

What happens to an essential chiller on a loss of EW?

A

The unit will trip on high condenser pressure

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201
Q

What will occur on a HI-HI level in one of the LP FW heaters?

A

BTV’s for that train open (#3 and #4)
CD side inlet and outlet valves isolate
High level dumps for that train will open
Extraction steam supply drain lines for that train open

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202
Q

When do the 1st and 2nd stage reheater drain tank high level dump valves close on startup?

A

1st stage closes at 10%

2nd stage closes at 20%

203
Q

What will close on a HI-HI level in the #7 FWH?

A

Normal level control valve from 2nd stage RDT
2nd stage drain tank vent valve to extraction line
BTV and extraction steam MOV from #7 FWH

204
Q

What is the purpose of the bleeder trip valves (BTVs)?

A

Prevent turbine blade damage
Prevent reverse steam flow
Prevent moisture carryover to turbine

205
Q

What will trip the heater drain tank pumps?

A

HDT LO-LO level of 4 ft
LO-LO flow of 711 gpm for 15s
Electrical protection

206
Q

How do the heater drain pump discharge valves fail?

A

closed on loss of air or power

207
Q

What happens to the BTVs and extraction drains on a turbine trip?

A

BTVs all depressurize (critical and non critical and redundant PSL-76).
All extraction drain valves open.

208
Q

Which signal does the load control unit (LCU) send to the flow control unit (FCU)?

A

The lowest (via LVG) of

  • load limit pot
  • setback signal from RPCB
  • Load set reference
209
Q

When the decrease button is pressed for the load set reference, at what speed with the load set drive motor lower the signal?

A

130%/minute

210
Q

What is the purpose of the Power Load Unbalance (PLUB) and what does it measure?

A

The PLUB will trip the turbine to prevent overspeed after a lod reject.
It compares generator output and cross under pressure.

211
Q

What does the RPCB runback signal do and when is it recieved?

A

It is sent concurrent with a setback signal (but at 130%/min, much slower than setback) to move load set motor to 60%.
Subsequently it adjusts to match primary and secondary based on Tave and Main steam header pressure.

212
Q

What is the RPCB setback signal and how is it cleared?

A

Control valves are set to 60% at 480%/min.

Signal clears by turning load limit pot until load limit light illuminates.

213
Q

How is the turbine placed in standby?

A

The standby pot signal is matched to CV flow signal and the standby on PB is depressed.

214
Q

What occurs to overspeed trips when standby is selected for the Turbine control?

A

Backup overspeed lowers to 105%
Mechanical overspeed at 110% is now the backup
(loss of both speed signal trips is deactivated)

215
Q

When do slave valves open/close based on the master CIV valve positions?

A

Open when master is 90% open

Close when master is 50% closed

216
Q

When is chest warming performed and what is the valve positions?

A

Performed after shell warming

MSV-2 is throttled, all other valves closed.

217
Q

How is EHC power supplied?

A

NNN-D15 provides powwer until turbine speed is high enough.

The permanent magnent generator (PMG) supplies normal power.

218
Q

List the main turbine trips.

A 
CE generated (several, 70s delay)
Low MSOP pressure of 100 psig at >75% speed
High vibration = 12 mil
High exhaust hood temp = 225
Low EHC pressure = 1100 
MSR high level 2/3 for 10s
Low vacuum = 7.5" 2/3
Thrust bearing wear = 40 mil
Low bearing oil pressure = 12 psig
Manual
RX trip from UV relays (2 of 4 selective)
Mech overspeed 110% (backup at 112%)
Loss of both speed signals
Loss of 24V power, 125V power (>75%) or crosstrip
219
Q

How will the EHC respond to a RPCB if in standby?

A

No setback or runback (rods will drop)

220
Q

When flashing the field for startup, why is the button pressed twice?

A

First time tests shorting breaker

Second time energizes field

221
Q

Following closure of the first output breaker, what loading rate is selected by EHC?

A

10%/min automatically selected.

222
Q

How will ERFDADS indicate an RCS leak and for how long?

A

Indicated will be less than actual for 7.5 minutes.

223
Q

List the NC priority loads that can be supplied by EW.

A

RCPs (seal coolers, thrust bearing cooler, motor cool, etc)
CECM Normal ACUs
Nuclear sample coolers
Normal chillers

224
Q

When EW is aligned to NC, which may need to be done to clear the low NC flow alarms?

A

Throttle flow through the SDCHX.

225
Q

What auto actions will isolate EW to NC (A train only)?

A

SIAS
Low EW surge tank level

May override SIAS only

226
Q

What other non priority NC load can be picked up by EW?

A

Spent Fuel Pool HX.

227
Q

How will a loss of NNN-D15(16) affect the FW Pumps?

A

The control valves close (15 for A, 16 for B) and the pump will trip. If 16 is lost, indication is lost for both feed pumps.

228
Q

What supplies steam to the MFPT at power?

A

Hot reheat (off MSR D)

229
Q

What indication informs operator that MFWPT HP CV is closed?

A

Green light at the MFWPT

230
Q

What is the power supply to the MFWP emergency lube oil pump and can it supply continus operation?

A

NKN-M46

It is for coastdown only.

231
Q

At what percent steam flow is Main steam supplying the MFPT?

A

approx 35%

232
Q

What happens to the MFP mini flow valve on a trip of the pump?

A

It fails closed (prevent freewheel)

233
Q

List the MFPT trips.

A 
Overspeed - 6350
Lo suction P - 245, 10s for B, 15s for A, 2 of 3
HI discharge P - 1780, 2 of 3
Lo Cdsr Vac - 13.5"
LO CO P - 75 psig
Hi Act &amp; Inact thrust brg P - 40
Lo turb Brg oil P - 4
Manual - B06 or local
234
Q

What is required for MFP turning gear operation?

A

adequate oil pressure

235
Q

How do SG DC CV’s fail?

A

Locked as is.

236
Q

How will a loss of NNN-D15 affect FWP’s? D16?

A

CVs will drift close and FWP will stop.
D15 for A and D16 for B.
RPCB will not receive low lube oil signal, reactor trip is likely result.

237
Q

What will close the HP and LP containment isolation valves for nitrogen?

A

CIAS.

238
Q

What are the main HP nitrogen loads?

A

SITs, ADVs, Turb. Bldg Tank for DC IVs

239
Q

Why is aux steam the preferred source to GS during operation?

A

GS will not be lost on an MSIS.

240
Q

At 100% power, what are the status of valves GS valves 28A, 28B and 27?

A

28A - Closed
28B - Closed
27 - Throttled

241
Q

How does PCV-27 respond to a loss if air or power?

A

It is unaffected. It operates off of GS pressure.

242
Q

How do the GS pressure control valves fail on loss of IA?

A

Fail open to supply header.

243
Q

What should be done to the condenser if GS is lost?

A

Break vacuum to protect labyrinth seals.

244
Q

What is the normal operating range for the IA compressors?

A

109 to 119 psig

245
Q

What type of drying is accomplished in the IA dryers after the accumulators?

A

dessicant towers

246
Q

What will cause the IA UV-2, Instrument Air to containment valve, to close?

A

CSAS

247
Q

What are the approximate amps that can be seen on loaded and unloaded IA compressors?

A

150 amps loaded

75-90 amps unloaded

248
Q

What happens when IA pressure reduces to 95 psig? 85 psig?

A

alarm at 95

Nitrogen backup at 85

249
Q

What is the normal and backup cooling to the IA compressors?

A

TC for normal cooling

Temporary DS lineup to single compressor for backup

250
Q

How many ICIs are there? What type of detectors are they and how many levels?

A

61
self powered rhodium
5 (10,30,20,70,90)

251
Q

What does the compensation filter accomplish for the ICIs?

A

Compensates for 42s half life of rhodium

252
Q

What is the power supply the the LPVMS?

A

NNN-D11

253
Q

Where do the CET’s enter the core and where do they measure?

A

The enter the bottom of the core with the ICIs and measure temperature at the outlet plenum.

254
Q

What is the relationship between the Core Monitor and the Pryoysate collector?

A

The Core Monitor continuously monitors and the Pryolysate collector will take a sample when the Core Monitor alarms.

255
Q

What causes the main transformer cooling fans to start for each phase?

A

1st stage - transformer energized (generator exited)
2nd stage - transformer oil T = 70C
3rd stage - transformer oil T = 75C

256
Q

What is the concern with excessive circulation of oil in the transformer?

A

Static electrification, which can create large potentials and eventual spark.
Cooling pumps auto trip when a transformer is tripped/current is removed.

257
Q

What will a trip of the unit Aux tranformer cause?

A

Gen/Turbine trip

Fast bust transfer of NAN-S01 and S02

258
Q

What indications do you have of a coast down trip?

A

NAN-S01/2 load shed except for RCPs

Aux XMR still energized (20s)

259
Q

When can the sync protection be bypassed when paralleling the generator to the grid?

A

After the first breaker is closed in, the bypass may be used to close the second breaker.

260
Q

What will happen if the reverse power relay fails to trip the trip the main turbine?

A

The backup reverse power relay will trip it 30s later.

261
Q

What action is required if cooling fans are lost on a main transformer?

A

Decrease MVARS to maintain oil temp < 100C

262
Q

How is excitation removed from the generator?

A

shorting breaker closes

shunt SCRs fired full on.

263
Q

When do the P-bars provide excitation to the generator?

A

When it is off-line

264
Q

When will the Volt/Hertz regulator take action and what does it do?

A

When a high voltage (25.99kV) or drop in frequency is detected.
The regulator overrides the setpoint adjuster and limits output voltage.

265
Q

What conditions are required for a Volts/Hertz trip to occur?

A

V/Hz value of 26.3 kV lights timing LED.

If 26.328.3kV, trip in 2s

266
Q

What does the MEL do and what if it fails?

A

MEL reduces field amps <105%.

If does not succeed in 1s, Fixed Field Circuit takes over.

267
Q

What does the Fixed Field Circuit do?

A

Reduces field amps <100%.
If does not succeed in 1s, generator trips.
Fixed field must be reset at regulator cubicle.

268
Q

What does the URAL protect against and how is it accomplished?

A

It protects against low excitation, possible pole slippage.
The URAL overrides the AC regulator to maintain acceptable level.
Only works in AC mode.

269
Q

What two methods are used to de-excite the field?

A

SCRs fire full on (MINEX)

Shorting breaker closes

270
Q

What is the source of field flashing power?

A

NH

271
Q

What are the VAR limits with the main generator?

A

710 MVAR boost

310 MVAR buck

272
Q

How many rectifier bridges are required to supply the rectifier?

A

3 of 4

273
Q

What is the generator min/max pressures?

What is the min hydrogen purity?

A

30-75 psig for cooling

90% to prevent explosive mixture

274
Q

How many banks of fans are required on the main transformer for continued operation?

A

If less than 2 banks are avaialble for 30 min, all load must be stripped.

275
Q

What oil temperature on the Aux Transformer requires it to be taken out of service immediately?

A

80C

276
Q

What are the possible power supplies to the MSIVs and what is the normal arrangement?

A

Directly off the battery or off the PKA/B bus.

Normal arrangement off the battery.

277
Q

How do the MSIVs fail on loss of power? Air?

A

Fail closed on loss of all power, typically aligned to battery.
Fail as is on loss of air, still able to fast close.

278
Q

At what pressures will the MSSVs lift?

A 
#1 - 1250 psig
#2 - 1290 psig
#3,4,5 - 1315 psig
279
Q

How do the ADVs fail on loss of air? power?

A

Fail closed on loss of air and N2 backup (10.5 hr supply)

Fail closed on loss of power

280
Q

What power supplies are required to control the ADVs from the control room?

A

SG1 L1 SG1 L2 SG2 L1 SG2 L2
PN: A B B A

PK: A B B A
PK: C D D C

281
Q

How do the Downcomer isolation valves fail on a loss of air? power?

A

Fail closed on loss of air and N2 backup (8 hr supply, accumulator in Turb building)
Fail OPEN on loss of power

282
Q

How do the Economizer isolation valves fail on a loss of air? power?

A

Fail closed on loss of all power.

Fail as is on loss of air, still able to fast close.

283
Q

Which valves close on an MSIS?

A 
Downcomer IVs
Economizer IVs
MSIVs
MSIV bypass valves
Steam trap IVs
Blowdown  and sample containment IVs
284
Q

What will limit flow during a MSLB?

A

Flow restrictors on SG nozzles.

285
Q

How do Economizer and Downcomer CVs fail on a loss of air?

A

As-is.

286
Q

How do the MSR drain tank normal level control valves fail?

A

closed on loss of air or power

287
Q

When do the MSR drain tank hi level CVs close on a startup?

A

Fail open until 10% as sensed by hot reheat pressure.

288
Q

What MSR drain tank level will trip the turbine?

A

-3” from from bottom of MSR.

289
Q

How do all hi level dump valves fail, except for LP Htr 1?

A

Fail open on loss of air or power.

290
Q

When do the reheater drain tank hi level valves close on a startup?

A

1st stage failed open until 10%

2nd stage failed open until 20%

291
Q

How do the vent valves for the reheater drain tanks fail? What will cause auto actions?

A

Fail open to the main condenser on loss of air/power.

If HI-HI level and/or BTV comes off open seat, vent to condenser opens, vent to extraction closes.

292
Q

What condenser pressure will trip the turbine?

A

7.5” HgA

293
Q

What thrust bearing wear will trip the turbine?

A

40 mils

294
Q

What stator cooling flow will trip the turbine?

A

549 gpm with 70s delay.

295
Q

Where do the 3rd and 5th stage HP turbine extraction go?

A

3rd stage - 1st stage reheat and #7 FWH

5th stage - #6 FWH

296
Q

What LP turine stages have extraction steam?

A

8, 9, 11, 12

297
Q

How is second stage reheat steam regulated using the RSLLV and RSHLV?

A

The RSLLV is ramped from 15 to 65% power. The RSHLV opens at 65% and the RSLLV remains open.

298
Q

At what power level can the RSSV be opened?

A

A pressure switch set at 10% controls steam to the source valves for 2nd stage steam.

299
Q

What is the sequence for starting the turning gear motor on the main turbine?

A

Piggyback motor starts
TG engages (if <2rpm)
Slow speed motor starts

300
Q

When should MSRs be placed in service following an outage?

A

If load will be >15% for 12 hours to prevent last stage bucket erosion.

301
Q

What is the power limit for placing 2nd stage reheat in service?

A

95% power since 2nd stage reheat is approximately 5% steam flow.

302
Q

How can you lose electrical protection to a bus?

A

lose control power

303
Q

For 4160V breakers and above, when do the closing springs charge?

A

When the breaker closes (springs are always charged)

304
Q

What will cause the WRF supply breakers to load shed?

A

degraded voltage with SIAS (prevent double sequence event)

305
Q

What is required to initiate a fast bust transfer on NAN-S01/2?

A 
Xfr switch in auto
Generator trip
Early b contact on normal supply breaker closed
synch check relay
no lockout
voltage on S03/4
306
Q

Name the NC priority loads.

A

CEDM normal ACUs
RCP coolers
Nuclear sample coolers
Normal chillers

307
Q

What is normal NC discharge pressure and when does the backup pump start?

A

100 psig normal.

Backup starts at 79 psig.

308
Q

What RU monitor normally monitors NC flow? What if EW is aligned?

A

RU-6

RU-2 or 3

309
Q

What will close the NC containment isolation valves (401,402 and 403)?

A

CSAS

310
Q

What do the safety relief valves (615 and 615) on the NC return lines inside containment protect against?

A

They ensure closure capability of isolation valves during RCP high pressure seal cooler tube rupture. Setpoint = 135-150 psig.

311
Q

What will isolate EW if aligned to NC? Which train?

A

A SIAS or low EW surge tank level will isolate EW A only, since B has manual vavles.

312
Q

What order should the NC supply and return valves be opened?

A

Return should be opened first to prevent reliefs from lifting.

313
Q

If the standby NC pump is started at the switchgear, will the CR recieve an amber lignt?

A

Yes. The amber light circuitry compares if the pump is running vs. CR switch position.

314
Q

NC containment isolation valve has (2) breakers, why?

A

To protect the containment penetration. Typical for most/all containment penetrations.

315
Q

What type of detectors are the startup channel excores and what are the power supplies?

A

BF3 proportional detector
NNN-D11 for channel 1
NNN-D12 for channel 2

316
Q

What does the high CPS bistable do in relation to the NIs?

A

At 10,000 CPS (used to be 2000) an annunciator is triggered to alert the operator to turn off the startup channel detectors.

317
Q

What type of detectors are the control channel excores and what is the power supplies?

A

Boron 10 lined ion chambers
NNN-D11 for channel 1
NNN-D12 for channel 2

318
Q

What would be indicated if a linear amplifier on a single control channel excore were to fail?

A

1/2 of actual power.

319
Q

What type of detectors are the safety channels and what are the power supplies?

A

U-235 fission chambers

PNA-D

320
Q

What does the BDAS alarm indicate?

A

Possible inadvertant boron dilution, or power increasing, since setpoint does not automatically adjust.
Alarm can be reset to clear when power increase is desired.

321
Q

What is the result of a lower safety channel failing to 0?

A

Linear power will decrease, log power is unaffected.

322
Q

What is the result of a middle safety channel failing to 0?

A

Linear power will decrease, log power will be 0

323
Q

What is the normal operating voltage of the non class batteries and how long will they supply power?

A

135DC for 2 hours.

324
Q

What is unique about unit 3s NNN busses?

A

NNN-D16 has a class backup power supply instead of a load shed similar for D15 and D16 on other units.

325
Q

What happens if NNN-D11 loses its normal power source?

A

Auto transfer to backup.

326
Q

What is required if closing the normal supply breaker to the class 4160V class bus locally?

A

Normal and alternate supply must be open.

327
Q

What is required to close the alternate supply breakers to the 4160V class busses?

A

The DG supply breaker must be open (prevents cross tie of DGs)

328
Q

What is the purpose of the B train disconnect switches?

A

Disables CR operation in ase of a CR fire.

329
Q

What is the normal and backup cooling for the spent fuel pool pool cooling system?

A

NC is normal, EW is backup.

330
Q

What will the status of the pool cooling pumps on a LOOP once it is restored?

A

Not running but may be manually started.

331
Q

What is the basis for the 23’ above irradiated fuel requirement in the SFP?

A

Iodine absorption.

332
Q

What is the battery and or charger requirement when operating SDC valves 653/654?

A

The battery must be connected to the bus to prevent overloading the charger.

333
Q

If grounds are detected on the PK bus where will alarms be recieved?

A

Local and CR

334
Q

How is the swing charger prevented from supplying both PK busses?

A

Mechanical interlock

335
Q

What will start/stop the normally running charging pump?

A

Stop if PZR level +15% increasing
Start if PZR level +14% decreasing
Must be green flagged

336
Q

What will start/stop the standby charging pump?

A

Start if PZR level -23% decreasing
Stop if PZR level -14% increasing
Must be green flagged

337
Q

At what levels will the PLCS level transmitters alarm in the CR?

A

25% low

60% high

338
Q

What PZR level increase will start the backup heaters and why?

A

3% increase in anticipation of an insurge.

339
Q

What happens to the PLCS if Tc input fails high at 15% power?

A

Setpoint goes to max
standby charging pump starts
letdown goes to min

340
Q

What happens to PLCS if TC fails low at 100% power?

A

Setpoint goes to min
normally running charging pump stops
letdown flow to max
backup heaters energize (assumes 3% insurge)

341
Q

What happens to PLCS if the selected PZR level transmitter fails low?

A

All heaters trip (<25% level)
Standby charging pump starts
LD to minimum
Level will increase until other channel selected.

342
Q

What happens to PLCS if the selected PZR level transmitter fails high?

A

backup heaters energize (3% insurge)
Normally running charging pump trips
LD to maximum
PZR level decreases until other channel selected or RX trip if no action.

343
Q

What happens to PLCS if NNN-D11 is lost?

A

Master controller loses power = 0 output signal
LD will isolate
Normally running and standby charging pump stop

344
Q

What happens to PLCS if NNN-D12 is lost?

A

PZR level control channel X loses power (buffered signal lost).
LD will isolate (loss of power to LD isolation valve 523)

345
Q

What happens to PLCS if NKN-D42 is lost?

A

PLCS control circuit loses power.
LD isolates, charging pumps stop (manual control avail)
Loss of remote heater control
Loss of LDCV and BPCV indication

346
Q

What happens to PLCS if IA is lost?

A

LD will isolate

Chg pumps manually controlled to maintain pzr level

347
Q

What do the red, black, and white on black pointers typically indicate on a controller?

A

Red = Actual/measured parameter
Black = Local setpoint
Black on White = Remote setpoint

348
Q

How does a loss of the PC affect the plant monitoring system?

A

Annunciators work, but alarm points do not show up on alarm screen. Operator to verify alarms at RK cabinets.

349
Q

What is unique about the Unit 1 if the supply to PN is lost?

A

For A and C, there is no auto transfer switch, so PNA or C will be de-energized until manual switch to the voltage regulator is accomplished.

350
Q

What does the FORWARD TRANSFER and REVERSE TRANSFER BUTTONS do on the static transfer switches do?

A

Forward transfers to the inverter (normal source)

Reverse transfers to the voltage regulator (backup)

351
Q

What precautions are involved with cycling PN?

A

CEAC and CPC computers shall be turned off first.

352
Q

What is the PPCS high and low pressure alarm values and do they have any functions?

A 
2285 high - heater cutout (reset at 2275)
2160 low (reset at 2200)
353
Q

What are the setpoints and functions for the backup heater control bistables?

A

2200 - heaters turn on

2225 - heaters turn off

354
Q

What is the heater cutout level and where is it reset?

A

Cutout at 25%

reset at 27%

355
Q

What is the high pressure heater cutout?

A

2285

356
Q

What does the backup heater setpoint override do and how is it initiated/reset?

A

It allows backup heaters to be energized above the 2225 psi backup heater setpoint. It is operated by an on/off switch.
There is a 10s delay to cancel or re-initiate.

357
Q

If the B class heaters are taken to local at the RSDP, will they respond to level and/or pressure cutouts/starts?

A

No.

358
Q

What is the status of the pressurizer spray valves and proportional heaters with the following PPCS controller outputs:
0% 16.5% 33% 50% 100%

A

0% (25 psid error) - heaters full on, spray valves closed
16.5% (0 error, normal) - heaters at 50%, spray valves closed
33% (25 psid error) - heaters off, spray valves off
50% - heaters off, spray valves full open
100% - no change, same as 50%

359
Q

What is unique about the class backup heaters?

A

They will trip on a SIAS. There is a separate override.

Remains in effect until SIAS clears.

360
Q

What is the result of the selected PZR pressure transmitter failing low with no operator action?

A

Heaters energize, spray valves stay closed. Eventual trip on hi PZR pressure (2383 psi).

361
Q

What happens to PPCS if the non selected pressure transmitter fails hi?

A

PZR trouble annunciatior
PZR pressure hi-lo annunciator
no actions

362
Q

How does a loss of NNN-D11 affect PPCS?

A

Pzr press transmitter 100Y fails low
Pzr level transmitter 100Y fails low, heaters cut out
(3) selectors switches need to be taken to X channel

363
Q

How does a loss of NNN-D12 affect PPCS?

A

Master controller fails - 0 output
Pzr press transmitter 100X fails low
Pzr level transmitter 100X fails low, heaters cut out

364
Q

How does a loss of NKN-D42 affect PPCS?

A

Loss of bistable control, all heaters off on low level cutout.

365
Q

How does a loss of PKA/B affect PPCS?

A

Aux spray valves 205/203 fail closed and valve position is lost.

366
Q

How many PPS trips are required for a reactor trip?

A

2/4 on the same parameter.

367
Q

How does a loss of a single PN channel affect CPCs?

A

3 matrix relays de-energize (2) initiation circuits, (2) RTSG breakers open, no reactor trip.

368
Q

How does a loss of a single PK channel affect CPCs?

A

(1) RTSG initiation circuit is de-energized, (1) RTSG breaker opens.

369
Q

What is the purpose of the DNBR/LPD operational bypass? When is it placed in service and when is it automatically removed from bypass?

A

It bypasses CPC trips (rod position) to allow startup

The bypass is placed in service manually below 10-4% and is automatically removed from bypass above 10-4%.

370
Q

What is the purpose of the low PZR pressure operational bypass? What are the limits of placing it in service?

A

Allows for RCS heat up/cool down. Is only permitted when RCS pressure < 400 psia and is removed automatically >500 psia.

371
Q

What is the purpose of the Hi log power operational bypass? When is it placed in service and when is it automatically removed from bypass?

A

Allows power increase during startup. Must be manually placed in bypass above 10-4% (interlock) and below trip setpoint of 10-2%. Bypass is automatically removed when power is reduced below 10-4%.

372
Q

What will happen if a single PPS trip parameter is placed in bypass?

A

The logic becomes 2/3 for trip. This allows for maintenance or testing.

373
Q

How and where are the ESFAS signals reset?

A

Only 1 PB needs to be pressed at the ARC cabinet.

374
Q

What will pressing the Low SG pressure reset PB do?

A

The SG low SG pressure trip and pretrip setpoints will lower by 200 and 100 psi below current pressure.

375
Q

What RPS controls are available at the RSDP?

A

PZR:
low press bypass switch and permissive indicator, low press reset switch, low press pretrip indicator
SG:
press reset switch, pretrip indicator

376
Q

What is unique about the AFAS logic circuits and why?

A

There are (2) parallel relay paths allowing the valves to cycle on level while the pumps run continuous until the condition is reset.

377
Q

What is unique about manual initiation of the AFAS and what issues could this cause?

A

The switches on B05 are maintained. If not returned to normal position, feed valves will remain open and overfeed is possible.

378
Q

How is DAFAS bypassed?

A

8 keys located in ARC 5 and 8.

379
Q

If RCP speed starts to slowly lower, what will happen to DNBR as calculated by CPCs?

A

It will gradually decrease until 95% RCP speed and then a trip will be generated.

380
Q

Which ESFAS actuation does not have an initiation reset at the PPS cabinet?

A

AFAS

381
Q

What is the result of a loss of PW?

A

Loss of cooling AOP directs crew to trip reactor.

382
Q

Where can PW return to CW?

A

Normally to the CW header

Alt, to tower #2.

383
Q

What auto functions are associated with the PW pumps?

A

Standby pump auto starts on low discharge pressure of 40 psi.

384
Q

What is the minimum required level in the CW canal to prevent PW pump air binding?

A

19’

385
Q

Where can an 86 lockout be reset for the PW pumps?

A

At the switchgear only.

386
Q

How will PW pumps be affected on a loss of power and restoration to the NB bus?

A

The PW pump will be sequenced back on with TC and NC pumps as follows:

NC = 10s
TC = 15s
PW = 20s
387
Q

What are the power supplies to QSPDS?

A

PNA - train A

PNB - train B

388
Q

What does the TEMP SAT MARGIN-RCS recorder display and where is it located?

A

It displays the most limiting of RCS or upper head saturation margin and is located on B02.

389
Q

How is an out of range CET indicated in QSPDS?

A

???????

390
Q

What conditions for a heated junction thermocouple indicate a void?

A

When 200F (90F is normal) is sensed between the 2 thermocouples or an unheated thermocouple is at 700F.

391
Q

What does a step change on the QSPDS level indicate?

A

The next HJTC is uncovered, the void is increasing. This is not an indication of an increased leak.

392
Q

What is the range of the thermocouples?

A

200F to 1800F required, but accuracy is expected up to 2300F.

393
Q

What is the pressure input into QSPDS?

A

PZR pressure only and is compared against other parameters to determine subcooling margin.

394
Q

How is upper head saturation margin determined?

A

Using the hottest 3 HJTCs.

395
Q

How is REP CET saturation margin determined?

A

By a representative CET temperature.

396
Q

Which QSPDS parameter is invalid with RCPs running?

A

Plenum reactor vessel level.

397
Q

If the seal bleedoff isolation valve is taken to close, what happens?

A

It will not close if the RCP is running.

398
Q

What starts/stops an RCP oil lift pump?

A

IT will auto start on an RCP trip. It will run until secured by the operator.
The lift pump needs to be manually started to satisfy permissive for RCP start.

399
Q

What are the temperature restrictions for running 2 RCPs? 3 RCPs?

A

Only 2 RCPs allowed up to 200F (LTOP)

Only 3 RCPs allowed 200-500F (Brittle Fracture/Core LIft)

400
Q

What electrical concerns are there with starting an RCP?

A

If a deisel is paralled to the same SU XM, deisel damage is possible.
If any PK battery is disconnected from its bus, PN distribution panel may be lost.

401
Q

What speed must the RCP reach in 14s to avoid auto trip after start?

A

600 rpm.

402
Q

What causes the pressure drop across the RCP seals?

A

Capillary tube seal cooler

403
Q

What is the RCS design pressure? Safety limit?

A

Design = 2500 psi

Safety Limit = 2750 psia

404
Q

Where can the reactor vessel head vents be vented?

A

RDT or containment atmosphere

405
Q

What type of detectors are the ICIs and what do the background detectors provide?

A

Rhodium detectors, self powered.

Background detectors provide flux compensation (interactions with bare wire)

406
Q

What is the power supply to the class annunciators?

A

PKA/B

407
Q

What will the status of the RK system on a loss of NKN-M45 and a SIAS in the 3 units?

A 
Units 1 and 2 will lose all annunciators.
Unit 3 will lose half since NNN-D16 has a class backup.
408
Q

Which RU-1 containment building atmosphere monitor channels are tech spec related for leakage detection?

A

Channels 1 and 3. Particulate and gaseous (not iodine)

409
Q

How does a loss of IA affect AR?

A

The suction valves fail closed and the discharge fails to through filter mode.

410
Q

What does a hi-hi alarm on RU-7, AS Condensate Receiver tank monitor?

A

Diverts condensate to LRS.

411
Q

Which RU monitors will initiate a CREFAS?

A

RU-29/30

412
Q

Which RU monitors will initiate a FBEVAS?

A

RU-31/145

413
Q

Which RU monitors will initiate a CPIAS?

A

RU-37/38

414
Q

What does a hi-hi alarm on RU-141, Condenser Vacuum Pump/GS exhaust monitor, do?

A

Shifts exhaust to through filter mode

415
Q

Which RU monitor is not normally in service at power?

A

RU-17, ICI

416
Q

What is the status of RPCB when the TEST/RESET button is depressed? What happens if it is pressed twice?

A

It will not actuate.

Selected CEAs will be de-selected.

417
Q

What is the status of RPCB if the AUTO ACTIVATE OUT OF SERVICE is depressed?

A

No RPCB auto actions.

418
Q

What events will cause a RPCB and which one will generate a QO block?

A

LLR

Loss MFP - causes QO block

419
Q

What is the status of CEA control after a RPCB?

A

The RPCB signal is locked in for 10s which blocks CEA control. After this clears, CEAs can respond to RRS or operator action.

420
Q

What will happen on a RPCB if a group 5 rod is on the hold bus or does not drop?

A

Immediate reactor trip.

421
Q

What does a setback do and how is it cleared?

A

Moves turbine CVs to 60% at 480%/min.

Cleared by reducing load limit pot to illuminate light.

422
Q

How does RPCB respond to a loss of NNN-D11 and NNN-D12?

A

D11 - No rod drop or runback/setback

D12 - Rods drop, setback and no runback. RX trip.

423
Q

What signals are sent from RPCB to EHC during a RPCB?

A

Setback
Runback
Load set increase inhibit

424
Q

What will occur on a RPCB if PT-1024 fails low?

A

RPCB will occur and turbine will continuously runback. Reactor trip.

425
Q

What RPCB signal is sent to RRS?

A

CWP

426
Q

What is the RRS design basis (in conjunction with RPCB)?

A

Control reactor and turbine power for the following:
Any size load rejection (100%)
10% step change in NSSS load
5%/min ramp in NSSS load

427
Q

How is CEA motion demand determined in RRS?

A

Temperature error compensated by rate of change of power error.

428
Q

How is Tref determined in RRS?

A

Tref program based on TLI.

429
Q

How many excore control channels are there and what is the range?

A

2

0-125%

430
Q

At what total error (degrees F) will RRS initiate a withdraw or insert signal?

A

3 F

431
Q

What will occur if RRS sends a high rate withdraw signal?

A

The high rate demand light will be lit, but rods will withrdraw in slow rate.

432
Q

What is required for RRS to be placed in test?

A

CEDMCS must not be in AS
PLCS must be in LOCAL or MANUAL

RRS will come out of test if above is violated.

433
Q

How will a loss of NNN-D12 affect RRS?

A

No input to rod control

Tave fails low

434
Q

What happens to RRS if a SBCV drifts open?

A

CEAs will step out.

RCS will cool from increased steam demand

435
Q

What signals does RRS send to CEDMCS?

A

Speed and Direction

436
Q

What are the safety hazards associated with the GEN SEAL OIL/H2 DIFF PRESS/ LO HYDROGEN alarms?

A

Hydrogen escaping the generator (explosive hazard)

437
Q

What is the likely result of prolonged operation of the emergency seal oil pump?

A

Decreased hydrogen purity.

ESOP does not pull from vac tank

438
Q

Where does the hydrogen side of the generator seals drain to?

A

Hydrogen detraining tank

439
Q

Where does the main seal oil pump take suction?

A

Vacuum tank

440
Q

Where does the emergency SO pump take suction?

A

Bearing oil return header

441
Q

During normal operations, what is the SO flow path?

A

SO header, Vacuum Tank, SO pump, Seals, LO tank

442
Q

How is SO vacuum tank level maintained?

A

By SDN-LCV-25

443
Q

What is the difference between the SSE and the OBE?

A

The SSE is the max seismic activity for shutdown, OBE is the max that allow continued operation.

444
Q

What limits are placed with aligning CS to SDC?

A

Cannot be aligned when RCS temperature >200F and pressure >250 pisa

445
Q

How are SITs filled?

A

HPSI B only

446
Q

What can be used to augment pool cooling during high heat load?

A

SDC

447
Q

During an ESD, why is SI throttled as soon as throttle criteria is met?

A

Prevents pressurized thermal shock.

448
Q

What is one indication of RCS voiding (PZR reaction)?

A

PZR level increase when spray is activated

449
Q

What is the concern for SI with a LOCA outside of containment?

A

Not enough containment sump inventory during RAS

450
Q

What is a possible consequence of stopping HPSI pump and not closing SIT fill/drain valve?

A

SIT will flow to RWT.

451
Q

How does having the SDC bypass valve open do to indicated flow?

A

Flow will be read but will be bypassing the core

actual cooling < indicated

452
Q

Where is the LTOP located?

A

Between 653 and 655

453
Q

Where can the HPSI pump discharge?

A

All 4 cold legs and 1 hot leg

454
Q

What is the SDC max heat up rate and what is the limiting component?

A

19 F/min which is based on the SDC HX.

455
Q

What is the SDC temperature design limit?

A

350 F

456
Q

What are the temperature limits for the LPSI pump regarding seal life?

A

RCS should be < 300F

and <135F if operated longer than 4 days.

457
Q

If the CS pump breaker is anti pumped and a SIAS occurs, how can the pump be started?

A

Take to start twice

once to clear anti pump, once to start

458
Q

What pressure will lift the LTOP?

A

467 psia

459
Q

What interlock is associated with SI valves 651, 653, 655?

A

385 psi or greater will keep valves closed.

460
Q

What is the LPSI shutoff head?

A

210 psia

most questions just require that you know it is less than 300-400

461
Q

How much flow is provided by LPSI mini flow and how much is required for continued operation?

A

100 gpm from mini flow (good for 1 hour)

2400 gpm required for continued operation

462
Q

What is the shutoff head for the CS pump?

A

290 psia

463
Q

How much flow is provided by CS mini flow and how much is required for continued operation?

A

150 gpm from mini flow (good for 1 hour)

2100 gpm required for continuous operation

464
Q

What is the CS rumble region and what will occur if operated there?

A

1800-2800 gpm

pump damage

465
Q

What is the shutoff head of the HPSI pump?

A

1800-1950 psia (rough numbers)

466
Q

What are the 5 design criteria of the ECCS?

A 
Peak cladding T <2200
Clad oxidation <17% thickness
Max H2 generation <1% if all clad reacted
Coolable geometry
Long term cooling
467
Q

What is the design bases of SDC?

A

75F/hr cool down/heat up

468
Q

What are the containment design temperature and pressure (CS designed to maintain this)?

A

Containment temperature <300

Pressure <60psig

469
Q

What is the pressure reduction design of CS?

A

Reduce containment pressure by half in 24 hours.

470
Q

If you have a SIAS and HPSI has a brighter than normal green, what happens if you take pump to start?

A

Override light comes in, no start yet.

471
Q

What does a white light on the SESS system indicate?

A

Equipment inoperatble

472
Q

If you initiate a manual SESS alarm, what color light do you get?

A

White

473
Q

How does PPS interact with SESS?

A

It sends signals so you know if equipment should be in actuated position.

474
Q

If SBCS master controller is in LOCAL-AUTO and steam pressure is lowered via manual operation, how does the permissive setpoint change?

A

Permissive setpoint will increase based on lower pressure.

Permissive is inaffected by master controller.

475
Q

With a RPCB, what occurs if PT-1024 fails high?

A

Rods drop, Setback and runback to 60% only.

476
Q

If SBCS valves are throttling open and the SBCS is selected to EMERGENCY OFF, what occurs?

A

Bottom of cylinder is vented, IA is applied to top and valves close.

477
Q

What is the SBCS condenser inerlock and what does it do to the valves?

A

5.5 “ HgA (2 of 3 shells)

Closes SBCS valves to condenser

478
Q

How does SBCS know there has been a load rejection?

A

Compares Steam flow vs. PZR pressure

479
Q

What happens if FT-1011 fails low?

A

Modulation setpoint raises.

480
Q

If PZR pressure transmitter 100Y fails low, how is SBCS affected?

A

Downward bias on setpoint.

481
Q

What happens to the SBCS master contoller if power is lost and then restored?

A

Goes to Manual if <2s

Goes to emergency off if >2s

482
Q

How many SBCS permissives may be in manual at one time?

A

Only 1 to prevent multiple valves opening on single failure.

483
Q

What happens to the SBCS controllers when a QO signal is generated?

A

They are set to 83.3% (6 valves open) then then modulate to desired position based on pressure.

484
Q

When is a quick open block generated?

A

Loss of feed pump
Reactor trip (group Y)
Reactor trip with Tave<573.5F (group X)

485
Q

How do you reset the condenser interlock for SBCS?

A

EMERGENCY OFF to RESET

486
Q

Howe does SBCS fail on loss of power or air?

A

Closed

487
Q

What is the TS required spray pond level? What about CR indication?

A

13’-6” (12’ useable required per TS, which equates to 1’-6” extra required)
14’-0” required in CR to account for uncertainty

488
Q

What is indicated by a flow mismatch on spray pond supply and return?

A

Pipe break/leak.

489
Q

What cools CW pump motor lube oil coolers?

A

TC

490
Q

What will auto start a TC pump?

A

Low header pressure (55 psig)

491
Q

How is temperature control obtained in TC?

A

Throttling HX outlet and bypass valves.

492
Q

What will result on a loss of TC?

A

Reactor trip will be required because MFPs cannot continue to operat.

493
Q

What administrative interlock is associated with the TC HX outlet and bypass valves (similar for NC)?

A

At least 1 must be full open.

494
Q

What are primary concerns with loss of normal chillers?

A

Containment temp. rise (tech spec)
Main generator collector housing temp. rise
CEDCMCS cabinet room temp. rise

495
Q

What will close the containment isolation valves for WC? Is there an override?

A

CIAS

There is an overide.

496
Q

What will trip the A normal chiller?

A

SIAS (powered from PBA-S03)

497
Q

How do the supply valves for charging pump ACUs fail?

A

Fail open.

498
Q

How will a loss of NC affect the normal chillers?

A

They trip on low NC flow

499
Q

Who is required in the CR during fuel handling?

A

RO and Reactor Engineering Representative

500
Q

If count rates are increased 5x after an assembly is placed, what should be done?

A

Withdraw last placed assembly and observe response.

501
Q

What is the overload for the fuel transfer machine?

A

800#

502
Q

If the A supply and exhaust are being run on the Aux building, what happens if B supply is taken to start?

A

A supply trips, B starts.

503
Q

What are the AF supply dampers and how do they fail?

A

PK powered and they fail closed.

504
Q

What will start the elec. penetration room essentials?

A

LOP or SIAS.

LOIT 2018 ADD (2 decks)

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