Review Quiz - Additional SAS Data Management Tools and Applications Flashcards

1
Q

The scope of the SAS Data Governance offering includes which of the following? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. business data glossary
b. data lineage
c. advanced analytics
d. data monitoring

A

a. business data glossary
b. data lineage

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2
Q

Select the appropriate uses for the following SAS applications:

SAS Business Data Network >
SAS Visual Analytics >
Data Management Studio >
SAS Lineage >

a. manages the business data glossary,
b. displays the relationships between metadata objects in the relationship repository
c. creates reports and graphs from data monitoring results,
d. creates data monitoring jobs

A

SAS Business Data Network > a. manages the business data glossary,
SAS Visual Analytics > c. creates reports and graphs from data monitoring results,
Data Management Studio > d. creates data monitoring jobs
SAS Lineage > b. displays the relationships between metadata objects in the relationship repository

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3
Q

Select the appropriate usage for the following SAS Business Data Network components:

SAS Metadata Server >
SAS Middle tier >
Business data glossary >
Metadata roles >

a. Location of the business data glossary
b. Storage component for terms and term attributes
c. Verifies user credentials for SAS Business Data Network
d. Determines capabilities of users based on their assigned roles

A

SAS Metadata Server > c. Verifies user credentials for SAS Business Data Network
SAS Middle tier > a. Location of the business data glossary
Business data glossary > b. Storage component for terms and term attributes
Metadata roles > d. Determines capabilities of users based on their assigned roles

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4
Q

Select the appropriate usage for the following term attributes:

Snapshot >
Tag >
Filter >
Term Type >

a. used to group and organize terms,
b. creates a subset of displayed terms
c. used to specify properties and attributes for newly created terms
d. creates a “copy” of the data at a given point in time,

A

Snapshot > d. creates a “copy” of the data at a given point in time,
Tag > a. used to group and organize terms,
Filter > b. creates a subset of displayed terms
Term Type > c. used to specify properties and attributes for newly created terms

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5
Q

Which grouping correctly reflects the Event Stream Processing container hierarchy?

Select one:
a. engine/project/continuous query/window
b. engine/continuous query/window
c. engine/project/window
d. engine/project/window/continuous query

A

a. engine/project/continuous query/window

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6
Q

Which statements about publish and subscribe are correct? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. Sources publish
b. Sources subscribe
c. Targets publish
d. Targets subscribe

A

a. Sources publish
d. Targets subscribe

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7
Q

Which statement about multi-threading is correct?

Select one:
a. Multi-threading is defined at the model level.
b. Multi-threading is defined at the project level.
c. Multi-threading is defined at the continuous query level.
d. Multi-threading is defined at the window level.

A

b. Multi-threading is defined at the project level.

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8
Q

Which is the correct directed graph for the model, given the following edges?

<edges>
'<description>directed graph</description>
'<edge></edge>
'<edge></edge>
'<edge></edge>
'<edge></edge>
'<edge></edge>
'</edges>

A

d

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9
Q

Which statement about event sources is correct?

Select one:
a. Sources must publish into source windows only.
b. Sources can publish into any window.
c. Sources can publish into continuous queries.
d. Sources can publish into projects.

A

a. Sources must publish into source windows only.

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10
Q

Which statement about SAS Event Stream Processing Studio is correct?

Select one:
a. Event Stream Processing Studio is browser based.
b. Event Stream Processing Studio is a Java application.
c. Event Stream Processing Studio runs on Windows only.
d. Event Stream Processing Studio runs on Linux only.

A

a. Event Stream Processing Studio is browser based.

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11
Q

Which statement about SAS Event Stream Processing Studio is most accurate?

Select one:
a. Event Stream Processing Studio can export model XML.
b. Event Stream Processing Studio can import model XML.
c. Event Stream Processing Studio can export and import model XML.
d. Event Stream Processing Studio cannot export or import model XML.

A

c. Event Stream Processing Studio can export and import model XML.

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12
Q

Which statements about SAS Event Stream Processing Studio are correct? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. Event Stream Processing Studio generates model XML.
b. In Event Stream Processing Studio, the developer must write model XML.
c. In Event Stream Processing Studio, changes in the visual model are reflected in the generated XML.
d. In Event Stream Processing Studio, changes in the XML are reflected in the visual model.

A

a. Event Stream Processing Studio generates model XML.
c. In Event Stream Processing Studio, changes in the visual model are reflected in the generated XML.

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13
Q

Which names are valid for a window? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. Source Window1
b. SourceWindow1
c. Source-window-1
d. source_window_1
e. 1_SourceWindow

A

b. SourceWindow1
d. source_window_1

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14
Q

Is this project correct?

Select one:
a. Yes
b. No

A

b. No

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15
Q

Is this project correct?

Select one:
a. Yes
b. No

A

b. No

No, window and container names must start with a letter or underscore.

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16
Q

Is this engine correct?

Select one:
a. Yes
b. No

A

b. No

17
Q

Is this engine correct?

Select one:
a. Yes
b. No

A

a. Yes, continuous query names must be unique within a project.

18
Q

Which attributes does a SAS Event Stream Processing window have? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. name
b. key
c. schema
d. index
e. edge

A

a. name
b. key
c. schema
d. index

19
Q

Which data types are supported by SAS Event Stream Processing? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. character
b. numeric
c. datetime
d. int32
e. timestamp
f. money

A

d. int32
e. timestamp
f. money

20
Q

Which statements are true for indexes? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. Only source windows and copy windows have indexes.
b. All windows have at least one index.
c. An index can be stateless.
d. Indexes are memory based.

A

b. All windows have at least one index.
c. An index can be stateless.

21
Q

Which statements are true for a stateless window? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. does not store events
b. can process inserts, updates, and deletes
c. can process only inserts
d. might perform better than a stateful window

A

a. does not store events
c. can process only inserts
d. might perform better than a stateful window

22
Q

Which statements are true for operation codes? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. They are flags.
b. They are metadata.
c. They are included in window schemas.
d. They specify insert, update, delete, upsert, or safe delete.
e. They can be referenced in expressions.

A

b. They are metadata.
d. They specify insert, update, delete, upsert, or safe delete.
e. They can be referenced in expressions.

23
Q

Which statements are true for the canonical set of events? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. It is the expanded maximal set of events per key.
b. It is the collapsed minimal set of events per key.
c. It can have multiple events per key.
d. It has, at most, one event per key.

A

b. It is the collapsed minimal set of events per key.
d. It has, at most, one event per key.

24
Q

Which statements are true for a copy window? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. splits an incoming event stream into output streams
b. physically copies incoming events to output streams
c. uses pointers to efficiently support multiple output streams
d. defines a retention policy

A

c. uses pointers to efficiently support multiple output streams
d. defines a retention policy

25
Q

Which statements are true for retention? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. It controls how long an event is retained in a window.
b. It controls which events are retained in a window.
c. Only source windows and copy windows support retention.
d. All windows support retention.
e. It requires a date or time field in the events.

A

a. It controls how long an event is retained in a window.
c. Only source windows and copy windows support retention.

Retention controls how long an event is retained in a window.
• is valid for source and copy windows only
• requires a stateful index and cannot be set to insert-only

26
Q

Which statement about connectors and adapters is correct? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. Connectors run inside the Event Stream Processing engine.
b. Connectors run independently.
c. Adapters run inside the Event Stream Processing engine.
d. Adapters run independently.

A

a. Connectors run inside the Event Stream Processing engine.
d. Adapters run independently.

27
Q

Which statement about blocksize is correct? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. A larger blocksize is always better than a smaller one.
b. A larger blocksize increases throughput.
c. A larger blocksize increases latency.
d. A larger blocksize affects a window’s retention policy.

A

b. A larger blocksize increases throughput.
c. A larger blocksize increases latency.

28
Q

Which are configurable properties of connectors and adapters? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. retention
b. snapshot
c. pubsub
d. index
e. transactional

A

b. snapshot
c. pubsub
e. transactional

  • pubsub - controls whether the subscription is enabled for a project or a window.
  • snapshot - The snapshot property controls whether a window sends its retained history to a subscribing connector or adapter
  • blocksize - The blocksize property sets the number of events per event block.
  • transactional - The transactional property controls how event blocks are handled when an event within a block fails.
  • dateformat - The dateformat parameter uses the directives supported by the UNIX strftime function
  • collapse - The collapse property controls whether update_block events are converted to update events.
29
Q

Which statement is correct about the calculate window? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. executes DS2 programs
b. executes SAS procedures
c. executes Python programs
d. executes Java programs
e. executes C++ programs

A

a. executes DS2 programs
c. executes Python programs
e. executes C++ programs

30
Q

Which of the following is primarily concerned with masking personal identification information (PII)?

Select one:
a. data federation
b. data virtualization
c. data disclosure

A

c. data disclosure

31
Q

What three types of logins are used in SAS Federation Server?

Select one or more:
a. personal
b. interactive
c. shared
d. adminstrative
e. group

A

a. personal
c. shared
e. group

32
Q

What is the purpose of the FedSQL programming language? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. provide a DBMS-specific SQL dialect
b. provide a vendor-neutral SQL dialect
c. provide a layer of data abstraction to data
d. provide direct access to dbms data

A

b. provide a vendor-neutral SQL dialect
c. provide a layer of data abstraction to data

33
Q

When creating a FedSQL view for users who do not have access to the underlying source data, an Invoker’s Rights view should be created.

Select one:
True
False

A

False

ViewFederated SQL views support two types of access:
* Invoker’s rights view – The view is created using the invoking user’s credentials. The user must have access to the underlying sources of the view.
* Definer’s rights view – The view is created using the required credentials of the schema owner.

34
Q

Which of the following are required to create a cache from a FedSQL view? Select all that apply.

Select one or more:
a. The FedSQL view must reside in the same location as the original data source.
b. Cached schema objects must be assigned a cache schema owner.
c. The FedSQL view must be an invoker’s rights view.

A

b. Cached schema objects must be assigned a cache schema owner.

ViewsThe following are requirements for using cached FEDSQL views:
1. The user creating the cache needs the CONNECT privilege on the ADMIN DSN.
2. Cached schema objects must be assigned a cache schema owner.
3. The view schema owner must have CREATE TABLESPACE privileges on the cached schema so that client access to the view can work properly.