Review set 2 Flashcards
Asthma rescue drug is a ______ such as albuterol or _______
SABA
levoalbuterol (Xopenex)
Asthma controller meds:
Inhaled corticosteroids like _________ and _____
fluticasone; flunisolide
Asthma controller meds:
Leukotriene receptor inhibitors such as ______
montelukast
Asthma controller meds:
LABA such as __________
salmeterol
Asthma 3rd line drug is _______
theophylline
Asthma meds: safety issues:
Inhaled/oral corticosteroids can cause ________, ______, & _______
osteoporosis
cataracts; glaucoma
Asthma meds: safety issues:
Salmeterol/formeterol can increase risk of ____ and _____
death
pneumonia
Asthma meds: safety issues:
Albuterol can cause ______, ______, and ____
arrhythmia; angina; MI
What are the variables used to figure out the Peak Expiratory Flow (PEF)?
“HAG”
H height
A age
G gender
PEF correlates well with ______
FEV1 (forced expiratory volume for 1 minute)
Asthma step 1 - Intermittent
Symptoms ________________________
nighttime awakenings: __________________
PEF/FEV1:_______________
< 2 days per week
< 2 times/month
> 80% of expected
Asthma step 2 - Mild persistent
Symptoms_____________________________
nighttime awakenings: ___________________
PEF/FEV1: ________________
> 2 days per week
3-4 times/month
or equal to 80%
Asthma step 3 - Moderate persistent
Symptoms: _________________
nighttime awakenings: ____________
PEF/FEV1: _________________
daily attacks
> 1 night/week but not nightly
60 - 80%
ALL asthmatics need a ________ drug
rescue
Except for intermittent asthma (Stage 1), ALL asthmatics need a _____ _____
ICS daily
Asthma - easy to memorize step 3 b/c it has DAILY attacks that use a ______ ______ and > ___ night/week wake ups
SABA daily; 1
Asthma step 1 treatment is:
Albuterol PRN only
Asthma step 2 treatment is:
Albuterol PRN plus low-dose ICS
Asthma step 3 treatment is:
Albuterol PRN plus low-dose ICS plus LABA
Asthma step 4 treatment is:
usually managed by pulmonology
Albuterol PRN plus LABA plus MEDIUM dose ICS
Urgent/emergency care of asthma:
Treat with repetitive or continuous _____, with the addition of inhaled _______ _______ in severe exacerbations
SABA
ipratropium bromide
Asthma emergency care:
If PEF is _____% or less of expected, pulse ox ___% or less after treatment, call 911
50; 91
Asthma emergency care:
Give ____ _____ ______ in moderate or severe exacerbations
oral systemic corticosteroids
All of the following are signs or symptoms of a severe asthmatic exacerbation EXCEPT:
- The patient appears fatigued and is diaphoretic
- Markedly decreased inspiratory and expiratory wheezing on auscultation
- Presence of pulsus paradoxus and tachypnea
- A pulse rate of 60 BPM
- A pulse rate of 60 beats per minute (they will be tachycardic).
If a patient presents with asthmatic exacerbation with severe dyspnea and inaudible breath sounds, what does it mean?
Severe bronchoconstriction. High risk of resp failure.
PFTs measure severity of obstructive and restrictive pulmonary dysfunction.
Obstructive dysfunction is a ________ in ______ ______. (Ex. Asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis)
Restrictive dysfunction is a _______ in _____ _______ due to decreased lung compliance. (Ex. pulmonary fibrosis, pleural disease, diaphragm obstruction)
reduction in airflow rates
reduction in lung volumes
Bioterrorism: Aerosolized virus or bacteria is usually the most efficient method of spread.
Treatment for anthrax prophylaxis is ________ combined with ____ subQ doses of anthrax ________
Cipro
3; vaccine
Smallpox vaccine:
Vaccinate within ___ days of exposure
4
The vaccine for a natural disaster is the ________ vaccine.
tetanus
TB is a _______ disease.
All TB patients should be tested for _______.
reportable
HIV
What is the BCG vaccine?
A _____ vaccine against ___.
live; TB
The Mantoux tuberculin skin test involved injecting ____ ml PPD at the inner surface of forearm.
A raised pale _____ present after 48 to 72 hours is important. Erythema is not important.
0.1
wheal
Two-step testing for tuberculosis:
Give initial test per protocol. Read in 48 to 72 hours.
If positive, has TB infection - evaluate for latent or active TB infection. Does / does not need a second test?
Negative 1st test - needs a second test (may be a false negative).
Retest in ___-___ weeks after initial test.
If 2nd test is positive, evaluate for latent or active TB. Result is due to the _____- _______.
If 2nd test is negative, it is considered a true negative.
Does not
1-3
Booster Phenomenon
Which of the following is the gold standard test to diagnose pulmonary TB infection? 1 AFB smear 2 Sputum for C&S 3 TB skin test 4 TB blood test
2 Sputum for C&S
For those who have previously had the BCG vaccine, order a TB ______ test, which measures for antibodies.
blood
TB disease treatment:
If TST or blood test is positive, assess for TB symptoms. Order a _____ ______.
If suspect active pulmonary TB, start empiric tx with
___ to ___ types of TB drugs until the sputum C&S results are available.
Order __ consecutive sputum samples for ____ ____ and sputum for ____ (2-6 weeks until result).
chest x-ray
3 to 5
3; AFB stain
C&S
TB disease treatment:
If AFB is positive: start treatment _______. The C&S (takes 2-6 weeks) will show which drugs the TB strain is sensitive to.
Call Public Health or state TB program to report.
ASAP.
Prophylaxis for latent TB infection:
This reduces risk that it will become reactivated. Highest risk are those with HIV, diabetes, or immune suppression.
TWO options: ___-month (preferred) or ___-month regimen.
Follow-up: ______ visits for signs of hepatitis, adverse reactions, and adherence
9; 6
monthly
Meds for PROPHYLAXIS to treat latent TB:
Isoniazid (INH) max dose ____ mg/day.
Add _____ ____ daily.
300
vitamin B6
Alternative drug regimen to treat latent TB infection:
INH x 6 months, INH + ________ x 3 months, ________ daily x 4 months
Rifapentine; Rifampin
Adverse effects to TB drugs:
Ethambutal: _______ _________
Isoniazid: _____ _______, peripheral neuropathy, seizures, potentially fatal _________
Rifampin: Will cause ______ ________ of body fluids, can stain contact lenses
optic neuropathy
optic neuropathy
hepatitis
orange discoloration
Tuberculosis case example:
A middle aged man with cough and fever for several weeks.
On chest x-ray - PA view:
Cavitations are found on right upper lobe with paratracheal lymphadenopathy and focal consolidation in the right middle lung zone.
Diagnosis is _________ ________ TB.
primary progressive
***TB Highest risk persons: 5 mm: F\_\_\_\_\_ I\_\_\_\_\_ C\_\_\_\_\_ H\_\_\_\_\_\_
Fibrotic lung changes on x-ray consistent with prior TB infection
Immunosuppressed (TNF-alpha, Prednisone >15 mg/day)
Contact recently w/someone with TB
HIV-infected
TB High-risk persons: 10 mm: I\_\_\_\_\_ K\_\_\_\_ I\_\_\_\_ D\_\_\_\_\_ S\_\_\_\_\_\_
Immigrants (recent <5 years from high-prevalence countries like Asia except Japan, Africa, Caribbean, Latin America, Eastern Europe)
TB low-risk persons:
___ mm:
Persons with no risk factors for TB who meet none of the other categories’ criteria.
15 mm
Name this disease:
Prolonged cold-like illness and a cough that persist for weeks. Cough for 3 to 6 weeks which becomes more severe; severe paroxysmal cough with a “whooping” sound. May vomit or choke when coughing. Most contagious period is before the onset of cough. Babies are at higher risk for death.
Pertussis (whooping cough)
What is the organism responsible for pertussis?
Bordetella pertussis
What is the diagnostic test for pertussis?
Nasopharyngeal swab (PCR test)
Treatment and post-exposure prophylaxis for pertussis are the same for close contacts face to face within 3 feet of a symptomatic patient. True or false?
True
Treatment for pertussis is what?
Azithromycin (Z-pack) x 5 days, or clarithromycin x 7 days
Name the disease:
An autoimmune disease that affects exocrine glands such as the lacrimal and salivary glands. Also known as Sicca syndrome.
Sjogren’s
Common complaints of Sjogren’s syndrome are _____ ____ and ______ (_________). Will also complain of fatigue, myalgia, and mild cognitive dysfunction. On PE, may have enlarged _________ glands and adenopathy.
dry eyes; mouth (xerostomia)
salivary
Diagnostic tests for Sjogren's syndrome are: M E D A C T
MRI parotid glands ESR Dry eye testing anti-Ro/SSA antibodies CBC Tear testing
Sjogren's: Gathering history of symptoms: Ask if dry eyes for > \_\_ months Dry mouth for > \_\_\_ months Daily symptoms Sensation of \_\_\_\_\_\_/\_\_\_\_\_\_ in eyes Wake up at night to drink water b/c mouth feels vey dry Swollen \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ glands Drinks water to swallow dry food
3
3
sand/gravel
salivary
Primary hyperparathyroidism (usually asymptomatic):
Serum calcium level is elevated.
Serum _______ ________ is elevated in 80-90%.
When a patient presents with elevated calcium levels, what is the next step?
parathyroid hormone
Check a PTH level!
Most common cause of hypothyroidism is ________.
Hashimoto’s.
Hypothyroidism:
Women to men ratio is ___ to ___
8:1
Screening test for hypothyroidism is ____
TSH
Hypothyroidism presentation:
Adult to middle aged woman with gradual onset of lethargy, fatigue, weight gain. Cold intolerance, decreased memory, dry skin. Amenorrhea to irregular menstrual cycle. Hair loss outer 1/3 of eyebrows.
DELAYED RELAXATION PHASE OF DTRs!
PE: Diffusely enlarged thyroid (goiter) to normal gland
TSH screening test (norm value is ___ to ____).
0.4 to 4.0
Labs for hypothyroidism: TSH > \_\_\_\_ Free T4 will be \_\_\_\_ Free T3 will be \_\_\_\_ TPO antibodies will be elevated in Hashimoto's and \_\_\_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_\_\_. Anti-thyroglobulin will be \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
5.0 low low Graves Disease positive
Subclinical hypothyroidism:
Elevated TSH with normal serum ____ ___ level.
Most are asymptomatic.
Check TSH every ____ to ____ ____ to monitor.
free T4
6 to 12 months
Average full replacement dose of T4 in adults is ___ mcg/kg body weight per day.
Older adults/heart disease patients may need lower dose due to cardiac stimulation.
1.6
Check TSH every ___ to ___ ____ until back to normal after initiating or adjusting levothyroxine dosage. Then, check _____ if stable.
4 to 6 weeks
annually
Armour thyroid is made from dessicated porcine thyroid and contains both ___ and ___.
T3 T4
How do you know if a patient is on too high a dose of levothyroxine?
They will have signs/symptoms of thyrotoxicity such as ______, _____, and _____.
tachycardia
tremor
anxiety
How do you evaluate treatment efficacy of levothyroxine?
TSH is within normal range and patient’s symptoms are better. If goiter is present, there will be a reduction in goiter size.
***Re-evaluate dosing if:
loss of 10% or > body weight or pregnancy
Lithium for bipolar:
This drug can permanently damage the ______, so monitor _____.
thyroid
TSH
Hyperthyroidism:
Most common cause is ________ disease.
Second most common cause is _____ _____.
Graves
multinodular goiter
Screening test for hyperthyroidism is _____ which is usually < ____
TSH
0.05
Hyperthyroidism: Labs are TSH < \_\_\_\_ Free T4 is \_\_\_\_ Free T3 is \_\_\_\_\_ TSH receptor antibodies are \_\_\_\_\_\_ in Graves disease
0.05
elevated
elevated
elevated
_______ (drug) can induce hyperthyroidism. Monitor TSH.
Amiodarone
Goiter/nodules:
Order a _____ _____ initially with a ____ ____ panel.
thyroid ultrasound
thyroid function
Hyperthyroidism classic presentation:
Woman who is 30 - 60 years of age with rapid weight loss, tachycardia, tremor, irritable, menses irregular. Rapid speech and high energy. Insomnia. Bulging eyes, lid lag, conjunctival edema. Thyroid goiter and/or nodules are present.
PE: 90% have _____. Thryoid ______, tremor, exophthalmos are present.
goiter; bruits
Complications of hyperthyroidism are arrhythmias, angina, _____, thyroid storm, ________, death.
Refer to endocrinologist ASAP
CHF; osteoporosis
Treatment options for hyperthyroidism:
_____ ______. Destroys thyroid gland resulting in hypothyroidism for life.
Radioiodine ablation
Hyperthyroidism meds: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is preferred daily. \_\_\_\_\_ is preferred for pregnant women. Adjunct tx: \_\_\_\_\_\_
Methimazole
PTU
propranolol
Criteria for dx’ing DM:
Classic symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polydipsia, polyuria, nocturia, blurred vision plus:
A random plasma glucose of ____ or higher
Hgb A1C ____ or higher
Fasting plasma glucose greater than or equal to _____
2-hr plasma glucose level > or equal to ____ with 75 g glucose load
200
6.5%
126
200
Diabetic glycemic goals: A1C \_\_\_ % Frail elderly/frequent hypoglycemic episodes: Up to \_\_\_ to \_\_\_% Preprandial/fasting glucose \_\_\_ to \_\_\_ Postprandial glucose < \_\_\_\_
7.0%
8% to 8.5%
70 to 130
180
Metabolic syndrome is the presence of at least 3 of the 5 following conditions: H H H H A
HTN
hyperglycemia/insulin resistance (FPG > 100)
hypertriglyceridemia (>150)
HDL < 40 men, > 50 women
Abdominal obesity: men > 40 inches, women > 35
South Asians men > 35 inches, women > 31 inches
Patients with metabolic syndrome are at higher risk for :
***________________
_______
______
Non-alcoholic fatty liver disease
CAD
DM type II
Criteria for screening asymptomatic adults for DM:
Screen ALL people with BMI > 25 PLUS those below:
(Screen all HEROs and HAGs)
H____
E____
R____
O_____
H___
A___
G___
HDLs 35 and/or trigs >250
Ethnicity (high-risk - AAs, Latinos, Native Americans,etc)
Relatives (First-degree relatives with DM)
Obese (BMI > 25)
HTN
Acanthosis nigrans
Gestational diabetes history (or delivered baby 9 lb or >)
Increased risk of DM type II (pre-diabetes)
(FAT)
Fasting glucose impaired (____ to ____)
A1C level ___ to ____
Tolerance (impaired glucose tolerance): 2-hour postprandial or OGTT glucose level of ____ to ____
100 to 125
5.7% to 6.4%
140 - 199
Those at higher risk for Type II DM are those of these races: AHA PAP A\_\_\_\_ H\_\_\_\_ A\_\_\_\_
P____
A____
P____
African
Hispanic
American Indian
Pima Indians
Asians
Pacific Islanders
When to check A1C levels:
Check ____ ___ _____ when not under control.
When under control, check ___ ___ _____.
Every 3 months
every 6 months
Other lab tests to order for diabetics: "Labs For My Sweets" L\_\_\_ F\_\_\_ M\_\_\_\_ S\_\_\_\_
LFTs
fasting lipid profile
Microalbumin
Serum creatinine with eGFR
Check a urine in diabetics for microalbumin (albumin-to-creatinine ratio) at these intervals:
type 2 diabetics: at ____
Type I diabetics: Check ___ ____ ____ ____
diagnosis
5 years after diagnosis
Diabetic comprehensive foot exam: "My feet need a PAN DIP" (like a "dip") P A N
D
I
P
Pulses (DP & PT)
Achilles reflex
Neuropathy (Evaluate for using tuning fork for vibration
sense and 10 gram monofilament)
DTRs (check if missing or depressed)
Inspection (ulcers, gangrene, skin color)
Patellar reflex
Grading reflexes (as in for a diabetic foot exam) 1+ \_\_\_\_\_ 2+ \_\_\_\_\_ 3+ \_\_\_\_\_ 4+\_\_\_\_\_\_
1+ is slight
2+ is brisk/normal)
3+ is very brisk
4+ is clonus
Evaluating diabetic feet for neuropathy:
Use a _____ _____ to test for vibration sense
Use a __-__ ______ to test sensation
tuning fork
10G monofilament
What is the #1 treatment for type II DM?
lifestyle modifications
Tell diabetics not to go ________ and they will need a _____.
barefoot
podiatrist
***A diabetic has hypoglycemic episodes. What could it be from?
1 Eats mostly carbs
2 Strenuous exercise in the daytime (increased physical activity)
2 Strenuous exercise in the daytime/increased physical activity
In diabetics, exercise/physical activity increases _____ level.
HDL
Diabetes: During illness, blood glucose will become elevated.
Do or do not hold oral anti-diabetics?
Check blood sugar __ to __ times per day and urine dipstick for ketones in type I Diabetics.
Do NOT except Starlix and Prandin.
4 to 5
Name the process: Plasma glucose elevated in early morning due to spikes in growth hormone reduced tissue sensitivity to insulin between 5:00 AM and 8:00 AM
Dawn Phenomenon
How do you treat the problem of elevated early morning blood glucose due to the Dawn Phenomenon?
Increase the HS insulin
Name the process:
Nocturnal hypoglycemia stimulates counter-regulatory hormones (secretion of glucagon by the liver), results in hyperglycemia by 7 AM. Caused by over-treatment of PM insulin or too much exercise earlier in the day. More common in Type I diabetics.
Somoygi effect (Abnormal process)
How do you diagnose Somoygi effect? (where nocturnal hypoglycemia stimulates counter-regulatory hormones (secretion of glucagon by the liver), results in hyperglycemia by 7 AM)
Check blood glucose at 3 AM daily for 1-2 weeks. If consistently < 70, they have Somoygi.
Diabetes target organs: Penis: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and \_\_\_\_\_ Decreased activity of \_\_\_\_\_ system Retinopathy with \_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_ \_\_\_\_\_ Blurred vision, floaters or spots in visual field, \_\_\_\_\_\_
balanitis; (ED) erectile dysfunction
Immune
Cotton-wool spots
scotoma
Types of damage from diabetes:
Retinopathy, nephropathy, and neuropathy are _____.
CAD, HTN, and hyperlipidemia are ______.
Microvascular
Macrovascular
Annual referrals for diabetics that are covered by Medicare: P R O D D
Podiatrist Registered dietitian ophthalmologist dentist Diabetes educator
Diabetes meds:
First line is _____ PLUS LIFESTYLE CHANGES
Metformin
Metformin is a _____ that increases peripheral tissue sensitivity to insulin and decreases glucagon production by the liver.
Side effects are gas, bloating, and diarrhea.
For IV contrast, hold on ____ of procedure and ____ ___ afterward.
biguanide
day
48 hours
Glipizide and Amaryl are __________ that stimulate beta cells of pancreas. If a pt is on metformin and the A1C is still > 7%, the next step is to add one of these. Side effects include a risk for ______. Instruct pt to always:
sulfonylureas
hypoglycemia
Carry glucose tablets
***______ is a thiozolinedione that can be added to metformin if the A1C is >7%. It is contraindicated in class 3 or 4 heart failure because it causes FLUID RETENTION.
Actos
The diabetes med Actos causes ______ ______ and should be avoided in heart failure
fluid retention
Prandin and Starlix are _______ and should be taken with meals. They have a _____ ____ and should be held if skipping meals. Use for post-prandial hyperglycemia.
meglitinides
quick onset
***_________ is an oral diabetes med that is in the class GLP-1, is by injection only, decreases appetite, and is also used in OBESITY TREATMENT
Saxenda
The “gliptins” sitagliptin (Januvia) and saxagliptin (Onglyza) are DPP-4s. They decrease appetite. Side effects include N/D, abd pain, pancreatitis, and heart failure. Another side effect is ________ and ____ _____ ______.
angioedema
Stevens Johnson syndrome
Canagliflozin (Invokana) and Empaglifozin (Jardiance) are SGLT inhibitors. They cause the kidneys to excrete glucose in the urine and come with a side effect warning of rare cases of ______ _____ of the _______.
necrotizing fascitis genitals
*** Can combine metformin 1 g BID with another drug class if A1C is still elevated:
the “_______”
the “_______”
and V____ B_____ S_____
gliptins
flozins
Victozin, Byetta, Saxenda
Yes or No -
Can metformin be used with insulin?
yes
Know these durations of insulin:
Short-acting: ______ to ______ hours
Intermediate-acting: __ to ___ hours
Basal insulin (Lantus) up to ____ hours
3 to 6 (breakfast to lunch or meal to meal)
12 to 18 (breakfast to dinner)
24
Insulin pumps: Deliver rapid or short-acting insulin 24 hours/day through a catheter placed under the skin. Needs to be disconnected before ______, ______, ____
swimming, showering, or bathing (anything to do with water)
Disadvantages of insulin pumps:
_______.
requires more training.
Gets in the way of certain activities.
expensive
Is a palpable spleen a normal finding?
No
A palpable spleen can be caused by _______ and _____ ______.
mono
sickle cell
Acute abdomen signs and symptoms: Involuntary \_\_\_\_\_. abdominal wall rigidity rebound tenderness progressive severe abdominal pain Bile-stained or feculent \_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
guarding
vomitus
Name the condition:
Distended abdomen with no bowel sounds, and hypertympanic on percussion
Ileus
*** Acute appendicitis signs:
P
O
R
Psoas sign
Obturator sign
Rovsing’s sign
Appendicitis - Name the signs:
RLQ pain on passive leg extension:
RLQ pain with internal rotation of the right hip:
***Firm deep palpation of the LLQ of the abdomen will cause severe pain on the RLQ (referred pain due to peritonitis):
Pelvic/abdominal pain when patient drops heels on floor:
Abdominal pain worse when palpating hand is released (compared to during deep palpation)
Psoas
Obturator
Rovsing’s
Markle test (heel jar)
Rebound tenderness
*** A child to adult with new onset of anorexia accompanied by complaints of VAGUE PERIUMBILICAL PAIN that eventually localizes to McBurney’s point within 12 to 18 hours (exam may only say RLQ):
What is this diagnosis?
Acute appendicitis
Appendicitis:
The point midway between the right anterior iliac crest and umbilicus is called:
McBurney’s point
Acute cholecystitis/biliary disease:
Biliary colic is recurrent COLICKY pain (comes in waves, crescendo-decrescendo pattern) located in the ____ of the abdomen. Attacks are precipitated by a _____ ___.
Pain occurs within 30 minutes to 1 hour after eating ____ _____.
Pain radiates to _____ ______ or under the _____ _____.
Will report a history of the pain on the same area that resolved.
Attacks may get more frequent and more severe
RUQ
fatty meal
fatty meals
right shoulder; right scapula
Gallstones in the bile duct (fever, RUQ pain, leukocytosis) are called:
cholecystitis
*** Describe Murphy’s sign:
Abrupt cessation of inspiration caused by hooking fingers on the right costal margin and pressing down firmly
What is a positive Murphy’s sign indicative of?
acute cholecystitis
***Name this sign:
Abrupt cessation of inspiration caused by hooking fingers on the right costal margin and pressing down firmly
Murphy’s sign
For suspected cholecystitis:
Order a ______/_____ &____ ultrasound
transabdominal/liver gallbladder
Cholecystitis:
Labs: Elevation in the _______ and ______ _____.
bilirubin; alkaline phosphatase
Higher risk of gallbladder disease is present in:
F
A
D
P
O
O
Females
Age (40 to 60)
Diabetes
Pregnancy
Oral contraceptives
Obesity
Higher incidence of cholesterol gallstones is present in
M
Na
P
Mexicans
Native Americans
Pima tribe
Name the condition:
Adult w/history of heavy alcohol intake. Acute onset of mid-epigastric **BORING abdominal pain that radiates to the **BACK. Also has fever, anorexia, N/V, tachycardia.
PE: Tenderness to palpation mid-epigastric with guarding/rigidity. Decreased bowel sounds.
Acute pancreatitis
What sydrome/condition has “boring” mid-epigastric severe pain that radiates to the back?
acute pancreatitis
What is periumbilical bruising/discoloration of pancreatitis called?
Cullen’s sign. Think of 2 “Cs” kissing each other, which makes a circle, as in periumbilical circle. C for Cullen.
what tests are sensitive for pancreatitis?
Amylase and lipase
Name the syndrome:
Older adult/elderly with sudden onset of mild to moderate abdominal pain and a mass on the left lower quadrant of the abdomen. Accompanied by fever and anorexia.
acute colonic diverticulitis
What are risk factors for acute colonic diverticulitis?
L
A
W
low-fiber diet
Age 40 or older
Western society
What does the CBC look like in acute colonic diverticulitis?
Leukocytosis, neutrophils >80%, band forms (shift to the left)
Outpatient management of diverticulitis is for MILD cases only! If outpatient, ____ ____ initially. Close follow-up every ___ to ___ days.
clear liquids
2 to 3
Antibiotic treatment for MILD (not toxic/no peritoneal signs present) diverticulitis:
CF
A
B
Cipro PLUS Flagyl
Augmentin
Bactrim DS
Name this condition:
Adult complains of recurrent episodes of gnawing/burning epigastric pain within 2 to 5 hours after meals. Pain when stomach is empty or hungry. Feels better after eating, relief with antacids.
May have pain at midnight or early morning.
History of self-treatment with OTC antacids, H2 blockers, or PPIs.
Peptic ulcer disease - duodenal ulcer
Hint: Think: DUOs are BETTER as in DUOdenal ulcer, BETTER after eating
Most common type of ulcer. 90% are positive for H. pylori.
duodenal ulcer.
Name this condition:
Complains of epigastric pain that worsens with eating. Has postprandial belching, EARLY SATIETY, nausea, sometimes vomiting. Pain may radiate to the back.
About 70% are asymptomatic. Higher risk of cancer than the other type.
peptic ulcer disease - GAStric ulcer.
Hint: Think of “gas” being bad, as in GAStric ulcer, WORSE/BAD with eating.
You can only treat gastric ulcers in the primary care clinic if they have no alarm symptoms and are under age ____
55
Alarm symptoms for gastric cancer in the setting of a gastric ulcer are:
A
W
E
B
A
D
anorexia
weight loss
EARLY SATIETY
bloody stools
anemia
dysphagia
Who should be tested for H. pylori infection?
P
A
N
Past hx of PUD
Active PUD
NSAID therapy
Lab testing for H. pylori:
If active infection, both ____ and ____ antibodies will be present.
IgM and IgG
What test has the highest specificity for H. pylori?
urea breath test
H. pylori testing:
What test has less accuracy than the urea breath test?
What is the gold standard tool for diagnosis of H. pylori?
stool antigen test
upper endoscopy w/biopsies and H. pylori testing
Treatment for H. pylori:
First line option is ___ _____ _______
Bismuth quadruple therapy
Bismuth quadruple therapy for H. pylori consists of :
- Bismuth
- ______
- ____________
- _______
2 Flagyl
3 Tetracycline
4 PPI x 10-14 days
Clarithromycin triple therapy for H. pylori is not first line b/c there is a high rate of resistance to macrolides and eradication rates are less than 80%. However, it consists of
1 Clarithromycin
2 ________
3 _________ or
C
A
M
P
2 amoxicillin
PPI x 14 days
Clarithromycin
Amoxicillin
Metronidazole
PPI
Avoid clarithromycin triple therapy for H. pylori if the patient took a ________ antibiotic or has _______ resistance.
macrolide
clarithromycin
Name this condition:
A triad of very high level of gastric acid secretion, PUD, and gastrinoma. Can be benign or malignant or associated with multiple endocrine neoplasia type I.
Zollinger-Ellison syndrome
What is 1st-line tx for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome?
PPIs
What labs do you order for Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, and will it be elevated or decreased?
(Hold PPIs 7 days before test)
fasting gastrin level
elevated
How do NSAIDs damage the GI tract?
Blocks prostaglandins which regulate blood flow of GI tract. Mucus layer of stomach becomes thinner.
What NSAID has the highest rate of GI complications?
Indomethacin
NSAID therapy increases risk for ___, ___ events, and ____.
MI, GI, CVA
In a patient with high risk of GI and CV events, avoid _______ therapy!
NSAID
***Toradol: The max number of days per “episode” of treatment that a patient should take it is _____. First dose is given IM or IV.
5
Name the condition:
Middle-aged adult c/o daily episode of epigastric to mid-sternal pain (heartburn). May report episodes of sour taste in mouth, chronic sore throat, and DRY COUGH. May have esophageal erosion.
GERD
Barrett’s esophagus is a precursor to _______ ______. It is diagnosed by ______.
esophageal cancer.
biopsy.
Refer patients with chronic hx of GERD to rule out _________ ________.
Barrett’s esophagus.
Treatment for GERD includes ________ and _____ ______. Lose weight. Stop eating 3 to 4 hours before bed. Elevate head of bed. Avoid aggravating foods. Stop smoking and drinking.
lifestyle; dietary changes
Foods to avoid with GERD:
C
A
P
Coffee, chocolate
Alcohol
Peppermint
Treatment for GERD:
Mild: Start with ______ PRN.
Then move to _____.
If still symptomatic, start on _____.
antacids
H2RA (ranitidine, famotidine)
PPIs
For GERD treatment failures with BID H2 receptor antagonists:
Treat with _____ up to ____ _____ duration
PPIs; 8 weeks