Review Questions Flashcards
(275 cards)
1
Q
Gastrectomy:
a. Gastric resection
b. Intestinal incision
c. Tumor of the stomach
d. Incision of the stomach
e. Resection of the intestine
A
a. Gastric resection
2
Q
Osteitis:
a. Incision of a bone
b. Removal of a bone
c. Incision of a joint
d. Inflammation of a joint
e. Inflammation of a bone
A
e. Inflammation of a bone
3
Q
Cystoscopy:
a. Study of cells
b. Visual examination of cells
c. Removal of a sac of fluid
d. Removal of the urinary bladder
e. Visual examination of the urinary bladder
A
e. Visual examination of the urinary bladder
4
Q
Electroencephalogram:
a. Record of electricity in the brain
b. Record of electricity in the heart
c. X-ray of the brain
d. Record of sound waves in the brain
e. X-ray of the heart and brain
A
a. Record of electricity in the brain
5
Q
Diagnosis:
a. Is made after the prognosis
b. Is a guess as to the patient’s condition
c. Is a prediction of the course of treatment
d. Is made on the basis of complete knowledge about the patient’s condition
e. Is a treatment of the patient
A
d. Is made on the basis of complete knowledge about the patient’s condition
6
Q
Microscopic examination of living tissue:
a. Incision
b. Pathology
c. Biopsy
d. Autopsy
e. Resection
A
c. Biopsy
7
Q
Removal of a gland:
a. Gastrotomy
b. Gastric
c. Hepatic resection
d. Nephric resection
e. Adenectomy
A
e. Adenectomy
8
Q
Decrease in numbers of red blood cells:
a. Anemia
b. Erythrocytosis
c. Thrombocytosis
d. Leukemia
e. Leukocytosis
A
a. Anemia
9
Q
Pathologist:
a. One who examines x-rays
b. One who operates on the urinary tract
c. One who performs autopsies and reads biopsies
d. One who operates on the kidney
e. One who treats diseases with chemicals
A
c. One who performs autopsies and reads biopsies
10
Q
Pain in a joint:
a. Ostealgia
b. Arthritis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Arthroalgia
e. Arthralgia
A
e. Arthralgia
11
Q
Instrument to view the eye:
a. Ophthalmoscopy
b. Opthalmoscope
c. Opthalmology
d. Ophthalmoscope
e. Opthalmoscopy
A
d. Ophthalmoscope
12
Q
Study of cells:
a. Pathology
b. Cytology
c. Cystology
d. Dermatology
e. Urology
A
b. Cytology
13
Q
Abnormal condition of the kidney:
a. Neurological
b. Neuralgia
c. Nephrotomy
d. Neural
e. Nephrosis
A
e. Nephrosis
14
Q
Muscular wall separating the abdominal and thoracic cavities:
a. Mediastinum
b. Diaphragm
c. Pleura
d. Pericardium
e. Peritoneum
A
b. Diaphragm
15
Q
The space on the chest between the lungs is the:
a. Peritoneum
b. Esophagus
c. Pleural cavity
d. Mediastinum
e. Retroperitoneal space
A
d. Mediastinum
16
Q
Adipose means pertaining to:
a. Cartilage
b. Bone
c. Fat
d. Skin
e. Nervous tissue
A
c. Fat
17
Q
Throat:
a. Trachea
b. Coccyx
c. Larynx
d. Esophagus
e. Pharynx
A
e. Pharynx
18
Q
Sarcoma:
a. Part of the backbone
b. Flesh tumor; benign
c. Malignant tumor of flesh tissue
d. Mass of blood
e. Skin tumor of epithelial cells
A
c. Malignant tumor of flesh tissue
19
Q
The pleural cavity is the:
a. Space within the abdomen
b. Space within the backbones
c. Space surrounding the hip
d. Space between the membranes around the lungs
e. Space within the skull
A
d. Space between the membranes around the lungs
20
Q
Structure in the trachea:
a. Bronchial tube
b. Pharynx
c. Esophagus
d. Larynx
e. Tongue
A
d. Larynx
21
Q
The tailbone is the:
a. Sacrum
b. Cervix
c. Ilium
d. Coccyx
e. Cranium
A
d. Coccyx
22
Q
Supine means:
a. Lying on the back
b. Conducting toward a structure
c. In front of the body
d. Lying on the belly
e. Pertaining to the side
A
a. Lying on the back
23
Q
Amniocentesis:
a. Incision of the abdomen
b. Paracentesis
c. Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen
d. Puncture of the chest region
e. Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the sac around the embryo
A
e. Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the sac around the embryo
24
Q
Blood is held back from an area:
a. Thrombocyte
b. Anemia
c. Ischemia
d. Hematoma
e. Hemolysis
A
c. Ischemia
25
Acromegaly:
a. Exocrine disorder of bone enlargement
b. Enlargement of extremities after puberty due to pituitary gland problem
c. Abnormal growth of bones before puberty
d. Endocrine gland problem in young children
e. Fear of extremities (heights)
b. Enlargement of extremities after puberty due to pituitary gland problem
26
Continuing over a long period of time:
a. Chronic
b. Acute
c. Chromic
d. Relapse
e. Remission
a. Chronic
27
Small artery is a (an):
a. Capillary
b. Arteriole
c. Venule
d. Lymph vessel
e. Blood vessel leading from the heart
b. Arteriole
28
Hernia of the urinary bladder:
a. Rectocele
b. Inguinal hernia
c. Hiatal hernia
d. Rectalgia
e. Cystocele
e. Cystocele
29
Tumor of bone marrow (cancerous)
a. Myosarcoma
b. Malignant myeloma
c. Osteogenic sarcoma
d. Adenocarcinoma
e. Metastasis
b. Malignant myeloma
30
X-ray record of the spinal cord:
a. Electroencephalogram
b. Bone scan
c. Myogram
d. Myelogram
e. Electromyogram
d. Myelogram
31
Instrument to record:
a. –gram
b. –scopy
c. –scope
d. –graph
e. –graphy
d. –graph
32
Removal of the voice box:
a. Larengectomy
b. Pharyngotomy
c. Pharynostomy
d. Laryngectomy
e. Trachectomy
d. Laryngectomy
33
Angioplasty means:
a. Pertaining to fat
b. Fear of extremities
c. Therapy with chemicals
d. Surgical puncture of a blood vessel
e. Surgical repair of a blood vessel
e. Surgical repair of a blood vessel
34
Excessive development:
a. Hydroplasia
b. Dystrophy
c. Achondroplasia
d. Morphology
e. Hypertrophy
e. Hypertrophy
35
Pertaining to between the ribs:
a. IntracOstal
b. Infracostal
c. Costochondral
d. Mediastinal
e. IntercostaL
e. IntercostaL
36
Protrusion of an eyeball:
a. Cystocele
b. Inguinal hernia
c. Exopthalmos
d. Ectopic
e. Exophthalmos
e. Exophthalmos
37
Symptoms precede an illness:
a. Apnea
b. Syndrome
c. Euphoria
d. Prodrome
e. Prognosis
d. Prodrome
38
Before meals:
a. Prenatal
b. Anti cibum
c. Postpartum
d. Antenatal
e. Ante cibum
e. Ante cibum
39
Antibodies:
a. Bacteria
b. Protein substances made by leukocytes
c. Phagocytes
d. Produced by erythrocytes to fight disease
e. Antibodies
b. Protein substances made by leukocytes
40
Ultrasonography:
a. X-ray recording of sound waves
b. Amniocentesis
c. Sound waves and echoes are used to create an image
d. Radioactvie material is injected and sound waves are recorded
e. Abdominal x-ray recording
c. Sound waves and echoes are used to create an image
41
Excessive sugar in blood:
a. Hypodermic
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Glycosuria
d. Hematuria
e. Hyperglycemia
e. Hyperglycemia
42
Return of disease symptoms:
a. Prolapse
b. Relapse
c. Syndrome
d. Prodrome
e. Remission
b. Relapse
43
Dia-:
a. Flow
b. Down, lack of
c. Complete, through
d. Against
e. Near
c. Complete, through
44
Abductor muscle:
a. Bending forward
b. Located proximally
c. Pertains to both sides
d. Carries a limb toward the body
e. Carries a limb away from the body
e. Carries a limb away from the body
45
Dyspnea:
a. Abnormal formation
b. Difficult breathing
c. Not able to sleep
d. Condition of lack of water
e. Not able to breathe
b. Difficult breathing
46
Brady-:
a. Fast
b. Bad
c. Short
d. Slow
e. Large
d. Slow
47
Tachycardia:
a. Bad, painful swallowing
b. Inability to swallow
c. Near the windpipe
d. Rapid breathing
e. Rapid heartbeat
e. Rapid heartbeat
48
Epithelium:
a. Surface cells that line internal organs and are found in the skin
b. Membrane surrounding bone
c. Connective tissue that binds muscles to bones
d. Adipose tissue
e. Above the stomach
a. Surface cells that line internal organs and are found in the skin
49
Percutaneous:
a. Within a vein
b. Through a vein
c. Through the skin
d. Surrounding cartilage
e. Surrounding a bone
c. Through the skin
50
Pertaining to the abdomen:
a. Gastric
b. Celiac
c. Colonic
d. Pelvic
e. Esophageal
b. Celiac
51
Muscular wave-like movement to transport food through the digestive system:
a. Mastication
b. Regurgitation
c. Emulsification
d. Peristalsis
e. Anastomosis
d. Peristalsis
52
High blood levels of a pigment released by the liver with bile:
a. Cholecystitis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hyperbilirubinemia
d. Hematoma
e. Steatorrhea
c. Hyperbilirubinemia
53
Carries bile into the duodenum:
a. Cystic duct
b. Portal vein
c. Lymph duct
d. Hepatic duct
e. Common bile duct
e. Common bile duct
54
Enzyme to digest starch:
a. Lipase
b. Amylase
c. Glucose
d. Bile
e. Amino acid
b. Amylase
55
Ring of muscles:
a. Uvula
b. Rugae
c. Papillae
d. Myoma
e. Sphincter
e. Sphincter
56
Stone in a salivary gland:
a. Lithiasis
b. Cholecystolithiasis
c. Adenolithiasis
d. Sialadenolithiasis
e. Renal calculus
d. Sialadenolithiasis
57
Membrane that connects parts of small intestine:
a. Anastomosis
b. Ileum
c. Mesentery
d. Appendix
e. Pylorus
c. Mesentery
58
Fats are improperly digested and appear in the feces:
a. Adipose
b. Steatorrhea
c. Lipase
d. Lipolysis
e. Glycogenolysis
b. Steatorrhea
59
Lack of appetite:
a. Anorexia
b. Aphthous stomatitis
c. Leukoplakia
d. Postprandial
e. Achlorhydria
a. Anorexia
60
Abnormal side pockets in a hollow organ, such as the intestine:
a. Caries
b. Ulcers
c. Dysentery
d. Diverticula
e. Ascites
d. Diverticula
61
Telescoping of the intestine:
a. Volvulus
b. Anal fistula
c. Intussusception
d. Ileus
e. Hiatal hernia
c. Intussusception
62
Difficulty in swallowing:
a. Regurgitation
b. Flatus
c. Nausea
d. Eructation
e. Dysphagia
e. Dysphagia
63
Spitting up blood from the respiratory tract and lungs:
a. Hyperemesis
b. Hematemesis
c. Hemorrhage
d. Hemoptysis
e. Hemolysis
d. Hemoptysis
64
Suture:
a. –rrhapy
b. –rrhagia
c. –ectasis
d. –stasis
e. –rrhaphy
e. –rrhaphy
65
New opening between two parts of the jejunum:
a. Jejunojejunostomy
b. Duodenostomy
c. Duodenojejunostomy
d. Jejunostomy
e. Jejunocecal anastomosis
a. Jejunojejunostomy
66
Pyloric stenosis:
a. Gastric ulcer
b. Narrowing of the opening between the stomach and intestine
c. Hiatal hernia
d. Cardiospasm
e. Achalasia
b. Narrowing of the opening between the stomach and intestine
67
Which test would tell the presence of melena:
a. Barium enema
b. Upper GI series
c. Stool culture
d. Stool guaiac
e. Abdominal ultrasonography
d. Stool guaiac
68
An ulcer would most likely be detected by which of the following tests:
a. Cholecystography
b. Serum hepatitis B surface antigen
c. Intravenous cholangiogram
d. Gastroscopy
e. Abdominal CT scan
d. Gastroscopy
69
Lipase is:
a. An enzyme that digests starch
b. An enzyme that digests protein
c. An enzyme that digests fat
d. A breakdown product of fat digestion
e. A hormone secreted by the pancreas
c. An enzyme that digests fat
70
Palatoplasty:
a. Surgical repair of the roof of the mouth
b. Overgrowth of gum tissue
c. Surgical repair of the tongue
d. Cleft palate
e. Prolapse of the palate
a. Surgical repair of the roof of the mouth
71
Which test is NOT a liver function test:
a. Serum bilirubin
b. ALP (alkaline phosphatase)
c. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
d. AST (SGOT)
e. ALT (SGPT)
c. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
72
Opposite of –ectasis:
a. –stenosis
b. –ptysis
c. –spasm
d. –stasis
e. –lysis
a. –stenosis
73
Flow, discharge:
a. –ptysis
b. –emesis
c. –rrhaphy
d. –rrhea
e. –phagia
d. –rrhea
74
Common bile duct:
a. Cholecyst/o
b. Celi/o
c. Cholelith/o
d. Choledoch/o
e. Cheil/o
d. Choledoch/o
75
Forward protrusion of the eye:
a. Oropharynx
b. Proptosis
c. Blepharoptosis
d. Pyorrhea
e. Heriorrhaphy
b. Proptosis
76
Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen:
a. Cholestasis
b. Dyspepsia
c. Hemostasis
d. Ascites
e. Paracentesis
e. Paracentesis
77
Twisting of part of the intestine upon itself:
a. Proctosigmoidoscopy
b. Cecal valvulus
c. Pyloric stenosis
d. Biliary atresia
e. Rectal stenosis
b. Cecal valvulus
78
Heavy menstrual discharge:
a. Menorrhea
b. Hemorrhage
c. Dysmenorrhea
d. Menorrhagia
e. Hematemesis
d. Menorrhagia
79
Visual examination of the abdomen:
a. Laparoscopy
b. Colonoscopy
c. Liver scan
d. Colectomy
e. Enterorrhaphy
a. Laparoscopy
80
Glomerular:
a. Pertaining to a tube leading from the kidney to the bladder
b. Pertaining to small balls of capillaries in the kidney
c. Pertaining to a tube in the bladder
d. Pertaining to a collecting chamber in the kidney
e. Pertaining to the urinary bladder
b. Pertaining to small balls of capillaries in the kidney
81
Electrolyte:
a. Bilirubin
b. Creatinine
c. Albumin
d. Sodium
e. Glucose
d. Sodium
82
Nitrogenous waste:
a. Creatinine
b. Fatty acid
c. Lipid
d. Carbon dioxide
e. Sugar
a. Creatinine
83
Renal pelvis:
a. nephr/o
b. cyst/o
c. ren/o
d. py/o
e. pyel/o
e. pyel/o
84
A term that means no urine production is:
a. Diuresis
b. Anuria
c. Voiding
d. Micturition
e. Nocturia
b. Anuria
85
X-ray of the urinary tract:
a. Renal ultrasonography
b. KUB
c. BUN
d. Cystoscopy
e. Renal dialysis
b. KUB
86
Oliguria:
a. Nocturia
b. Polyuria
c. Scanty urination
d. Bacteriuria
e. Pus in the urine
c. Scanty urination
87
Diabetes insipidus is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:
a. Polydipsia
b. Glycosuria
c. Polyuria
d. Pituitary gland malfunction
e. Insufficient ADH
b. Glycosuria
88
Artificial kidney machine:
a. Renal biopsy
b. CAPD
c. Lithotripsy
d. Hemodialysis
e. Renal transplantation
d. Hemodialysis
89
Nephrolithotomy:
a. Hardening of a stone
b. Removal of the urinary bladder and kidney stones
c. Removal of the kidney and stones
d. Bladder calculi
e. Incision to remove a renal calculus
e. Incision to remove a renal calculus
90
Protein in the urine:
a. Ketonuria
b. Acetonuria
c. Hyperbilirubinemia
d. Bilirubinuria
e. Albuminuria
e. Albuminuria
91
Alkaline:
a. Acidic
b. pH
c. Basic
d. Acetone
e. Water
c. Basic
92
High levels of ketones in the blood can lead to:
a. High pH of urine
b. Acidosis
c. Excessive elimination of fats
d. Diabetes insipidus
e. Low specific gravity
b. Acidosis
93
Urine is held in the bladder:
a. Urinary incontinence
b. Pyuria
c. Polyuria
d. Nocturia
e. Urinary retention
e. Urinary retention
94
Test that measures the amount of urea in the blood:
a. IVP
b. RP
c. BUN
d. VCU
e. Creatinine clearance test
c. BUN
95
The ovum is the:
a. Female gonad
b. Female gamete
c. Embryo
d. Fertilized egg cell
e. Fetus
b. Female gamete
96
Part of the vulva:
a. Uterine cervix
b. Fallopian tubes
c. Labia majora
d. Ovaries
e. All of the above
c. Labia majora
97
Ovarian sac:
a. Endometrium
b. Corpus luteum
c. Amnion
d. Chorion
e. Placenta
b. Corpus luteum
98
Incision of the perineum during childbirth:
a. Episiotomy
b. Colpotomy
c. Perineoplasty
d. Laparotomy
e. Perineorrhaphy
a. Episiotomy
99
Fingerlike ends of the fallopian tubes are called:
a. Ligaments
b. Papilae
c. Cysts
d. Fimbriae
e. Labia
d. Fimbriae
100
The study and treatment of newborns is called:
a. Obstetrics
b. Neonatology
c. Gynecology
d. Pediatrics
e. Endocrinology
b. Neonatology
101
Sac containing the egg is the:
a. Corpus luteum
b. Ovarian cyst
c. Amnion
d. Graafian follicle
e. Placenta
d. Graafian follicle
102
Hormones produced by an endocrine gland located below the brain:
a. HCG
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
e. Erythropoietin
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
103
Removal of the fallopian tubes and ovaries:
a. Total hysterectomy
b. Conization
c. Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
d. Salpingectomy
e. Partial hysterectomy
c. Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
104
Premature separation of placenta:
a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Placenta previa
c. Abruptio placentae
d. Pseudocyesis
e. Dyspareunia
c. Abruptio placentae
105
A woman who has had 3 miscarriages and 2 live births:
a. Grav. 3, para 2
b. Grav. 5, para 2
c. Grav. 2, para 3
d. Grav. 5, para 3
e. Grav. 2, para 5
b. Grav. 5, para 2
106
Physician’s effort to turn the fetus during delivery:
a. Involution
b. Retroflexion
c. Retroversion
d. Cephalic version
e. Presentation
d. Cephalic version
107
Gynecomastia:
a. Occurs after lactation in females
b. Abnormal development of breast tissue in males
c. Abnormal discharge of milk from the breast
d. Abnormal condition of pregnancy
e. Lumpectomy and chemotherapy are treatments
b. Abnormal development of breast tissue in males
108
Painful labor and delivery:
a. Dystocia
b. Eutocia
c. Dyspareunia
d. Eclampsia
e. Endometriosis
a. Dystocia
109
Menarche:
a. Last menstrual period
b. First menstrual period
c. Absence of menstruation
d. Painfull menstruation
e. Frequent menstrual periods
b. First menstrual period
110
Pieces of inner lining of the uterus are ectopic:
a. Endocervicitis
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Endometriosis
d. Cystadenocarcinoma
e. Fibrocystic disease of the breast
c. Endometriosis
111
The male gonad:
a. Sperm cell
b. Scrotum
c. Testis
d. Penis
e. Epididymis
c. Testis
112
Tissue that produces sperm cells:
a. Seminiferous tubules
b. Endometrium
c. Urethra
d. Ureters
e. Interstitial
a. Seminiferous tubules
113
Hair-like tail region of the sperm is called:
a. Cilia
b. Sperm head
c. Flagellum
d. Fimbriae
e. Calyx
c. Flagellum
114
Foreskin:
a. Perineum
b. Phimosis
c. Prepuce
d. Glans penis
e. Scrotum
c. Prepuce
115
Male castration would result from which of the following operations:
a. Bilateral orchiectomy
b. TURP
c. Vasectomy
d. Bilateral oophorectomy
e. Unilateral orchidectomy
a. Bilateral orchiectomy
116
Inflammation of the glans penis:
a. Orchitis
b. Hydrocele
c. Varicocele
d. Balanitis
e. Epididymitis
d. Balanitis
117
A chancre is the primary lesion in which of the following conditions:
a. Pelvic inflammatory disease
b. Genital herpes
c. Non-gonococcal urethritis
d. Gonorrhea
e. Syphilis
e. Syphilis
118
Testosterone is produced by:
a. Interstitial cells of the testes
b. Prostate gland
c. Cowper glands
d. Seminiferous tubules
e. Seminal vesicles
a. Interstitial cells of the testes
119
Undescended testicles:
a. Anorchism
b. Phimosis
c. Epispadias
d. Cryptorchism
e. Orchiotomy
d. Cryptorchism
120
Sterilization procedure:
a. Vasectomy
b. Circumcision
c. Orchiotomy
d. TURP
e. Left orchiectomy
a. Vasectomy
121
The sac containing the male gonad:
a. Perineum
b. Peritoneum
c. Epididymis
d. Scrotum
e. Seminal vesicle
d. Scrotum
122
Congenital absence of a testicle:
a. Azoospermia
b. Cryptorchism
c. Aspermia
d. Oligospermia
e. Anorchism
e. Anorchism
123
A spermolytic substance:
a. Produces sperm cells
b. Destroys sperm cells
c. Is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia
d. Increases potency
e. Is produced by the testes
b. Destroys sperm cells
124
Orchiopexy:
a. Removal of a testicle
b. Incision and removal of a piece of the vas deferens
c. Fixation of an undescended testicle
d. Removal of the prepuce
e. Prolapse of a testicle
c. Fixation of an undescended testicle
125
Swollen, twisted veins near the testes:
a. Varicocele
b. Hydrocele
c. Hypospadias
d. Herpes genitalis
e. Testicular torsion
a. Varicocele
126
Treating tissue with cold temperatures is called:
a. Aspiration
b. Purulent
c. Ejaculation
d. Curettage
e. Cryogenic surgery
e. Cryogenic surgery
127
Part of the brain responsible for coordinating muscle movements and maintaining balance:
a. Pons
b. Cerebrum
c. Thalamus
d. Hypothalamus
e. Cerebellum
e. Cerebellum
128
Pertaining to muscles and nerves:
a. Myoneural
b. Neuroanastomosis
c. Myelogram
d. Meningomyelocele
e. Polyneuritis
a. Myoneural
129
Burning sensation of pain:
a. Analgesia
b. Cephalgia
c. Anesthesia
d. Causalgia
e. Dysesthesia
d. Causalgia
130
A network of interlacing nerve fibers in the peripheral nervous system:
a. Microglia
b. Astrocyte
c. Plexus
d. Synapse
e. Receptor
c. Plexus
131
Portion of the brain that controls the pituitary gland, water balance, and body temperature:
a. Medulla oblongata
b. Cauda equina
c. Cerebellum
d. Thalamus
e. Hypothalamus
e. Hypothalamus
132
Space between nerve cells is called the:
a. Subdural space
b. Subarachnoid space
c. Ventricle
d. Synapse
e. Stimulus
d. Synapse
133
Part of the brain that controls breathing, heartbeat, and the size of blood vessels:
a. Cerebellum
b. Pons
c. Cauda equina
d. Medulla oblongata
e. Thalamus
d. Medulla oblongata
134
Inability to speak:
a. Apraxia
b. Dysplasia
c. Aphasia
d. Aphagia
e. Ataxia
c. Aphasia
135
Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord:
a. Gyrus
b. Dendrites
c. Cauda equina
d. Microglia
e. Oligodendroglia
c. Cauda equina
136
Abnormal sensation of tingling or prickling:
a. Anesthesia
b. Paresthesia
c. Analgesia
d. Neurasthenia
e. Hyperkinesis
b. Paresthesia
137
Inflammation of a spinal nerve root:
a. Encephalitis
b. Meningitis
c. Blepharitis
d. Radiculitis
e. Polyneuritis
d. Radiculitis
138
Paralysis of four extremities:
a. Hemiparesis
b. Hemiplegia
c. Paraplegia
d. Quadriplegia
e. Apraxia
d. Quadriplegia
139
Fainting:
a. Shingles
b. Hypesthesia
c. Ataxia
d. Syncope
e. Palsy
d. Syncope
140
Parkinson’s disease is characterized by:
a. Shuffling gait
b. Cerebellar ataxia
c. Bell’s palsy
d. Herpes zoster infection
e. Narcolepsy
a. Shuffling gait
141
Disorder of reading, writing, and learning is:
a. Epilepsy
b. Apraxia
c. Bradykinesis
d. Neurasthenia
e. Dyslexia
e. Dyslexia
142
Condition of no nervous sensation:
a. Analgesia
b. Anencephaly
c. Anesthesia
d. Huntington’s disease
e. Alzheimer’s disease
c. Anesthesia
143
Contraction phase of the heartbeat:
a. Septum
b. Diastole
c. Tachycardia
d. Systole
e. Pacemaker
d. Systole
144
Saclike membrane surrounding the heart:
a. Endocardium
b. Bundle of His
c. Interatrial septum
d. Ventricle
e. Pericardium
e. Pericardium
145
Sensitive tissue in the right atrium wall that begins the heartbeat:
a. Tricuspid valve
b. Atrioventricular node
c. Bundle of His
d. Epicardium
e. Sinoatrial node
e. Sinoatrial node
146
Disease of heart muscle:
a. Cardiomegaly
b. Endocarditis
c. Arteriolitis
d. Cardiomyopathy
e. Aortic stenosis
d. Cardiomyopathy
147
Phlebitis:
a. Narrowing of a valve with inflammation
b. Inflammation of a capillary
c. Blockage of a heart valve
d. Inflammation of a vein
e. Narrowing of an artery
d. Inflammation of a vein
148
Instrument to measure blood pressure:
a. Sphygmomanometer
b. Electrocardiogram
c. Stress test
d. Stethoscope
e. Cardiac catheterization
a. Sphygmomanometer
149
A local widening of an artery:
a. Thrombosis
b. Infarction
c. Arterial anastomosis
d. Aortic stenosis
e. Aneurysm
e. Aneurysm
150
Cyanosis:
a. Bluish coloration of the skin
b. Yellow coloration of the skin
c. Associated with a hemangioma
d. A form of atherosclerosis
e. Associated with increased oxygen in the blood
a. Bluish coloration of the skin
151
Ischemia:
a. Can lead to myocardial infarction
b. Blood is held back from an area
c. Can be caused by thrombotic occlusion of a blood vessel]
d. May be a result of coronary artery disease
e. All of the above
e. All of the above
152
Cardiac arrhythmia:
a. Calcium channel blocker
b. Beta-blocker
c. Fibrillation
d. Hypoxia
e. Atheroma
c. Fibrillation
153
Petechiae:
a. Small, pinpoint hemorrhages
b. Vegetations
c. Dilation of large vessels
d. Defects, or holes in heart septa
e. Hemorrhoids
a. Small, pinpoint hemorrhages
154
Patent means:
a. Deoxygenated
b. Oxygenated
c. Open
d. Closed
e. Half closed
c. Open
155
CK, LD, and AST (SGOT) are:
a. Lipids
b. Lipoproteins
c. Serum enzymes
d. Fatty acids
e. Nitrate-like drugs
c. Serum enzymes
156
Incision of a vein:
a. Phebotomy
b. Phlebitis
c. Phlebotomy
d. Vasoconstriction
e. Ventriculotomy
c. Phlebotomy
157
Removal of plaque from an artery:
a. Endarterectomy
b. Arteriography
c. Aneurysmectomy
d. Ventriculotomy
e. Valvuloplasty
a. Endarterectomy
158
A Holter monitor is:
a. An EEG test
b. A stress test
c. Part of a chest CT scan
d. An ECG taken during daily activity
e. Part of a cardiac catheterization
d. An ECG taken during daily activity
159
Tubes that bifurcate from the windpipe:
a. Alveoli
b. Bronchioles
c. Sinuses
d. Adenoids
e. Bronchi
e. Bronchi
160
Phren/o means:
a. Lung
b. Chest
c. Membrane around the lung
d. Air sac
e. Diaphragm
e. Diaphragm
161
Medical term for a condition of decreased oxygen in the blood:
a. Hematemesis
b. Paroxysmal
c. Hypoxemia
d. Hemorrhage
e. Hemoptysis
c. Hypoxemia
162
Breathing is easier in an upright position:
a. Dysphonia
b. Hemothorax
c. Dyspnea
d. Orthopnea
e. Anosmia
d. Orthopnea
163
Sharp, short blows to the surface of the chest:
a. Auscultation
b. Percussion
c. Stridor
d. Rales
e. Expectoration
b. Percussion
164
The “P” in DPT stands for:
a. Pneumonia
b. Pertussis
c. Pleurisy
d. Pneumothorax
e. Pulmonary
b. Pertussis
165
Difficult breathing:
a. Anosmia
b. Dyspnea
c. Dysphonia
d. Tachypnea
e. Hypoxia
b. Dyspnea
166
Bronchial airway obstruction marked by paroxysmal dyspnea, wheezing, and cough:
a. Pleurisy
b. Epistaxis
c. Cor pulmonale
d. Diphtheria
e. Asthma
e. Asthma
167
Material is expelled from the lungs:
a. Rhinorrhea
b. Bronchiolitis
c. Sinusitis
d. Expiration
e. Expectoration
e. Expectoration
168
Tube is placed through the mouth to the trachea to establish an airway:
a. Endotracheal intubation
b. Tracheostomy
c. Tracheotomy
d. Thoracentesis
e. Laryngoscopy
a. Endotracheal intubation
169
Airway obstruction associated with emphysema and chronic bronchitis:
a. RDS
b. COPD
c. CPR
d. SOB
e. IPPB
b. COPD
170
Protein threads that form the basis of a clot:
a. Fibrinogen
b. Globulin
c. Hemoglobin
d. Thrombin
e. Fibrin
e. Fibrin
171
Method of separating out plasma proteins by electrical charge:
a. Plasmapheresis
b. Hemolysis
c. Electrophoresis
d. Coagulation time
e. Leukopheresis
c. Electrophoresis
172
Foreign material that invades the body:
a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
c. Antibodies
d. Antigens
e. Granulocytes
d. Antigens
173
Pigment produced from hemoglobin when red blood cells are destroyed:
a. Serum
b. Albumin
c. Globulin
d. Plasma
e. Bilirubin
e. Bilirubin
174
Anticoagulant found in the blood:
a. Heparin
b. Prothrombin
c. Thrombin
d. Gamma globulin
e. Vitamin B12
a. Heparin
175
Deficiency in numbers of white blood cells:
a. Neutropenia
b. Hypochromia
c. Leukocytosis
d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
e. Spherocytosis
a. Neutropenia
176
Immature red blood cell:
a. Thrombocyte
b. Monoblast
c. Segmented
d. Erythroblast
e. Megakaryoblast
d. Erythroblast
177
Derived from bone marrow:
a. Myeloid
b. Lymphoid
c. Granulocytopenic
d. Polymorphonuclear
e. Phagocytic
a. Myeloid
178
Breakdown of recipient’s red blood cells when incompatible bloods are mixed:
a. Erythrocytosis
b. Hemolysis
c. Embolism
d. Anticoagulation
e. Erythropoiesis
b. Hemolysis
179
Venous blood is clotted in a test tube:
a. Hematocrit
b. White blood cell differential
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Coagulation time
e. Red blood cell morphology
d. Coagulation time
180
Venous blood is collected; anti-coagulant added and the distance cells fall in a period of time is determined:
a. Hematocrit
b. White blood cell differential
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Coagulation time
e. Red blood cell morphology
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
181
All of the following are part of the immune system EXCEPT:
a. Lymphocytes
b. Platelets
c. Monocytes
d. Phagocytes
e. Antibodies
b. Platelets
182
Examples of immunoglobulins:
a. IgA, IgG, IgE
b. Monocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Hepatocytes
e. Clotting factors
a. IgA, IgG, IgE
183
Pertaining to poison:
a. Necrotic
b. Hypoxic
c. Cyanotic
d. Toxic
e. Stenotic
d. Toxic
184
Viral infection causing blisters on skin or lips, nose, or genitals:
a. Kaposi’s sarcoma
b. Herpes simplex
c. Cryptococcus
d. Toxoplasmosis
e. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
b. Herpes simplex
185
Spongy, porous bone tissue is also called:
a. Yellow bone marrow
b. Bone fissure
c. Compact bone
d. Bone sinus
e. Cancellous bone
e. Cancellous bone
186
An opening or passage in bones where blood vessels and nerves enter and leave is a:
a. Fissure
b. Sulcus
c. Tuberosity
d. Foramen
e. Fossa
d. Foramen
187
Mandible, vomer, maxilla, and zygomatic are all bones of the:
a. Face
b. Cranium
c. Spine
d. Pelvis
e. Thorax
a. Face
188
Lateral curvature of the spinal column:
a. Lordosis
b. Scoliosis
c. Kyphosis
d. Spina bifida
e. Pubic symphysis
a. Lordosis
189
Vitamin D deficiency leads to softening of bone, which is known as:
a. Osteomalacia
b. Lumbago
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Osteoporosis
e. Hypercalcemia
a. Osteomalacia
190
Pertaining to the upper arm bone:
a. Humeral
b. Tibial
c. Radial
d. Ulnar
e. Carpal
a. Humeral
191
Inflammation of bone and bone marrow:
a. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Osteomyelitis
d. Osteoporosis
e. Osteochondroma
c. Osteomyelitis
192
Clubfoot:
a. Exostosis
b. Osteogenic sarcoma
c. Bunion
d. Talipes
e. Bursitis
d. Talipes
193
A splintered or crushed bone:
a. Comminuted fracture
b. Greenstick fracture
c. Crepitation
d. Compression fracture
e. Impacted fracture
a. Comminuted fracture
194
Condition of stiffening and immobility of a joint:
a. Hemarthrosis
b. Fibrositis
c. Bursitis
d. Kyphosis
e. Ankylosis
e. Ankylosis
195
Wasting away (no development) of muscle:
a. Myasthenia
b. Myalgia
c. Hypertrophy
d. Atrophy
e. Myositis
d. Atrophy
196
Dermis:
a. Basal layer of skin
b. Middle layer of skin
c. Epithelial layer
d. Above the epidermis
e. Subcutaneous tissue
b. Middle layer of skin
197
Xer/o means:
a. Dry
b. Scaly
c. Thick
d. Yellow
e. White
a. Dry
198
Pertaining to under a nail:
a. Hypodermic
b. Hypoglossal
c. Epidermis
d. Subcutaneous
e. Subungual
e. Subungual
199
Absence of pigment in skin:
a. Erythroderma
b. Melanism
c. Xanthoderma
d. Dermatitis
e. Albinism
e. Albinism
200
Profuse sweating:
a. Anhidrosis
b. Diaphoresis
c. Hidradenitis
d. Seborrhea
e. Keratosis
b. Diaphoresis
201
Fatty mass within a sebaceous gland:
a. Steatoma
b. Lipoma
c. Pilosebaceous
d. Onychophagia
e. Verrucae
a. Steatoma
202
Itching:
a. Pruritis:
b. Petechiae
c. Alopecia
d. Purpura
e. Pruritus
e. Pruritus
203
Keloid:
a. Thickened scar
b. Leukoplakia
c. Comedo
d. Callus
e. Wart
a. Thickened scar
204
Bed sore; break in continuity of skin:
a. Leukoplakia
b. Psoriasis
c. Tinea
d. Decubitus ulcer
e. Scleroderma
d. Decubitus ulcer
205
Chronic recurrent dermatosis with silvery gray scales covering red patches in skin:
a. Leukoplakia
b. Psoriasis
c. Tinea
d. Decubitus ulcer
e. Scleroderma
b. Psoriasis
206
Connective tissue in the skin hardens:
a. Leukoplakia
b. Psoriasis
c. Tinea
d. Decubitus ulcer
e. Scleroderma
e. Scleroderma
207
What eye structure is transparent, biconvex, and focuses light on the retina:
a. Conjunctiva
b. Lens
c. Vitreous body
d. Aqueous humor
e. Sclera
b. Lens
208
Photosensitive receptor cells of the retina; make the perception of color possible:
a. Rods
b. Cones
c. Megakaryocyte
d. Optic disc
e. Optic chiasm
b. Cones
209
The combining form for cornea is:
a. Ocul/o
b. Opt/o
c. Scler/o
d. Choroid/o
e. Kerat/o
e. Kerat/o
210
The combining form for the ciliary body is:
a. Phak/o
b. Lacrim/o
c. Irid/o
d. Cycl/o
e. Dacry/o
d. Cycl/o
211
An eye inflammation commonly called “pinkeye” is”
a. Iritis
b. Conjunctivitis
c. Dacryoadenitis
d. Scleritis
e. Uveitis
b. Conjunctivitis
212
Impairment of vision due to old age:
a. Emmetropia
b. Diplopia
c. Esotropia
d. Presbyopia
e. Aniscoria
d. Presbyopia
213
Myopia:
a. Nearsightednes
b. Farsightedness
c. Astigmatism
d. Strabismus
e. Glaucoma
a. Nearsightednes
214
Astigmatism:
a. Localized purulent infection of the eye
b. Atrophy of the retina
c. Exotropia
d. Exotropia
e. Defective curvature of the cornea or lens
e. Defective curvature of the cornea or lens
215
A blind spot; area of depressed vision surrounded by an area of normal vision:
a. Nyctalopia
b. Exotropia
c. Scotoma
d. Esotropia
e. Strabismus
c. Scotoma
216
Macular degeneration produces:
a. Loss of central vision
b. Menianopia
c. Retinal detachment
d. Nystagmus
e. Cataracts
a. Loss of central vision
217
Small hard mass on the eyelid; formed from a sebaceous gland enlargement:
a. Scleral buckle
b. Blepharochalasis
c. Chalazion
d. Cataract
e. Steatoma
c. Chalazion
218
Snail-shaped, spirally wound tube in the inner ear is the:
a. Auricle
b. Cochlea
c. Auditory meatus
d. Utricle
e. Pinna
b. Cochlea
219
Channel between the middle ear and the nasopharynx:
a. Organ of Corti
b. Semicircular canal
c. Labyrinth
d. Eustachian tube
e. Oval window
d. Eustachian tube
220
Bacterial infection of the middle ear:
a. Serous otitis media
b. Cholesteatoma
c. Mastoiditis
d. Barotitis
e. Suppurative otitis media
e. Suppurative otitis media
221
Tinnitus:
a. Hearing loss occurring with old age
b. Dizziness associated with nausea and sensations of whirling motion
c. Ringing sound in ears
d. Dysphonia
e. Aural discharge
c. Ringing sound in ears
222
Visual examination of the ear:
a. Audiometry
b. Otoscopy
c. Tympanometry
d. Tuning for test
e. Ophthalmoscopy
b. Otoscopy
223
Nerve deafness occurring with aging:
a. Vertigo
b. Meniere disease
c. Acoustic neuroma
d. Presbycusis
e. Otopyorrhea
d. Presbycusis
224
Which is a function of the thyroid gland:
a. Secretes immunologic substances
b. Secretes thymosin
c. Secretes corticosteroids
d. Secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone
e. Secretes thyroxine
e. Secretes thyroxine
225
Which of the following secretes cortisol:
a. Testes
b. Ovaries
c. Adrenal medulla
d. Adrenal cortex
e. Pituitary gland
d. Adrenal cortex
226
Which is a hormone secreted by the pancreas:
a. Estrogen
b. Insulin
c. Vasopressin
d. Epinephrine
e. Glucose
b. Insulin
227
What is an example of an electrolyte:
a. Insulin
b. Sodium
c. Renin
d. Glucagon
e. Steroid
b. Sodium
228
Which is an element that is present in thyroxine:
a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Vitamin D
d. Glucose
e. Iodine
e. Iodine
229
Which is a hormone secreted by the ovary and adrenal cortex:
a. Follicle-stimulating hormone
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Androgen
d. Estrogen
e. Oxytocin
d. Estrogen
230
Kal/i is a combining form for which substance:
a. Phosphorus
b. Sodium
c. Calcium
d. Milk
e. Potassium
e. Potassium
231
Insulin deficiency or resistance leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis:
a. Grave’s disease
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Acromegaly
e. Myxedema
b. Diabetes mellitus
232
Which term means enlargement of the thyroid gland:
a. Hypergonadism
b. Euthyroid
c. Goiter
d. Hypophyseal enlargement
e. Tetany
c. Goiter
233
Natr/o is the combining form for which substance:
a. Sugar
b. Milk
c. Sodium
d. Iodine
e. Potassium
c. Sodium
234
Characteristic of Type 1 diabetes mellitus:
a. Gradual onset; patient is asymptomatic
b. Ketoacidosis seldom occurs
c. Treatment is diet and oral hypoglycemic agents
d. Little or no insulin produced
e. Usually occurs after age 30
d. Little or no insulin produced
235
Which is a description of achondroplasia:
a. Enlargement of extremities
b. Defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth
c. Tumor of the sella turcica
d. Abnormal formation of cartilage in an adult
e. Hyperfunctioning of pituitary gland
b. Defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth
236
hyper-
above, excessive
237
peri-
surrounding
238
epi-
above, upon
239
trans-
through
240
hypo-
below, less than normal
241
dia-
complete, thorough
242
ante-
before, forward
243
anti-
against
244
ana-
up, apart, anew
245
brady-
slow
246
con-
together, with
247
contra-
against, opposite
248
bi-
two
249
ad-
toward
250
dys-
bad, painful, abnormal
251
eu-
good, normal
252
intra-
within, into
253
inter-
between
254
auto-
self, own
255
infra-
below, beneath
256
mal-
bad
257
poly-
many, increased
258
neo-
new
259
meta-
change, beyond
260
para-
near, beside
261
post-
after, behind
262
endo-
in, within
263
hemi-
half
264
macro-
large
265
pseudo-
false
266
-gram
record
267
-itis
inflammation
268
-opsy
view of
269
-oma
tumor, mass, fluid collection
270
-scopy
visual examination
271
-logy
study of
272
-cele
hernia
273
-coccus
berry-shaped bacterium
274
-centesis
surgical puncture to remove fluid
275
-genesis
producing, forming
