Review Questions Flashcards
Gastrectomy:
a. Gastric resection
b. Intestinal incision
c. Tumor of the stomach
d. Incision of the stomach
e. Resection of the intestine
a. Gastric resection
Osteitis:
a. Incision of a bone
b. Removal of a bone
c. Incision of a joint
d. Inflammation of a joint
e. Inflammation of a bone
e. Inflammation of a bone
Cystoscopy:
a. Study of cells
b. Visual examination of cells
c. Removal of a sac of fluid
d. Removal of the urinary bladder
e. Visual examination of the urinary bladder
e. Visual examination of the urinary bladder
Electroencephalogram:
a. Record of electricity in the brain
b. Record of electricity in the heart
c. X-ray of the brain
d. Record of sound waves in the brain
e. X-ray of the heart and brain
a. Record of electricity in the brain
Diagnosis:
a. Is made after the prognosis
b. Is a guess as to the patient’s condition
c. Is a prediction of the course of treatment
d. Is made on the basis of complete knowledge about the patient’s condition
e. Is a treatment of the patient
d. Is made on the basis of complete knowledge about the patient’s condition
Microscopic examination of living tissue:
a. Incision
b. Pathology
c. Biopsy
d. Autopsy
e. Resection
c. Biopsy
Removal of a gland:
a. Gastrotomy
b. Gastric
c. Hepatic resection
d. Nephric resection
e. Adenectomy
e. Adenectomy
Decrease in numbers of red blood cells:
a. Anemia
b. Erythrocytosis
c. Thrombocytosis
d. Leukemia
e. Leukocytosis
a. Anemia
Pathologist:
a. One who examines x-rays
b. One who operates on the urinary tract
c. One who performs autopsies and reads biopsies
d. One who operates on the kidney
e. One who treats diseases with chemicals
c. One who performs autopsies and reads biopsies
Pain in a joint:
a. Ostealgia
b. Arthritis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Arthroalgia
e. Arthralgia
e. Arthralgia
Instrument to view the eye:
a. Ophthalmoscopy
b. Opthalmoscope
c. Opthalmology
d. Ophthalmoscope
e. Opthalmoscopy
d. Ophthalmoscope
Study of cells:
a. Pathology
b. Cytology
c. Cystology
d. Dermatology
e. Urology
b. Cytology
Abnormal condition of the kidney:
a. Neurological
b. Neuralgia
c. Nephrotomy
d. Neural
e. Nephrosis
e. Nephrosis
Muscular wall separating the abdominal and thoracic cavities:
a. Mediastinum
b. Diaphragm
c. Pleura
d. Pericardium
e. Peritoneum
b. Diaphragm
The space on the chest between the lungs is the:
a. Peritoneum
b. Esophagus
c. Pleural cavity
d. Mediastinum
e. Retroperitoneal space
d. Mediastinum
Adipose means pertaining to:
a. Cartilage
b. Bone
c. Fat
d. Skin
e. Nervous tissue
c. Fat
Throat:
a. Trachea
b. Coccyx
c. Larynx
d. Esophagus
e. Pharynx
e. Pharynx
Sarcoma:
a. Part of the backbone
b. Flesh tumor; benign
c. Malignant tumor of flesh tissue
d. Mass of blood
e. Skin tumor of epithelial cells
c. Malignant tumor of flesh tissue
The pleural cavity is the:
a. Space within the abdomen
b. Space within the backbones
c. Space surrounding the hip
d. Space between the membranes around the lungs
e. Space within the skull
d. Space between the membranes around the lungs
Structure in the trachea:
a. Bronchial tube
b. Pharynx
c. Esophagus
d. Larynx
e. Tongue
d. Larynx
The tailbone is the:
a. Sacrum
b. Cervix
c. Ilium
d. Coccyx
e. Cranium
d. Coccyx
Supine means:
a. Lying on the back
b. Conducting toward a structure
c. In front of the body
d. Lying on the belly
e. Pertaining to the side
a. Lying on the back
Amniocentesis:
a. Incision of the abdomen
b. Paracentesis
c. Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen
d. Puncture of the chest region
e. Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the sac around the embryo
e. Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the sac around the embryo
Blood is held back from an area:
a. Thrombocyte
b. Anemia
c. Ischemia
d. Hematoma
e. Hemolysis
c. Ischemia
Acromegaly:
a. Exocrine disorder of bone enlargement
b. Enlargement of extremities after puberty due to pituitary gland problem
c. Abnormal growth of bones before puberty
d. Endocrine gland problem in young children
e. Fear of extremities (heights)
b. Enlargement of extremities after puberty due to pituitary gland problem
Continuing over a long period of time:
a. Chronic
b. Acute
c. Chromic
d. Relapse
e. Remission
a. Chronic
Small artery is a (an):
a. Capillary
b. Arteriole
c. Venule
d. Lymph vessel
e. Blood vessel leading from the heart
b. Arteriole
Hernia of the urinary bladder:
a. Rectocele
b. Inguinal hernia
c. Hiatal hernia
d. Rectalgia
e. Cystocele
e. Cystocele
Tumor of bone marrow (cancerous)
a. Myosarcoma
b. Malignant myeloma
c. Osteogenic sarcoma
d. Adenocarcinoma
e. Metastasis
b. Malignant myeloma
X-ray record of the spinal cord:
a. Electroencephalogram
b. Bone scan
c. Myogram
d. Myelogram
e. Electromyogram
d. Myelogram
Instrument to record:
a. –gram
b. –scopy
c. –scope
d. –graph
e. –graphy
d. –graph
Removal of the voice box:
a. Larengectomy
b. Pharyngotomy
c. Pharynostomy
d. Laryngectomy
e. Trachectomy
d. Laryngectomy
Angioplasty means:
a. Pertaining to fat
b. Fear of extremities
c. Therapy with chemicals
d. Surgical puncture of a blood vessel
e. Surgical repair of a blood vessel
e. Surgical repair of a blood vessel
Excessive development:
a. Hydroplasia
b. Dystrophy
c. Achondroplasia
d. Morphology
e. Hypertrophy
e. Hypertrophy
Pertaining to between the ribs:
a. IntracOstal
b. Infracostal
c. Costochondral
d. Mediastinal
e. IntercostaL
e. IntercostaL
Protrusion of an eyeball:
a. Cystocele
b. Inguinal hernia
c. Exopthalmos
d. Ectopic
e. Exophthalmos
e. Exophthalmos
Symptoms precede an illness:
a. Apnea
b. Syndrome
c. Euphoria
d. Prodrome
e. Prognosis
d. Prodrome
Before meals:
a. Prenatal
b. Anti cibum
c. Postpartum
d. Antenatal
e. Ante cibum
e. Ante cibum
Antibodies:
a. Bacteria
b. Protein substances made by leukocytes
c. Phagocytes
d. Produced by erythrocytes to fight disease
e. Antibodies
b. Protein substances made by leukocytes
Ultrasonography:
a. X-ray recording of sound waves
b. Amniocentesis
c. Sound waves and echoes are used to create an image
d. Radioactvie material is injected and sound waves are recorded
e. Abdominal x-ray recording
c. Sound waves and echoes are used to create an image
Excessive sugar in blood:
a. Hypodermic
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Glycosuria
d. Hematuria
e. Hyperglycemia
e. Hyperglycemia
Return of disease symptoms:
a. Prolapse
b. Relapse
c. Syndrome
d. Prodrome
e. Remission
b. Relapse
Dia-:
a. Flow
b. Down, lack of
c. Complete, through
d. Against
e. Near
c. Complete, through
Abductor muscle:
a. Bending forward
b. Located proximally
c. Pertains to both sides
d. Carries a limb toward the body
e. Carries a limb away from the body
e. Carries a limb away from the body
Dyspnea:
a. Abnormal formation
b. Difficult breathing
c. Not able to sleep
d. Condition of lack of water
e. Not able to breathe
b. Difficult breathing
Brady-:
a. Fast
b. Bad
c. Short
d. Slow
e. Large
d. Slow
Tachycardia:
a. Bad, painful swallowing
b. Inability to swallow
c. Near the windpipe
d. Rapid breathing
e. Rapid heartbeat
e. Rapid heartbeat
Epithelium:
a. Surface cells that line internal organs and are found in the skin
b. Membrane surrounding bone
c. Connective tissue that binds muscles to bones
d. Adipose tissue
e. Above the stomach
a. Surface cells that line internal organs and are found in the skin
Percutaneous:
a. Within a vein
b. Through a vein
c. Through the skin
d. Surrounding cartilage
e. Surrounding a bone
c. Through the skin
Pertaining to the abdomen:
a. Gastric
b. Celiac
c. Colonic
d. Pelvic
e. Esophageal
b. Celiac
Muscular wave-like movement to transport food through the digestive system:
a. Mastication
b. Regurgitation
c. Emulsification
d. Peristalsis
e. Anastomosis
d. Peristalsis
High blood levels of a pigment released by the liver with bile:
a. Cholecystitis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hyperbilirubinemia
d. Hematoma
e. Steatorrhea
c. Hyperbilirubinemia
Carries bile into the duodenum:
a. Cystic duct
b. Portal vein
c. Lymph duct
d. Hepatic duct
e. Common bile duct
e. Common bile duct
Enzyme to digest starch:
a. Lipase
b. Amylase
c. Glucose
d. Bile
e. Amino acid
b. Amylase
Ring of muscles:
a. Uvula
b. Rugae
c. Papillae
d. Myoma
e. Sphincter
e. Sphincter
Stone in a salivary gland:
a. Lithiasis
b. Cholecystolithiasis
c. Adenolithiasis
d. Sialadenolithiasis
e. Renal calculus
d. Sialadenolithiasis
Membrane that connects parts of small intestine:
a. Anastomosis
b. Ileum
c. Mesentery
d. Appendix
e. Pylorus
c. Mesentery
Fats are improperly digested and appear in the feces:
a. Adipose
b. Steatorrhea
c. Lipase
d. Lipolysis
e. Glycogenolysis
b. Steatorrhea
Lack of appetite:
a. Anorexia
b. Aphthous stomatitis
c. Leukoplakia
d. Postprandial
e. Achlorhydria
a. Anorexia
Abnormal side pockets in a hollow organ, such as the intestine:
a. Caries
b. Ulcers
c. Dysentery
d. Diverticula
e. Ascites
d. Diverticula
Telescoping of the intestine:
a. Volvulus
b. Anal fistula
c. Intussusception
d. Ileus
e. Hiatal hernia
c. Intussusception
Difficulty in swallowing:
a. Regurgitation
b. Flatus
c. Nausea
d. Eructation
e. Dysphagia
e. Dysphagia
Spitting up blood from the respiratory tract and lungs:
a. Hyperemesis
b. Hematemesis
c. Hemorrhage
d. Hemoptysis
e. Hemolysis
d. Hemoptysis
Suture:
a. –rrhapy
b. –rrhagia
c. –ectasis
d. –stasis
e. –rrhaphy
e. –rrhaphy
New opening between two parts of the jejunum:
a. Jejunojejunostomy
b. Duodenostomy
c. Duodenojejunostomy
d. Jejunostomy
e. Jejunocecal anastomosis
a. Jejunojejunostomy
Pyloric stenosis:
a. Gastric ulcer
b. Narrowing of the opening between the stomach and intestine
c. Hiatal hernia
d. Cardiospasm
e. Achalasia
b. Narrowing of the opening between the stomach and intestine
Which test would tell the presence of melena:
a. Barium enema
b. Upper GI series
c. Stool culture
d. Stool guaiac
e. Abdominal ultrasonography
d. Stool guaiac
An ulcer would most likely be detected by which of the following tests:
a. Cholecystography
b. Serum hepatitis B surface antigen
c. Intravenous cholangiogram
d. Gastroscopy
e. Abdominal CT scan
d. Gastroscopy
Lipase is:
a. An enzyme that digests starch
b. An enzyme that digests protein
c. An enzyme that digests fat
d. A breakdown product of fat digestion
e. A hormone secreted by the pancreas
c. An enzyme that digests fat
Palatoplasty:
a. Surgical repair of the roof of the mouth
b. Overgrowth of gum tissue
c. Surgical repair of the tongue
d. Cleft palate
e. Prolapse of the palate
a. Surgical repair of the roof of the mouth
Which test is NOT a liver function test:
a. Serum bilirubin
b. ALP (alkaline phosphatase)
c. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
d. AST (SGOT)
e. ALT (SGPT)
c. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
Opposite of –ectasis:
a. –stenosis
b. –ptysis
c. –spasm
d. –stasis
e. –lysis
a. –stenosis
Flow, discharge:
a. –ptysis
b. –emesis
c. –rrhaphy
d. –rrhea
e. –phagia
d. –rrhea
Common bile duct:
a. Cholecyst/o
b. Celi/o
c. Cholelith/o
d. Choledoch/o
e. Cheil/o
d. Choledoch/o
Forward protrusion of the eye:
a. Oropharynx
b. Proptosis
c. Blepharoptosis
d. Pyorrhea
e. Heriorrhaphy
b. Proptosis
Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen:
a. Cholestasis
b. Dyspepsia
c. Hemostasis
d. Ascites
e. Paracentesis
e. Paracentesis
Twisting of part of the intestine upon itself:
a. Proctosigmoidoscopy
b. Cecal valvulus
c. Pyloric stenosis
d. Biliary atresia
e. Rectal stenosis
b. Cecal valvulus
Heavy menstrual discharge:
a. Menorrhea
b. Hemorrhage
c. Dysmenorrhea
d. Menorrhagia
e. Hematemesis
d. Menorrhagia
Visual examination of the abdomen:
a. Laparoscopy
b. Colonoscopy
c. Liver scan
d. Colectomy
e. Enterorrhaphy
a. Laparoscopy
Glomerular:
a. Pertaining to a tube leading from the kidney to the bladder
b. Pertaining to small balls of capillaries in the kidney
c. Pertaining to a tube in the bladder
d. Pertaining to a collecting chamber in the kidney
e. Pertaining to the urinary bladder
b. Pertaining to small balls of capillaries in the kidney
Electrolyte:
a. Bilirubin
b. Creatinine
c. Albumin
d. Sodium
e. Glucose
d. Sodium
Nitrogenous waste:
a. Creatinine
b. Fatty acid
c. Lipid
d. Carbon dioxide
e. Sugar
a. Creatinine
Renal pelvis:
a. nephr/o
b. cyst/o
c. ren/o
d. py/o
e. pyel/o
e. pyel/o
A term that means no urine production is:
a. Diuresis
b. Anuria
c. Voiding
d. Micturition
e. Nocturia
b. Anuria
X-ray of the urinary tract:
a. Renal ultrasonography
b. KUB
c. BUN
d. Cystoscopy
e. Renal dialysis
b. KUB
Oliguria:
a. Nocturia
b. Polyuria
c. Scanty urination
d. Bacteriuria
e. Pus in the urine
c. Scanty urination
Diabetes insipidus is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Polydipsia
b. Glycosuria
c. Polyuria
d. Pituitary gland malfunction
e. Insufficient ADH
b. Glycosuria
Artificial kidney machine:
a. Renal biopsy
b. CAPD
c. Lithotripsy
d. Hemodialysis
e. Renal transplantation
d. Hemodialysis
Nephrolithotomy:
a. Hardening of a stone
b. Removal of the urinary bladder and kidney stones
c. Removal of the kidney and stones
d. Bladder calculi
e. Incision to remove a renal calculus
e. Incision to remove a renal calculus
Protein in the urine:
a. Ketonuria
b. Acetonuria
c. Hyperbilirubinemia
d. Bilirubinuria
e. Albuminuria
e. Albuminuria
Alkaline:
a. Acidic
b. pH
c. Basic
d. Acetone
e. Water
c. Basic
High levels of ketones in the blood can lead to:
a. High pH of urine
b. Acidosis
c. Excessive elimination of fats
d. Diabetes insipidus
e. Low specific gravity
b. Acidosis
Urine is held in the bladder:
a. Urinary incontinence
b. Pyuria
c. Polyuria
d. Nocturia
e. Urinary retention
e. Urinary retention
Test that measures the amount of urea in the blood:
a. IVP
b. RP
c. BUN
d. VCU
e. Creatinine clearance test
c. BUN
The ovum is the:
a. Female gonad
b. Female gamete
c. Embryo
d. Fertilized egg cell
e. Fetus
b. Female gamete
Part of the vulva:
a. Uterine cervix
b. Fallopian tubes
c. Labia majora
d. Ovaries
e. All of the above
c. Labia majora
Ovarian sac:
a. Endometrium
b. Corpus luteum
c. Amnion
d. Chorion
e. Placenta
b. Corpus luteum
Incision of the perineum during childbirth:
a. Episiotomy
b. Colpotomy
c. Perineoplasty
d. Laparotomy
e. Perineorrhaphy
a. Episiotomy
Fingerlike ends of the fallopian tubes are called:
a. Ligaments
b. Papilae
c. Cysts
d. Fimbriae
e. Labia
d. Fimbriae
The study and treatment of newborns is called:
a. Obstetrics
b. Neonatology
c. Gynecology
d. Pediatrics
e. Endocrinology
b. Neonatology
Sac containing the egg is the:
a. Corpus luteum
b. Ovarian cyst
c. Amnion
d. Graafian follicle
e. Placenta
d. Graafian follicle
Hormones produced by an endocrine gland located below the brain:
a. HCG
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
e. Erythropoietin
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
Removal of the fallopian tubes and ovaries:
a. Total hysterectomy
b. Conization
c. Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
d. Salpingectomy
e. Partial hysterectomy
c. Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
Premature separation of placenta:
a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Placenta previa
c. Abruptio placentae
d. Pseudocyesis
e. Dyspareunia
c. Abruptio placentae
A woman who has had 3 miscarriages and 2 live births:
a. Grav. 3, para 2
b. Grav. 5, para 2
c. Grav. 2, para 3
d. Grav. 5, para 3
e. Grav. 2, para 5
b. Grav. 5, para 2
Physician’s effort to turn the fetus during delivery:
a. Involution
b. Retroflexion
c. Retroversion
d. Cephalic version
e. Presentation
d. Cephalic version
Gynecomastia:
a. Occurs after lactation in females
b. Abnormal development of breast tissue in males
c. Abnormal discharge of milk from the breast
d. Abnormal condition of pregnancy
e. Lumpectomy and chemotherapy are treatments
b. Abnormal development of breast tissue in males
Painful labor and delivery:
a. Dystocia
b. Eutocia
c. Dyspareunia
d. Eclampsia
e. Endometriosis
a. Dystocia
Menarche:
a. Last menstrual period
b. First menstrual period
c. Absence of menstruation
d. Painfull menstruation
e. Frequent menstrual periods
b. First menstrual period
Pieces of inner lining of the uterus are ectopic:
a. Endocervicitis
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Endometriosis
d. Cystadenocarcinoma
e. Fibrocystic disease of the breast
c. Endometriosis
The male gonad:
a. Sperm cell
b. Scrotum
c. Testis
d. Penis
e. Epididymis
c. Testis
Tissue that produces sperm cells:
a. Seminiferous tubules
b. Endometrium
c. Urethra
d. Ureters
e. Interstitial
a. Seminiferous tubules
Hair-like tail region of the sperm is called:
a. Cilia
b. Sperm head
c. Flagellum
d. Fimbriae
e. Calyx
c. Flagellum
Foreskin:
a. Perineum
b. Phimosis
c. Prepuce
d. Glans penis
e. Scrotum
c. Prepuce
Male castration would result from which of the following operations:
a. Bilateral orchiectomy
b. TURP
c. Vasectomy
d. Bilateral oophorectomy
e. Unilateral orchidectomy
a. Bilateral orchiectomy
Inflammation of the glans penis:
a. Orchitis
b. Hydrocele
c. Varicocele
d. Balanitis
e. Epididymitis
d. Balanitis
A chancre is the primary lesion in which of the following conditions:
a. Pelvic inflammatory disease
b. Genital herpes
c. Non-gonococcal urethritis
d. Gonorrhea
e. Syphilis
e. Syphilis
Testosterone is produced by:
a. Interstitial cells of the testes
b. Prostate gland
c. Cowper glands
d. Seminiferous tubules
e. Seminal vesicles
a. Interstitial cells of the testes
Undescended testicles:
a. Anorchism
b. Phimosis
c. Epispadias
d. Cryptorchism
e. Orchiotomy
d. Cryptorchism
Sterilization procedure:
a. Vasectomy
b. Circumcision
c. Orchiotomy
d. TURP
e. Left orchiectomy
a. Vasectomy
The sac containing the male gonad:
a. Perineum
b. Peritoneum
c. Epididymis
d. Scrotum
e. Seminal vesicle
d. Scrotum
Congenital absence of a testicle:
a. Azoospermia
b. Cryptorchism
c. Aspermia
d. Oligospermia
e. Anorchism
e. Anorchism
A spermolytic substance:
a. Produces sperm cells
b. Destroys sperm cells
c. Is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia
d. Increases potency
e. Is produced by the testes
b. Destroys sperm cells
Orchiopexy:
a. Removal of a testicle
b. Incision and removal of a piece of the vas deferens
c. Fixation of an undescended testicle
d. Removal of the prepuce
e. Prolapse of a testicle
c. Fixation of an undescended testicle
Swollen, twisted veins near the testes:
a. Varicocele
b. Hydrocele
c. Hypospadias
d. Herpes genitalis
e. Testicular torsion
a. Varicocele
Treating tissue with cold temperatures is called:
a. Aspiration
b. Purulent
c. Ejaculation
d. Curettage
e. Cryogenic surgery
e. Cryogenic surgery
Part of the brain responsible for coordinating muscle movements and maintaining balance:
a. Pons
b. Cerebrum
c. Thalamus
d. Hypothalamus
e. Cerebellum
e. Cerebellum
Pertaining to muscles and nerves:
a. Myoneural
b. Neuroanastomosis
c. Myelogram
d. Meningomyelocele
e. Polyneuritis
a. Myoneural
Burning sensation of pain:
a. Analgesia
b. Cephalgia
c. Anesthesia
d. Causalgia
e. Dysesthesia
d. Causalgia
A network of interlacing nerve fibers in the peripheral nervous system:
a. Microglia
b. Astrocyte
c. Plexus
d. Synapse
e. Receptor
c. Plexus
Portion of the brain that controls the pituitary gland, water balance, and body temperature:
a. Medulla oblongata
b. Cauda equina
c. Cerebellum
d. Thalamus
e. Hypothalamus
e. Hypothalamus
Space between nerve cells is called the:
a. Subdural space
b. Subarachnoid space
c. Ventricle
d. Synapse
e. Stimulus
d. Synapse
Part of the brain that controls breathing, heartbeat, and the size of blood vessels:
a. Cerebellum
b. Pons
c. Cauda equina
d. Medulla oblongata
e. Thalamus
d. Medulla oblongata
Inability to speak:
a. Apraxia
b. Dysplasia
c. Aphasia
d. Aphagia
e. Ataxia
c. Aphasia
Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord:
a. Gyrus
b. Dendrites
c. Cauda equina
d. Microglia
e. Oligodendroglia
c. Cauda equina
Abnormal sensation of tingling or prickling:
a. Anesthesia
b. Paresthesia
c. Analgesia
d. Neurasthenia
e. Hyperkinesis
b. Paresthesia
Inflammation of a spinal nerve root:
a. Encephalitis
b. Meningitis
c. Blepharitis
d. Radiculitis
e. Polyneuritis
d. Radiculitis
Paralysis of four extremities:
a. Hemiparesis
b. Hemiplegia
c. Paraplegia
d. Quadriplegia
e. Apraxia
d. Quadriplegia
Fainting:
a. Shingles
b. Hypesthesia
c. Ataxia
d. Syncope
e. Palsy
d. Syncope
Parkinson’s disease is characterized by:
a. Shuffling gait
b. Cerebellar ataxia
c. Bell’s palsy
d. Herpes zoster infection
e. Narcolepsy
a. Shuffling gait
Disorder of reading, writing, and learning is:
a. Epilepsy
b. Apraxia
c. Bradykinesis
d. Neurasthenia
e. Dyslexia
e. Dyslexia
Condition of no nervous sensation:
a. Analgesia
b. Anencephaly
c. Anesthesia
d. Huntington’s disease
e. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Anesthesia
Contraction phase of the heartbeat:
a. Septum
b. Diastole
c. Tachycardia
d. Systole
e. Pacemaker
d. Systole
Saclike membrane surrounding the heart:
a. Endocardium
b. Bundle of His
c. Interatrial septum
d. Ventricle
e. Pericardium
e. Pericardium
Sensitive tissue in the right atrium wall that begins the heartbeat:
a. Tricuspid valve
b. Atrioventricular node
c. Bundle of His
d. Epicardium
e. Sinoatrial node
e. Sinoatrial node
Disease of heart muscle:
a. Cardiomegaly
b. Endocarditis
c. Arteriolitis
d. Cardiomyopathy
e. Aortic stenosis
d. Cardiomyopathy
Phlebitis:
a. Narrowing of a valve with inflammation
b. Inflammation of a capillary
c. Blockage of a heart valve
d. Inflammation of a vein
e. Narrowing of an artery
d. Inflammation of a vein
Instrument to measure blood pressure:
a. Sphygmomanometer
b. Electrocardiogram
c. Stress test
d. Stethoscope
e. Cardiac catheterization
a. Sphygmomanometer
A local widening of an artery:
a. Thrombosis
b. Infarction
c. Arterial anastomosis
d. Aortic stenosis
e. Aneurysm
e. Aneurysm
Cyanosis:
a. Bluish coloration of the skin
b. Yellow coloration of the skin
c. Associated with a hemangioma
d. A form of atherosclerosis
e. Associated with increased oxygen in the blood
a. Bluish coloration of the skin
Ischemia:
a. Can lead to myocardial infarction
b. Blood is held back from an area
c. Can be caused by thrombotic occlusion of a blood vessel]
d. May be a result of coronary artery disease
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
Cardiac arrhythmia:
a. Calcium channel blocker
b. Beta-blocker
c. Fibrillation
d. Hypoxia
e. Atheroma
c. Fibrillation
Petechiae:
a. Small, pinpoint hemorrhages
b. Vegetations
c. Dilation of large vessels
d. Defects, or holes in heart septa
e. Hemorrhoids
a. Small, pinpoint hemorrhages
Patent means:
a. Deoxygenated
b. Oxygenated
c. Open
d. Closed
e. Half closed
c. Open
CK, LD, and AST (SGOT) are:
a. Lipids
b. Lipoproteins
c. Serum enzymes
d. Fatty acids
e. Nitrate-like drugs
c. Serum enzymes
Incision of a vein:
a. Phebotomy
b. Phlebitis
c. Phlebotomy
d. Vasoconstriction
e. Ventriculotomy
c. Phlebotomy
Removal of plaque from an artery:
a. Endarterectomy
b. Arteriography
c. Aneurysmectomy
d. Ventriculotomy
e. Valvuloplasty
a. Endarterectomy
A Holter monitor is:
a. An EEG test
b. A stress test
c. Part of a chest CT scan
d. An ECG taken during daily activity
e. Part of a cardiac catheterization
d. An ECG taken during daily activity
Tubes that bifurcate from the windpipe:
a. Alveoli
b. Bronchioles
c. Sinuses
d. Adenoids
e. Bronchi
e. Bronchi
Phren/o means:
a. Lung
b. Chest
c. Membrane around the lung
d. Air sac
e. Diaphragm
e. Diaphragm
Medical term for a condition of decreased oxygen in the blood:
a. Hematemesis
b. Paroxysmal
c. Hypoxemia
d. Hemorrhage
e. Hemoptysis
c. Hypoxemia
Breathing is easier in an upright position:
a. Dysphonia
b. Hemothorax
c. Dyspnea
d. Orthopnea
e. Anosmia
d. Orthopnea
Sharp, short blows to the surface of the chest:
a. Auscultation
b. Percussion
c. Stridor
d. Rales
e. Expectoration
b. Percussion
The “P” in DPT stands for:
a. Pneumonia
b. Pertussis
c. Pleurisy
d. Pneumothorax
e. Pulmonary
b. Pertussis
Difficult breathing:
a. Anosmia
b. Dyspnea
c. Dysphonia
d. Tachypnea
e. Hypoxia
b. Dyspnea
Bronchial airway obstruction marked by paroxysmal dyspnea, wheezing, and cough:
a. Pleurisy
b. Epistaxis
c. Cor pulmonale
d. Diphtheria
e. Asthma
e. Asthma
Material is expelled from the lungs:
a. Rhinorrhea
b. Bronchiolitis
c. Sinusitis
d. Expiration
e. Expectoration
e. Expectoration
Tube is placed through the mouth to the trachea to establish an airway:
a. Endotracheal intubation
b. Tracheostomy
c. Tracheotomy
d. Thoracentesis
e. Laryngoscopy
a. Endotracheal intubation
Airway obstruction associated with emphysema and chronic bronchitis:
a. RDS
b. COPD
c. CPR
d. SOB
e. IPPB
b. COPD
Protein threads that form the basis of a clot:
a. Fibrinogen
b. Globulin
c. Hemoglobin
d. Thrombin
e. Fibrin
e. Fibrin
Method of separating out plasma proteins by electrical charge:
a. Plasmapheresis
b. Hemolysis
c. Electrophoresis
d. Coagulation time
e. Leukopheresis
c. Electrophoresis
Foreign material that invades the body:
a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
c. Antibodies
d. Antigens
e. Granulocytes
d. Antigens
Pigment produced from hemoglobin when red blood cells are destroyed:
a. Serum
b. Albumin
c. Globulin
d. Plasma
e. Bilirubin
e. Bilirubin
Anticoagulant found in the blood:
a. Heparin
b. Prothrombin
c. Thrombin
d. Gamma globulin
e. Vitamin B12
a. Heparin
Deficiency in numbers of white blood cells:
a. Neutropenia
b. Hypochromia
c. Leukocytosis
d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
e. Spherocytosis
a. Neutropenia
Immature red blood cell:
a. Thrombocyte
b. Monoblast
c. Segmented
d. Erythroblast
e. Megakaryoblast
d. Erythroblast
Derived from bone marrow:
a. Myeloid
b. Lymphoid
c. Granulocytopenic
d. Polymorphonuclear
e. Phagocytic
a. Myeloid
Breakdown of recipient’s red blood cells when incompatible bloods are mixed:
a. Erythrocytosis
b. Hemolysis
c. Embolism
d. Anticoagulation
e. Erythropoiesis
b. Hemolysis
Venous blood is clotted in a test tube:
a. Hematocrit
b. White blood cell differential
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Coagulation time
e. Red blood cell morphology
d. Coagulation time
Venous blood is collected; anti-coagulant added and the distance cells fall in a period of time is determined:
a. Hematocrit
b. White blood cell differential
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Coagulation time
e. Red blood cell morphology
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
All of the following are part of the immune system EXCEPT:
a. Lymphocytes
b. Platelets
c. Monocytes
d. Phagocytes
e. Antibodies
b. Platelets
Examples of immunoglobulins:
a. IgA, IgG, IgE
b. Monocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Hepatocytes
e. Clotting factors
a. IgA, IgG, IgE
Pertaining to poison:
a. Necrotic
b. Hypoxic
c. Cyanotic
d. Toxic
e. Stenotic
d. Toxic
Viral infection causing blisters on skin or lips, nose, or genitals:
a. Kaposi’s sarcoma
b. Herpes simplex
c. Cryptococcus
d. Toxoplasmosis
e. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
b. Herpes simplex
Spongy, porous bone tissue is also called:
a. Yellow bone marrow
b. Bone fissure
c. Compact bone
d. Bone sinus
e. Cancellous bone
e. Cancellous bone
An opening or passage in bones where blood vessels and nerves enter and leave is a:
a. Fissure
b. Sulcus
c. Tuberosity
d. Foramen
e. Fossa
d. Foramen
Mandible, vomer, maxilla, and zygomatic are all bones of the:
a. Face
b. Cranium
c. Spine
d. Pelvis
e. Thorax
a. Face
Lateral curvature of the spinal column:
a. Lordosis
b. Scoliosis
c. Kyphosis
d. Spina bifida
e. Pubic symphysis
a. Lordosis
Vitamin D deficiency leads to softening of bone, which is known as:
a. Osteomalacia
b. Lumbago
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Osteoporosis
e. Hypercalcemia
a. Osteomalacia
Pertaining to the upper arm bone:
a. Humeral
b. Tibial
c. Radial
d. Ulnar
e. Carpal
a. Humeral
Inflammation of bone and bone marrow:
a. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Osteomyelitis
d. Osteoporosis
e. Osteochondroma
c. Osteomyelitis
Clubfoot:
a. Exostosis
b. Osteogenic sarcoma
c. Bunion
d. Talipes
e. Bursitis
d. Talipes
A splintered or crushed bone:
a. Comminuted fracture
b. Greenstick fracture
c. Crepitation
d. Compression fracture
e. Impacted fracture
a. Comminuted fracture
Condition of stiffening and immobility of a joint:
a. Hemarthrosis
b. Fibrositis
c. Bursitis
d. Kyphosis
e. Ankylosis
e. Ankylosis
Wasting away (no development) of muscle:
a. Myasthenia
b. Myalgia
c. Hypertrophy
d. Atrophy
e. Myositis
d. Atrophy
Dermis:
a. Basal layer of skin
b. Middle layer of skin
c. Epithelial layer
d. Above the epidermis
e. Subcutaneous tissue
b. Middle layer of skin
Xer/o means:
a. Dry
b. Scaly
c. Thick
d. Yellow
e. White
a. Dry
Pertaining to under a nail:
a. Hypodermic
b. Hypoglossal
c. Epidermis
d. Subcutaneous
e. Subungual
e. Subungual
Absence of pigment in skin:
a. Erythroderma
b. Melanism
c. Xanthoderma
d. Dermatitis
e. Albinism
e. Albinism
Profuse sweating:
a. Anhidrosis
b. Diaphoresis
c. Hidradenitis
d. Seborrhea
e. Keratosis
b. Diaphoresis
Fatty mass within a sebaceous gland:
a. Steatoma
b. Lipoma
c. Pilosebaceous
d. Onychophagia
e. Verrucae
a. Steatoma
Itching:
a. Pruritis:
b. Petechiae
c. Alopecia
d. Purpura
e. Pruritus
e. Pruritus
Keloid:
a. Thickened scar
b. Leukoplakia
c. Comedo
d. Callus
e. Wart
a. Thickened scar
Bed sore; break in continuity of skin:
a. Leukoplakia
b. Psoriasis
c. Tinea
d. Decubitus ulcer
e. Scleroderma
d. Decubitus ulcer
Chronic recurrent dermatosis with silvery gray scales covering red patches in skin:
a. Leukoplakia
b. Psoriasis
c. Tinea
d. Decubitus ulcer
e. Scleroderma
b. Psoriasis
Connective tissue in the skin hardens:
a. Leukoplakia
b. Psoriasis
c. Tinea
d. Decubitus ulcer
e. Scleroderma
e. Scleroderma
What eye structure is transparent, biconvex, and focuses light on the retina:
a. Conjunctiva
b. Lens
c. Vitreous body
d. Aqueous humor
e. Sclera
b. Lens
Photosensitive receptor cells of the retina; make the perception of color possible:
a. Rods
b. Cones
c. Megakaryocyte
d. Optic disc
e. Optic chiasm
b. Cones
The combining form for cornea is:
a. Ocul/o
b. Opt/o
c. Scler/o
d. Choroid/o
e. Kerat/o
e. Kerat/o
The combining form for the ciliary body is:
a. Phak/o
b. Lacrim/o
c. Irid/o
d. Cycl/o
e. Dacry/o
d. Cycl/o
An eye inflammation commonly called “pinkeye” is”
a. Iritis
b. Conjunctivitis
c. Dacryoadenitis
d. Scleritis
e. Uveitis
b. Conjunctivitis
Impairment of vision due to old age:
a. Emmetropia
b. Diplopia
c. Esotropia
d. Presbyopia
e. Aniscoria
d. Presbyopia
Myopia:
a. Nearsightednes
b. Farsightedness
c. Astigmatism
d. Strabismus
e. Glaucoma
a. Nearsightednes
Astigmatism:
a. Localized purulent infection of the eye
b. Atrophy of the retina
c. Exotropia
d. Exotropia
e. Defective curvature of the cornea or lens
e. Defective curvature of the cornea or lens
A blind spot; area of depressed vision surrounded by an area of normal vision:
a. Nyctalopia
b. Exotropia
c. Scotoma
d. Esotropia
e. Strabismus
c. Scotoma
Macular degeneration produces:
a. Loss of central vision
b. Menianopia
c. Retinal detachment
d. Nystagmus
e. Cataracts
a. Loss of central vision
Small hard mass on the eyelid; formed from a sebaceous gland enlargement:
a. Scleral buckle
b. Blepharochalasis
c. Chalazion
d. Cataract
e. Steatoma
c. Chalazion
Snail-shaped, spirally wound tube in the inner ear is the:
a. Auricle
b. Cochlea
c. Auditory meatus
d. Utricle
e. Pinna
b. Cochlea
Channel between the middle ear and the nasopharynx:
a. Organ of Corti
b. Semicircular canal
c. Labyrinth
d. Eustachian tube
e. Oval window
d. Eustachian tube
Bacterial infection of the middle ear:
a. Serous otitis media
b. Cholesteatoma
c. Mastoiditis
d. Barotitis
e. Suppurative otitis media
e. Suppurative otitis media
Tinnitus:
a. Hearing loss occurring with old age
b. Dizziness associated with nausea and sensations of whirling motion
c. Ringing sound in ears
d. Dysphonia
e. Aural discharge
c. Ringing sound in ears
Visual examination of the ear:
a. Audiometry
b. Otoscopy
c. Tympanometry
d. Tuning for test
e. Ophthalmoscopy
b. Otoscopy
Nerve deafness occurring with aging:
a. Vertigo
b. Meniere disease
c. Acoustic neuroma
d. Presbycusis
e. Otopyorrhea
d. Presbycusis
Which is a function of the thyroid gland:
a. Secretes immunologic substances
b. Secretes thymosin
c. Secretes corticosteroids
d. Secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone
e. Secretes thyroxine
e. Secretes thyroxine
Which of the following secretes cortisol:
a. Testes
b. Ovaries
c. Adrenal medulla
d. Adrenal cortex
e. Pituitary gland
d. Adrenal cortex
Which is a hormone secreted by the pancreas:
a. Estrogen
b. Insulin
c. Vasopressin
d. Epinephrine
e. Glucose
b. Insulin
What is an example of an electrolyte:
a. Insulin
b. Sodium
c. Renin
d. Glucagon
e. Steroid
b. Sodium
Which is an element that is present in thyroxine:
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Vitamin D
d. Glucose
e. Iodine
e. Iodine
Which is a hormone secreted by the ovary and adrenal cortex:
a. Follicle-stimulating hormone
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Androgen
d. Estrogen
e. Oxytocin
d. Estrogen
Kal/i is a combining form for which substance:
a. Phosphorus
b. Sodium
c. Calcium
d. Milk
e. Potassium
e. Potassium
Insulin deficiency or resistance leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis:
a. Grave’s disease
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Acromegaly
e. Myxedema
b. Diabetes mellitus
Which term means enlargement of the thyroid gland:
a. Hypergonadism
b. Euthyroid
c. Goiter
d. Hypophyseal enlargement
e. Tetany
c. Goiter
Natr/o is the combining form for which substance:
a. Sugar
b. Milk
c. Sodium
d. Iodine
e. Potassium
c. Sodium
Characteristic of Type 1 diabetes mellitus:
a. Gradual onset; patient is asymptomatic
b. Ketoacidosis seldom occurs
c. Treatment is diet and oral hypoglycemic agents
d. Little or no insulin produced
e. Usually occurs after age 30
d. Little or no insulin produced
Which is a description of achondroplasia:
a. Enlargement of extremities
b. Defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth
c. Tumor of the sella turcica
d. Abnormal formation of cartilage in an adult
e. Hyperfunctioning of pituitary gland
b. Defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth
hyper-
above, excessive
peri-
surrounding
epi-
above, upon
trans-
through
hypo-
below, less than normal
dia-
complete, thorough
ante-
before, forward
anti-
against
ana-
up, apart, anew
brady-
slow
con-
together, with
contra-
against, opposite
bi-
two
ad-
toward
dys-
bad, painful, abnormal
eu-
good, normal
intra-
within, into
inter-
between
auto-
self, own
infra-
below, beneath
mal-
bad
poly-
many, increased
neo-
new
meta-
change, beyond
para-
near, beside
post-
after, behind
endo-
in, within
hemi-
half
macro-
large
pseudo-
false
-gram
record
-itis
inflammation
-opsy
view of
-oma
tumor, mass, fluid collection
-scopy
visual examination
-logy
study of
-cele
hernia
-coccus
berry-shaped bacterium
-centesis
surgical puncture to remove fluid
-genesis
producing, forming
