Review Questions

Question 1

Gastrectomy:

a. Gastric resection
b. Intestinal incision
c. Tumor of the stomach
d. Incision of the stomach
e. Resection of the intestine

Answer 1

a. Gastric resection

Question 2

Osteitis:

a. Incision of a bone
b. Removal of a bone
c. Incision of a joint
d. Inflammation of a joint
e. Inflammation of a bone

Answer 2

e. Inflammation of a bone

Question 3

Cystoscopy:

a. Study of cells
b. Visual examination of cells
c. Removal of a sac of fluid
d. Removal of the urinary bladder
e. Visual examination of the urinary bladder

Answer 3

e. Visual examination of the urinary bladder

Question 4

Electroencephalogram:

a. Record of electricity in the brain
b. Record of electricity in the heart
c. X-ray of the brain
d. Record of sound waves in the brain
e. X-ray of the heart and brain

Answer 4

a. Record of electricity in the brain

Question 5

Diagnosis:

a. Is made after the prognosis
b. Is a guess as to the patient’s condition
c. Is a prediction of the course of treatment
d. Is made on the basis of complete knowledge about the patient’s condition
e. Is a treatment of the patient

Answer 5

d. Is made on the basis of complete knowledge about the patient’s condition

Question 6

Microscopic examination of living tissue:

a. Incision
b. Pathology
c. Biopsy
d. Autopsy
e. Resection

Answer 6

c. Biopsy

Question 7

Removal of a gland:

a. Gastrotomy
b. Gastric
c. Hepatic resection
d. Nephric resection
e. Adenectomy

Answer 7

e. Adenectomy

Question 8

Decrease in numbers of red blood cells:

a. Anemia
b. Erythrocytosis
c. Thrombocytosis
d. Leukemia
e. Leukocytosis

Answer 8

a. Anemia

Question 9

Pathologist:

a. One who examines x-rays
b. One who operates on the urinary tract
c. One who performs autopsies and reads biopsies
d. One who operates on the kidney
e. One who treats diseases with chemicals

Answer 9

c. One who performs autopsies and reads biopsies

Question 10

Pain in a joint:

a. Ostealgia
b. Arthritis
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Arthroalgia
e. Arthralgia

Answer 10

e. Arthralgia

Question 11

Instrument to view the eye:

a. Ophthalmoscopy
b. Opthalmoscope
c. Opthalmology
d. Ophthalmoscope
e. Opthalmoscopy

Answer 11

d. Ophthalmoscope

Question 12

Study of cells:

a. Pathology
b. Cytology
c. Cystology
d. Dermatology
e. Urology

Answer 12

b. Cytology

Question 13

Abnormal condition of the kidney:

a. Neurological
b. Neuralgia
c. Nephrotomy
d. Neural
e. Nephrosis

Answer 13

e. Nephrosis

Question 14

Muscular wall separating the abdominal and thoracic cavities:

a. Mediastinum
b. Diaphragm
c. Pleura
d. Pericardium
e. Peritoneum

Answer 14

b. Diaphragm

Question 15

The space on the chest between the lungs is the:

a. Peritoneum
b. Esophagus
c. Pleural cavity
d. Mediastinum
e. Retroperitoneal space

Answer 15

d. Mediastinum

Question 16

Adipose means pertaining to:

a. Cartilage
b. Bone
c. Fat
d. Skin
e. Nervous tissue

Answer 16

c. Fat

Question 17

Throat:

a. Trachea
b. Coccyx
c. Larynx
d. Esophagus
e. Pharynx

Answer 17

e. Pharynx

Question 18

Sarcoma:

a. Part of the backbone
b. Flesh tumor; benign
c. Malignant tumor of flesh tissue
d. Mass of blood
e. Skin tumor of epithelial cells

Answer 18

c. Malignant tumor of flesh tissue

Question 19

The pleural cavity is the:

a. Space within the abdomen
b. Space within the backbones
c. Space surrounding the hip
d. Space between the membranes around the lungs
e. Space within the skull

Answer 19

d. Space between the membranes around the lungs

Question 20

Structure in the trachea:

a. Bronchial tube
b. Pharynx
c. Esophagus
d. Larynx
e. Tongue

Answer 20

d. Larynx

Question 21

The tailbone is the:

a. Sacrum
b. Cervix
c. Ilium
d. Coccyx
e. Cranium

Answer 21

d. Coccyx

Question 22

Supine means:

a. Lying on the back
b. Conducting toward a structure
c. In front of the body
d. Lying on the belly
e. Pertaining to the side

Answer 22

a. Lying on the back

Question 23

Amniocentesis:

a. Incision of the abdomen
b. Paracentesis
c. Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen
d. Puncture of the chest region
e. Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the sac around the embryo

Answer 23

e. Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the sac around the embryo

Question 24

Blood is held back from an area:

a. Thrombocyte
b. Anemia
c. Ischemia
d. Hematoma
e. Hemolysis

Answer 24

c. Ischemia

Question 25

Acromegaly:

a. Exocrine disorder of bone enlargement
b. Enlargement of extremities after puberty due to pituitary gland problem
c. Abnormal growth of bones before puberty
d. Endocrine gland problem in young children
e. Fear of extremities (heights)

Answer 25

b. Enlargement of extremities after puberty due to pituitary gland problem

Question 26

Continuing over a long period of time:

a. Chronic
b. Acute
c. Chromic
d. Relapse
e. Remission

Answer 26

a. Chronic

Question 27

Small artery is a (an):

a. Capillary
b. Arteriole
c. Venule
d. Lymph vessel
e. Blood vessel leading from the heart

Answer 27

b. Arteriole

Question 28

Hernia of the urinary bladder:

a. Rectocele
b. Inguinal hernia
c. Hiatal hernia
d. Rectalgia
e. Cystocele

Answer 28

e. Cystocele

Question 29

Tumor of bone marrow (cancerous)

a. Myosarcoma
b. Malignant myeloma
c. Osteogenic sarcoma
d. Adenocarcinoma
e. Metastasis

Answer 29

b. Malignant myeloma

Question 30

X-ray record of the spinal cord:

a. Electroencephalogram
b. Bone scan
c. Myogram
d. Myelogram
e. Electromyogram

Answer 30

d. Myelogram

Question 31

Instrument to record:

a. –gram
b. –scopy
c. –scope
d. –graph
e. –graphy

Answer 31

d. –graph

Question 32

Removal of the voice box:

a. Larengectomy
b. Pharyngotomy
c. Pharynostomy
d. Laryngectomy
e. Trachectomy

Answer 32

d. Laryngectomy

Question 33

Angioplasty means:

a. Pertaining to fat
b. Fear of extremities
c. Therapy with chemicals
d. Surgical puncture of a blood vessel
e. Surgical repair of a blood vessel

Answer 33

e. Surgical repair of a blood vessel

Question 34

Excessive development:

a. Hydroplasia
b. Dystrophy
c. Achondroplasia
d. Morphology
e. Hypertrophy

Answer 34

e. Hypertrophy

Question 35

Pertaining to between the ribs:

a. IntracOstal
b. Infracostal
c. Costochondral
d. Mediastinal
e. IntercostaL

Answer 35

e. IntercostaL

Question 36

Protrusion of an eyeball:

a. Cystocele
b. Inguinal hernia
c. Exopthalmos
d. Ectopic
e. Exophthalmos

Answer 36

e. Exophthalmos

Question 37

Symptoms precede an illness:

a. Apnea
b. Syndrome
c. Euphoria
d. Prodrome
e. Prognosis

Answer 37

d. Prodrome

Question 38

Before meals:

a. Prenatal
b. Anti cibum
c. Postpartum
d. Antenatal
e. Ante cibum

Answer 38

e. Ante cibum

Question 39

Antibodies:

a. Bacteria
b. Protein substances made by leukocytes
c. Phagocytes
d. Produced by erythrocytes to fight disease
e. Antibodies

Answer 39

b. Protein substances made by leukocytes

Question 40

Ultrasonography:

a. X-ray recording of sound waves
b. Amniocentesis
c. Sound waves and echoes are used to create an image
d. Radioactvie material is injected and sound waves are recorded
e. Abdominal x-ray recording

Answer 40

c. Sound waves and echoes are used to create an image

Question 41

Excessive sugar in blood:

a. Hypodermic
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Glycosuria
d. Hematuria
e. Hyperglycemia

Answer 41

e. Hyperglycemia

Question 42

Return of disease symptoms:

a. Prolapse
b. Relapse
c. Syndrome
d. Prodrome
e. Remission

Answer 42

b. Relapse

Question 43

Dia-:

a. Flow
b. Down, lack of
c. Complete, through
d. Against
e. Near

Answer 43

c. Complete, through

Question 44

Abductor muscle:

a. Bending forward
b. Located proximally
c. Pertains to both sides
d. Carries a limb toward the body
e. Carries a limb away from the body

Answer 44

e. Carries a limb away from the body

Question 45

Dyspnea:

a. Abnormal formation
b. Difficult breathing
c. Not able to sleep
d. Condition of lack of water
e. Not able to breathe

Answer 45

b. Difficult breathing

Question 46

Brady-:

a. Fast
b. Bad
c. Short
d. Slow
e. Large

Answer 46

d. Slow

Question 47

Tachycardia:

a. Bad, painful swallowing
b. Inability to swallow
c. Near the windpipe
d. Rapid breathing
e. Rapid heartbeat

Answer 47

e. Rapid heartbeat

Question 48

Epithelium:

a. Surface cells that line internal organs and are found in the skin
b. Membrane surrounding bone
c. Connective tissue that binds muscles to bones
d. Adipose tissue
e. Above the stomach

Answer 48

a. Surface cells that line internal organs and are found in the skin

Question 49

Percutaneous:

a. Within a vein
b. Through a vein
c. Through the skin
d. Surrounding cartilage
e. Surrounding a bone

Answer 49

c. Through the skin

Question 50

Pertaining to the abdomen:

a. Gastric
b. Celiac
c. Colonic
d. Pelvic
e. Esophageal

Answer 50

b. Celiac

Question 51

Muscular wave-like movement to transport food through the digestive system:

a. Mastication
b. Regurgitation
c. Emulsification
d. Peristalsis
e. Anastomosis

Answer 51

d. Peristalsis

Question 52

High blood levels of a pigment released by the liver with bile:

a. Cholecystitis
b. Hypoglycemia
c. Hyperbilirubinemia
d. Hematoma
e. Steatorrhea

Answer 52

c. Hyperbilirubinemia

Question 53

Carries bile into the duodenum:

a. Cystic duct
b. Portal vein
c. Lymph duct
d. Hepatic duct
e. Common bile duct

Answer 53

e. Common bile duct

Question 54

Enzyme to digest starch:

a. Lipase
b. Amylase
c. Glucose
d. Bile
e. Amino acid

Answer 54

b. Amylase

Question 55

Ring of muscles:

a. Uvula
b. Rugae
c. Papillae
d. Myoma
e. Sphincter

Answer 55

e. Sphincter

Question 56

Stone in a salivary gland:

a. Lithiasis
b. Cholecystolithiasis
c. Adenolithiasis
d. Sialadenolithiasis
e. Renal calculus

Answer 56

d. Sialadenolithiasis

Question 57

Membrane that connects parts of small intestine:

a. Anastomosis
b. Ileum
c. Mesentery
d. Appendix
e. Pylorus

Answer 57

c. Mesentery

Question 58

Fats are improperly digested and appear in the feces:

a. Adipose
b. Steatorrhea
c. Lipase
d. Lipolysis
e. Glycogenolysis

Answer 58

b. Steatorrhea

Question 59

Lack of appetite:

a. Anorexia
b. Aphthous stomatitis
c. Leukoplakia
d. Postprandial
e. Achlorhydria

Answer 59

a. Anorexia

Question 60

Abnormal side pockets in a hollow organ, such as the intestine:

a. Caries
b. Ulcers
c. Dysentery
d. Diverticula
e. Ascites

Answer 60

d. Diverticula

Question 61

Telescoping of the intestine:

a. Volvulus
b. Anal fistula
c. Intussusception
d. Ileus
e. Hiatal hernia

Answer 61

c. Intussusception

Question 62

Difficulty in swallowing:

a. Regurgitation
b. Flatus
c. Nausea
d. Eructation
e. Dysphagia

Answer 62

e. Dysphagia

Question 63

Spitting up blood from the respiratory tract and lungs:

a. Hyperemesis
b. Hematemesis
c. Hemorrhage
d. Hemoptysis
e. Hemolysis

Answer 63

d. Hemoptysis

Question 64

Suture:

a. –rrhapy
b. –rrhagia
c. –ectasis
d. –stasis
e. –rrhaphy

Answer 64

e. –rrhaphy

Question 65

New opening between two parts of the jejunum:

a. Jejunojejunostomy
b. Duodenostomy
c. Duodenojejunostomy
d. Jejunostomy
e. Jejunocecal anastomosis

Answer 65

a. Jejunojejunostomy

Question 66

Pyloric stenosis:

a. Gastric ulcer
b. Narrowing of the opening between the stomach and intestine
c. Hiatal hernia
d. Cardiospasm
e. Achalasia

Answer 66

b. Narrowing of the opening between the stomach and intestine

Question 67

Which test would tell the presence of melena:

a. Barium enema
b. Upper GI series
c. Stool culture
d. Stool guaiac
e. Abdominal ultrasonography

Answer 67

d. Stool guaiac

Question 68

An ulcer would most likely be detected by which of the following tests:

a. Cholecystography
b. Serum hepatitis B surface antigen
c. Intravenous cholangiogram
d. Gastroscopy
e. Abdominal CT scan

Answer 68

d. Gastroscopy

Question 69

Lipase is:

a. An enzyme that digests starch
b. An enzyme that digests protein
c. An enzyme that digests fat
d. A breakdown product of fat digestion
e. A hormone secreted by the pancreas

Answer 69

c. An enzyme that digests fat

Question 70

Palatoplasty:

a. Surgical repair of the roof of the mouth
b. Overgrowth of gum tissue
c. Surgical repair of the tongue
d. Cleft palate
e. Prolapse of the palate

Answer 70

a. Surgical repair of the roof of the mouth

Question 71

Which test is NOT a liver function test:

a. Serum bilirubin
b. ALP (alkaline phosphatase)
c. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)
d. AST (SGOT)
e. ALT (SGPT)

Answer 71

c. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP)

Question 72

Opposite of –ectasis:

a. –stenosis
b. –ptysis
c. –spasm
d. –stasis
e. –lysis

Answer 72

a. –stenosis

Question 73

Flow, discharge:

a. –ptysis
b. –emesis
c. –rrhaphy
d. –rrhea
e. –phagia

Answer 73

d. –rrhea

Question 74

Common bile duct:

a. Cholecyst/o
b. Celi/o
c. Cholelith/o
d. Choledoch/o
e. Cheil/o

Answer 74

d. Choledoch/o

Question 75

Forward protrusion of the eye:

a. Oropharynx
b. Proptosis
c. Blepharoptosis
d. Pyorrhea
e. Heriorrhaphy

Answer 75

b. Proptosis

Question 76

Surgical puncture to remove fluid from the abdomen:

a. Cholestasis
b. Dyspepsia
c. Hemostasis
d. Ascites
e. Paracentesis

Answer 76

e. Paracentesis

Question 77

Twisting of part of the intestine upon itself:

a. Proctosigmoidoscopy
b. Cecal valvulus
c. Pyloric stenosis
d. Biliary atresia
e. Rectal stenosis

Answer 77

b. Cecal valvulus

Question 78

Heavy menstrual discharge:

a. Menorrhea
b. Hemorrhage
c. Dysmenorrhea
d. Menorrhagia
e. Hematemesis

Answer 78

d. Menorrhagia

Question 79

Visual examination of the abdomen:

a. Laparoscopy
b. Colonoscopy
c. Liver scan
d. Colectomy
e. Enterorrhaphy

Answer 79

a. Laparoscopy

Question 80

Glomerular:

a. Pertaining to a tube leading from the kidney to the bladder
b. Pertaining to small balls of capillaries in the kidney
c. Pertaining to a tube in the bladder
d. Pertaining to a collecting chamber in the kidney
e. Pertaining to the urinary bladder

Answer 80

b. Pertaining to small balls of capillaries in the kidney

Question 81

Electrolyte:

a. Bilirubin
b. Creatinine
c. Albumin
d. Sodium
e. Glucose

Answer 81

d. Sodium

Question 82

Nitrogenous waste:

a. Creatinine
b. Fatty acid
c. Lipid
d. Carbon dioxide
e. Sugar

Answer 82

a. Creatinine

Question 83

Renal pelvis:

a. nephr/o
b. cyst/o
c. ren/o
d. py/o
e. pyel/o

Answer 83

e. pyel/o

Question 84

A term that means no urine production is:

a. Diuresis
b. Anuria
c. Voiding
d. Micturition
e. Nocturia

Answer 84

b. Anuria

Question 85

X-ray of the urinary tract:

a. Renal ultrasonography
b. KUB
c. BUN
d. Cystoscopy
e. Renal dialysis

Answer 85

b. KUB

Question 86

Oliguria:

a. Nocturia
b. Polyuria
c. Scanty urination
d. Bacteriuria
e. Pus in the urine

Answer 86

c. Scanty urination

Question 87

Diabetes insipidus is characterized by all of the following EXCEPT:

a. Polydipsia
b. Glycosuria
c. Polyuria
d. Pituitary gland malfunction
e. Insufficient ADH

Answer 87

b. Glycosuria

Question 88

Artificial kidney machine:

a. Renal biopsy
b. CAPD
c. Lithotripsy
d. Hemodialysis
e. Renal transplantation

Answer 88

d. Hemodialysis

Question 89

Nephrolithotomy:

a. Hardening of a stone
b. Removal of the urinary bladder and kidney stones
c. Removal of the kidney and stones
d. Bladder calculi
e. Incision to remove a renal calculus

Answer 89

e. Incision to remove a renal calculus

Question 90

Protein in the urine:

a. Ketonuria
b. Acetonuria
c. Hyperbilirubinemia
d. Bilirubinuria
e. Albuminuria

Answer 90

e. Albuminuria

Question 91

Alkaline:

a. Acidic
b. pH
c. Basic
d. Acetone
e. Water

Answer 91

c. Basic

Question 92

High levels of ketones in the blood can lead to:

a. High pH of urine
b. Acidosis
c. Excessive elimination of fats
d. Diabetes insipidus
e. Low specific gravity

Answer 92

b. Acidosis

Question 93

Urine is held in the bladder:

a. Urinary incontinence
b. Pyuria
c. Polyuria
d. Nocturia
e. Urinary retention

Answer 93

e. Urinary retention

Question 94

Test that measures the amount of urea in the blood:

a. IVP
b. RP
c. BUN
d. VCU
e. Creatinine clearance test

Answer 94

c. BUN

Question 95

The ovum is the:

a. Female gonad
b. Female gamete
c. Embryo
d. Fertilized egg cell
e. Fetus

Answer 95

b. Female gamete

Question 96

Part of the vulva:

a. Uterine cervix
b. Fallopian tubes
c. Labia majora
d. Ovaries
e. All of the above

Answer 96

c. Labia majora

Question 97

Ovarian sac:

a. Endometrium
b. Corpus luteum
c. Amnion
d. Chorion
e. Placenta

Answer 97

b. Corpus luteum

Question 98

Incision of the perineum during childbirth:

a. Episiotomy
b. Colpotomy
c. Perineoplasty
d. Laparotomy
e. Perineorrhaphy

Answer 98

a. Episiotomy

Question 99

Fingerlike ends of the fallopian tubes are called:

a. Ligaments
b. Papilae
c. Cysts
d. Fimbriae
e. Labia

Answer 99

d. Fimbriae

Question 100

The study and treatment of newborns is called:

a. Obstetrics
b. Neonatology
c. Gynecology
d. Pediatrics
e. Endocrinology

Answer 100

b. Neonatology

Question 101

Sac containing the egg is the:

a. Corpus luteum
b. Ovarian cyst
c. Amnion
d. Graafian follicle
e. Placenta

Answer 101

d. Graafian follicle

Question 102

Hormones produced by an endocrine gland located below the brain:

a. HCG
b. Progesterone
c. Estrogen
d. Follicle-stimulating hormone
e. Erythropoietin

Answer 102

d. Follicle-stimulating hormone

Question 103

Removal of the fallopian tubes and ovaries:

a. Total hysterectomy
b. Conization
c. Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy
d. Salpingectomy
e. Partial hysterectomy

Answer 103

c. Bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy

Question 104

Premature separation of placenta:

a. Ectopic pregnancy
b. Placenta previa
c. Abruptio placentae
d. Pseudocyesis
e. Dyspareunia

Answer 104

c. Abruptio placentae

Question 105

A woman who has had 3 miscarriages and 2 live births:

a. Grav. 3, para 2
b. Grav. 5, para 2
c. Grav. 2, para 3
d. Grav. 5, para 3
e. Grav. 2, para 5

Answer 105

b. Grav. 5, para 2

Question 106

Physician’s effort to turn the fetus during delivery:

a. Involution
b. Retroflexion
c. Retroversion
d. Cephalic version
e. Presentation

Answer 106

d. Cephalic version

Question 107

Gynecomastia:

a. Occurs after lactation in females
b. Abnormal development of breast tissue in males
c. Abnormal discharge of milk from the breast
d. Abnormal condition of pregnancy
e. Lumpectomy and chemotherapy are treatments

Answer 107

b. Abnormal development of breast tissue in males

Question 108

Painful labor and delivery:

a. Dystocia
b. Eutocia
c. Dyspareunia
d. Eclampsia
e. Endometriosis

Answer 108

a. Dystocia

Question 109

Menarche:

a. Last menstrual period
b. First menstrual period
c. Absence of menstruation
d. Painfull menstruation
e. Frequent menstrual periods

Answer 109

b. First menstrual period

Question 110

Pieces of inner lining of the uterus are ectopic:

a. Endocervicitis
b. Ectopic pregnancy
c. Endometriosis
d. Cystadenocarcinoma
e. Fibrocystic disease of the breast

Answer 110

c. Endometriosis

Question 111

The male gonad:

a. Sperm cell
b. Scrotum
c. Testis
d. Penis
e. Epididymis

Answer 111

c. Testis

Question 112

Tissue that produces sperm cells:

a. Seminiferous tubules
b. Endometrium
c. Urethra
d. Ureters
e. Interstitial

Answer 112

a. Seminiferous tubules

Question 113

Hair-like tail region of the sperm is called:

a. Cilia
b. Sperm head
c. Flagellum
d. Fimbriae
e. Calyx

Answer 113

c. Flagellum

Question 114

Foreskin:

a. Perineum
b. Phimosis
c. Prepuce
d. Glans penis
e. Scrotum

Answer 114

c. Prepuce

Question 115

Male castration would result from which of the following operations:

a. Bilateral orchiectomy
b. TURP
c. Vasectomy
d. Bilateral oophorectomy
e. Unilateral orchidectomy

Answer 115

a. Bilateral orchiectomy

Question 116

Inflammation of the glans penis:

a. Orchitis
b. Hydrocele
c. Varicocele
d. Balanitis
e. Epididymitis

Answer 116

d. Balanitis

Question 117

A chancre is the primary lesion in which of the following conditions:

a. Pelvic inflammatory disease
b. Genital herpes
c. Non-gonococcal urethritis
d. Gonorrhea
e. Syphilis

Answer 117

e. Syphilis

Question 118

Testosterone is produced by:

a. Interstitial cells of the testes
b. Prostate gland
c. Cowper glands
d. Seminiferous tubules
e. Seminal vesicles

Answer 118

a. Interstitial cells of the testes

Question 119

Undescended testicles:

a. Anorchism
b. Phimosis
c. Epispadias
d. Cryptorchism
e. Orchiotomy

Answer 119

d. Cryptorchism

Question 120

Sterilization procedure:

a. Vasectomy
b. Circumcision
c. Orchiotomy
d. TURP
e. Left orchiectomy

Answer 120

a. Vasectomy

Question 121

The sac containing the male gonad:

a. Perineum
b. Peritoneum
c. Epididymis
d. Scrotum
e. Seminal vesicle

Answer 121

d. Scrotum

Question 122

Congenital absence of a testicle:

a. Azoospermia
b. Cryptorchism
c. Aspermia
d. Oligospermia
e. Anorchism

Answer 122

e. Anorchism

Question 123

A spermolytic substance:

a. Produces sperm cells
b. Destroys sperm cells
c. Is used for benign prostatic hyperplasia
d. Increases potency
e. Is produced by the testes

Answer 123

b. Destroys sperm cells

Question 124

Orchiopexy:

a. Removal of a testicle
b. Incision and removal of a piece of the vas deferens
c. Fixation of an undescended testicle
d. Removal of the prepuce
e. Prolapse of a testicle

Answer 124

c. Fixation of an undescended testicle

Question 125

Swollen, twisted veins near the testes:

a. Varicocele
b. Hydrocele
c. Hypospadias
d. Herpes genitalis
e. Testicular torsion

Answer 125

a. Varicocele

Question 126

Treating tissue with cold temperatures is called:

a. Aspiration
b. Purulent
c. Ejaculation
d. Curettage
e. Cryogenic surgery

Answer 126

e. Cryogenic surgery

Question 127

Part of the brain responsible for coordinating muscle movements and maintaining balance:

a. Pons
b. Cerebrum
c. Thalamus
d. Hypothalamus
e. Cerebellum

Answer 127

e. Cerebellum

Question 128

Pertaining to muscles and nerves:

a. Myoneural
b. Neuroanastomosis
c. Myelogram
d. Meningomyelocele
e. Polyneuritis

Answer 128

a. Myoneural

Question 129

Burning sensation of pain:

a. Analgesia
b. Cephalgia
c. Anesthesia
d. Causalgia
e. Dysesthesia

Answer 129

d. Causalgia

Question 130

A network of interlacing nerve fibers in the peripheral nervous system:

a. Microglia
b. Astrocyte
c. Plexus
d. Synapse
e. Receptor

Answer 130

c. Plexus

Question 131

Portion of the brain that controls the pituitary gland, water balance, and body temperature:

a. Medulla oblongata
b. Cauda equina
c. Cerebellum
d. Thalamus
e. Hypothalamus

Answer 131

e. Hypothalamus

Question 132

Space between nerve cells is called the:

a. Subdural space
b. Subarachnoid space
c. Ventricle
d. Synapse
e. Stimulus

Answer 132

d. Synapse

Question 133

Part of the brain that controls breathing, heartbeat, and the size of blood vessels:

a. Cerebellum
b. Pons
c. Cauda equina
d. Medulla oblongata
e. Thalamus

Answer 133

d. Medulla oblongata

Question 134

Inability to speak:

a. Apraxia
b. Dysplasia
c. Aphasia
d. Aphagia
e. Ataxia

Answer 134

c. Aphasia

Question 135

Collection of spinal nerves below the end of the spinal cord:

a. Gyrus
b. Dendrites
c. Cauda equina
d. Microglia
e. Oligodendroglia

Answer 135

c. Cauda equina

Question 136

Abnormal sensation of tingling or prickling:

a. Anesthesia
b. Paresthesia
c. Analgesia
d. Neurasthenia
e. Hyperkinesis

Answer 136

b. Paresthesia

Question 137

Inflammation of a spinal nerve root:

a. Encephalitis
b. Meningitis
c. Blepharitis
d. Radiculitis
e. Polyneuritis

Answer 137

d. Radiculitis

Question 138

Paralysis of four extremities:

a. Hemiparesis
b. Hemiplegia
c. Paraplegia
d. Quadriplegia
e. Apraxia

Answer 138

d. Quadriplegia

Question 139

Fainting:

a. Shingles
b. Hypesthesia
c. Ataxia
d. Syncope
e. Palsy

Answer 139

d. Syncope

Question 140

Parkinson’s disease is characterized by:

a. Shuffling gait
b. Cerebellar ataxia
c. Bell’s palsy
d. Herpes zoster infection
e. Narcolepsy

Answer 140

a. Shuffling gait

Question 141

Disorder of reading, writing, and learning is:

a. Epilepsy
b. Apraxia
c. Bradykinesis
d. Neurasthenia
e. Dyslexia

Answer 141

e. Dyslexia

Question 142

Condition of no nervous sensation:

a. Analgesia
b. Anencephaly
c. Anesthesia
d. Huntington’s disease
e. Alzheimer’s disease

Answer 142

c. Anesthesia

Question 143

Contraction phase of the heartbeat:

a. Septum
b. Diastole
c. Tachycardia
d. Systole
e. Pacemaker

Answer 143

d. Systole

Question 144

Saclike membrane surrounding the heart:

a. Endocardium
b. Bundle of His
c. Interatrial septum
d. Ventricle
e. Pericardium

Answer 144

e. Pericardium

Question 145

Sensitive tissue in the right atrium wall that begins the heartbeat:

a. Tricuspid valve
b. Atrioventricular node
c. Bundle of His
d. Epicardium
e. Sinoatrial node

Answer 145

e. Sinoatrial node

Question 146

Disease of heart muscle:

a. Cardiomegaly
b. Endocarditis
c. Arteriolitis
d. Cardiomyopathy
e. Aortic stenosis

Answer 146

d. Cardiomyopathy

Question 147

Phlebitis:

a. Narrowing of a valve with inflammation
b. Inflammation of a capillary
c. Blockage of a heart valve
d. Inflammation of a vein
e. Narrowing of an artery

Answer 147

d. Inflammation of a vein

Question 148

Instrument to measure blood pressure:

a. Sphygmomanometer
b. Electrocardiogram
c. Stress test
d. Stethoscope
e. Cardiac catheterization

Answer 148

a. Sphygmomanometer

Question 149

A local widening of an artery:

a. Thrombosis
b. Infarction
c. Arterial anastomosis
d. Aortic stenosis
e. Aneurysm

Answer 149

e. Aneurysm

Question 150

Cyanosis:

a. Bluish coloration of the skin
b. Yellow coloration of the skin
c. Associated with a hemangioma
d. A form of atherosclerosis
e. Associated with increased oxygen in the blood

Answer 150

a. Bluish coloration of the skin

Question 151

Ischemia:

a. Can lead to myocardial infarction
b. Blood is held back from an area
c. Can be caused by thrombotic occlusion of a blood vessel]
d. May be a result of coronary artery disease
e. All of the above

Answer 151

e. All of the above

Question 152

Cardiac arrhythmia:

a. Calcium channel blocker
b. Beta-blocker
c. Fibrillation
d. Hypoxia
e. Atheroma

Answer 152

c. Fibrillation

Question 153

Petechiae:

a. Small, pinpoint hemorrhages
b. Vegetations
c. Dilation of large vessels
d. Defects, or holes in heart septa
e. Hemorrhoids

Answer 153

a. Small, pinpoint hemorrhages

Question 154

Patent means:

a. Deoxygenated
b. Oxygenated
c. Open
d. Closed
e. Half closed

Answer 154

c. Open

Question 155

CK, LD, and AST (SGOT) are:

a. Lipids
b. Lipoproteins
c. Serum enzymes
d. Fatty acids
e. Nitrate-like drugs

Answer 155

c. Serum enzymes

Question 156

Incision of a vein:

a. Phebotomy
b. Phlebitis
c. Phlebotomy
d. Vasoconstriction
e. Ventriculotomy

Answer 156

c. Phlebotomy

Question 157

Removal of plaque from an artery:

a. Endarterectomy
b. Arteriography
c. Aneurysmectomy
d. Ventriculotomy
e. Valvuloplasty

Answer 157

a. Endarterectomy

Question 158

A Holter monitor is:

a. An EEG test
b. A stress test
c. Part of a chest CT scan
d. An ECG taken during daily activity
e. Part of a cardiac catheterization

Answer 158

d. An ECG taken during daily activity

Question 159

Tubes that bifurcate from the windpipe:

a. Alveoli
b. Bronchioles
c. Sinuses
d. Adenoids
e. Bronchi

Answer 159

e. Bronchi

Question 160

Phren/o means:

a. Lung
b. Chest
c. Membrane around the lung
d. Air sac
e. Diaphragm

Answer 160

e. Diaphragm

Question 161

Medical term for a condition of decreased oxygen in the blood:

a. Hematemesis
b. Paroxysmal
c. Hypoxemia
d. Hemorrhage
e. Hemoptysis

Answer 161

c. Hypoxemia

Question 162

Breathing is easier in an upright position:

a. Dysphonia
b. Hemothorax
c. Dyspnea
d. Orthopnea
e. Anosmia

Answer 162

d. Orthopnea

Question 163

Sharp, short blows to the surface of the chest:

a. Auscultation
b. Percussion
c. Stridor
d. Rales
e. Expectoration

Answer 163

b. Percussion

Question 164

The “P” in DPT stands for:

a. Pneumonia
b. Pertussis
c. Pleurisy
d. Pneumothorax
e. Pulmonary

Answer 164

b. Pertussis

Question 165

Difficult breathing:

a. Anosmia
b. Dyspnea
c. Dysphonia
d. Tachypnea
e. Hypoxia

Answer 165

b. Dyspnea

Question 166

Bronchial airway obstruction marked by paroxysmal dyspnea, wheezing, and cough:

a. Pleurisy
b. Epistaxis
c. Cor pulmonale
d. Diphtheria
e. Asthma

Answer 166

e. Asthma

Question 167

Material is expelled from the lungs:

a. Rhinorrhea
b. Bronchiolitis
c. Sinusitis
d. Expiration
e. Expectoration

Answer 167

e. Expectoration

Question 168

Tube is placed through the mouth to the trachea to establish an airway:

a. Endotracheal intubation
b. Tracheostomy
c. Tracheotomy
d. Thoracentesis
e. Laryngoscopy

Answer 168

a. Endotracheal intubation

Question 169

Airway obstruction associated with emphysema and chronic bronchitis:

a. RDS
b. COPD
c. CPR
d. SOB
e. IPPB

Answer 169

b. COPD

Question 170

Protein threads that form the basis of a clot:

a. Fibrinogen
b. Globulin
c. Hemoglobin
d. Thrombin
e. Fibrin

Answer 170

e. Fibrin

Question 171

Method of separating out plasma proteins by electrical charge:

a. Plasmapheresis
b. Hemolysis
c. Electrophoresis
d. Coagulation time
e. Leukopheresis

Answer 171

c. Electrophoresis

Question 172

Foreign material that invades the body:

a. Neutrophils
b. Macrophages
c. Antibodies
d. Antigens
e. Granulocytes

Answer 172

d. Antigens

Question 173

Pigment produced from hemoglobin when red blood cells are destroyed:

a. Serum
b. Albumin
c. Globulin
d. Plasma
e. Bilirubin

Answer 173

e. Bilirubin

Question 174

Anticoagulant found in the blood:

a. Heparin
b. Prothrombin
c. Thrombin
d. Gamma globulin
e. Vitamin B12

Answer 174

a. Heparin

Question 175

Deficiency in numbers of white blood cells:

a. Neutropenia
b. Hypochromia
c. Leukocytosis
d. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
e. Spherocytosis

Answer 175

a. Neutropenia

Question 176

Immature red blood cell:

a. Thrombocyte
b. Monoblast
c. Segmented
d. Erythroblast
e. Megakaryoblast

Answer 176

d. Erythroblast

Question 177

Derived from bone marrow:

a. Myeloid
b. Lymphoid
c. Granulocytopenic
d. Polymorphonuclear
e. Phagocytic

Answer 177

a. Myeloid

Question 178

Breakdown of recipient’s red blood cells when incompatible bloods are mixed:

a. Erythrocytosis
b. Hemolysis
c. Embolism
d. Anticoagulation
e. Erythropoiesis

Answer 178

b. Hemolysis

Question 179

Venous blood is clotted in a test tube:

a. Hematocrit
b. White blood cell differential
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Coagulation time
e. Red blood cell morphology

Answer 179

d. Coagulation time

Question 180

Venous blood is collected; anti-coagulant added and the distance cells fall in a period of time is determined:

a. Hematocrit
b. White blood cell differential
c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
d. Coagulation time
e. Red blood cell morphology

Answer 180

c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate

Question 181

All of the following are part of the immune system EXCEPT:

a. Lymphocytes
b. Platelets
c. Monocytes
d. Phagocytes
e. Antibodies

Answer 181

b. Platelets

Question 182

Examples of immunoglobulins:

a. IgA, IgG, IgE
b. Monocytes
c. Lymphocytes
d. Hepatocytes
e. Clotting factors

Answer 182

a. IgA, IgG, IgE

Question 183

Pertaining to poison:

a. Necrotic
b. Hypoxic
c. Cyanotic
d. Toxic
e. Stenotic

Answer 183

d. Toxic

Question 184

Viral infection causing blisters on skin or lips, nose, or genitals:

a. Kaposi’s sarcoma
b. Herpes simplex
c. Cryptococcus
d. Toxoplasmosis
e. Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia

Answer 184

b. Herpes simplex

Question 185

Spongy, porous bone tissue is also called:

a. Yellow bone marrow
b. Bone fissure
c. Compact bone
d. Bone sinus
e. Cancellous bone

Answer 185

e. Cancellous bone

Question 186

An opening or passage in bones where blood vessels and nerves enter and leave is a:

a. Fissure
b. Sulcus
c. Tuberosity
d. Foramen
e. Fossa

Answer 186

d. Foramen

Question 187

Mandible, vomer, maxilla, and zygomatic are all bones of the:

a. Face
b. Cranium
c. Spine
d. Pelvis
e. Thorax

Answer 187

a. Face

Question 188

Lateral curvature of the spinal column:

a. Lordosis
b. Scoliosis
c. Kyphosis
d. Spina bifida
e. Pubic symphysis

Answer 188

a. Lordosis

Question 189

Vitamin D deficiency leads to softening of bone, which is known as:

a. Osteomalacia
b. Lumbago
c. Osteogenesis imperfecta
d. Osteoporosis
e. Hypercalcemia

Answer 189

a. Osteomalacia

Question 190

Pertaining to the upper arm bone:

a. Humeral
b. Tibial
c. Radial
d. Ulnar
e. Carpal

Answer 190

a. Humeral

Question 191

Inflammation of bone and bone marrow:

a. Osteitis fibrosa cystica
b. Multiple myeloma
c. Osteomyelitis
d. Osteoporosis
e. Osteochondroma

Answer 191

c. Osteomyelitis

Question 192

Clubfoot:

a. Exostosis
b. Osteogenic sarcoma
c. Bunion
d. Talipes
e. Bursitis

Answer 192

d. Talipes

Question 193

A splintered or crushed bone:

a. Comminuted fracture
b. Greenstick fracture
c. Crepitation
d. Compression fracture
e. Impacted fracture

Answer 193

a. Comminuted fracture

Question 194

Condition of stiffening and immobility of a joint:

a. Hemarthrosis
b. Fibrositis
c. Bursitis
d. Kyphosis
e. Ankylosis

Answer 194

e. Ankylosis

Question 195

Wasting away (no development) of muscle:

a. Myasthenia
b. Myalgia
c. Hypertrophy
d. Atrophy
e. Myositis

Answer 195

d. Atrophy

Question 196

Dermis:

a. Basal layer of skin
b. Middle layer of skin
c. Epithelial layer
d. Above the epidermis
e. Subcutaneous tissue

Answer 196

b. Middle layer of skin

Question 197

Xer/o means:

a. Dry
b. Scaly
c. Thick
d. Yellow
e. White

Answer 197

a. Dry

Question 198

Pertaining to under a nail:

a. Hypodermic
b. Hypoglossal
c. Epidermis
d. Subcutaneous
e. Subungual

Answer 198

e. Subungual

Question 199

Absence of pigment in skin:

a. Erythroderma
b. Melanism
c. Xanthoderma
d. Dermatitis
e. Albinism

Answer 199

e. Albinism

Question 200

Profuse sweating:

a. Anhidrosis
b. Diaphoresis
c. Hidradenitis
d. Seborrhea
e. Keratosis

Answer 200

b. Diaphoresis

Question 201

Fatty mass within a sebaceous gland:

a. Steatoma
b. Lipoma
c. Pilosebaceous
d. Onychophagia
e. Verrucae

Answer 201

a. Steatoma

Question 202

Itching:

a. Pruritis:
b. Petechiae
c. Alopecia
d. Purpura
e. Pruritus

Answer 202

e. Pruritus

Question 203

Keloid:

a. Thickened scar
b. Leukoplakia
c. Comedo
d. Callus
e. Wart

Answer 203

a. Thickened scar

Question 204

Bed sore; break in continuity of skin:

a. Leukoplakia
b. Psoriasis
c. Tinea
d. Decubitus ulcer
e. Scleroderma

Answer 204

d. Decubitus ulcer

Question 205

Chronic recurrent dermatosis with silvery gray scales covering red patches in skin:

a. Leukoplakia
b. Psoriasis
c. Tinea
d. Decubitus ulcer
e. Scleroderma

Answer 205

b. Psoriasis

Question 206

Connective tissue in the skin hardens:

a. Leukoplakia
b. Psoriasis
c. Tinea
d. Decubitus ulcer
e. Scleroderma

Answer 206

e. Scleroderma

Question 207

What eye structure is transparent, biconvex, and focuses light on the retina:

a. Conjunctiva
b. Lens
c. Vitreous body
d. Aqueous humor
e. Sclera

Answer 207

b. Lens

Question 208

Photosensitive receptor cells of the retina; make the perception of color possible:

a. Rods
b. Cones
c. Megakaryocyte
d. Optic disc
e. Optic chiasm

Answer 208

b. Cones

Question 209

The combining form for cornea is:

a. Ocul/o
b. Opt/o
c. Scler/o
d. Choroid/o
e. Kerat/o

Answer 209

e. Kerat/o

Question 210

The combining form for the ciliary body is:

a. Phak/o
b. Lacrim/o
c. Irid/o
d. Cycl/o
e. Dacry/o

Answer 210

d. Cycl/o

Question 211

An eye inflammation commonly called “pinkeye” is”

a. Iritis
b. Conjunctivitis
c. Dacryoadenitis
d. Scleritis
e. Uveitis

Answer 211

b. Conjunctivitis

Question 212

Impairment of vision due to old age:

a. Emmetropia
b. Diplopia
c. Esotropia
d. Presbyopia
e. Aniscoria

Answer 212

d. Presbyopia

Question 213

Myopia:

a. Nearsightednes
b. Farsightedness
c. Astigmatism
d. Strabismus
e. Glaucoma

Answer 213

a. Nearsightednes

Question 214

Astigmatism:

a. Localized purulent infection of the eye
b. Atrophy of the retina
c. Exotropia
d. Exotropia
e. Defective curvature of the cornea or lens

Answer 214

e. Defective curvature of the cornea or lens

Question 215

A blind spot; area of depressed vision surrounded by an area of normal vision:

a. Nyctalopia
b. Exotropia
c. Scotoma
d. Esotropia
e. Strabismus

Answer 215

c. Scotoma

Question 216

Macular degeneration produces:

a. Loss of central vision
b. Menianopia
c. Retinal detachment
d. Nystagmus
e. Cataracts

Answer 216

a. Loss of central vision

Question 217

Small hard mass on the eyelid; formed from a sebaceous gland enlargement:

a. Scleral buckle
b. Blepharochalasis
c. Chalazion
d. Cataract
e. Steatoma

Answer 217

c. Chalazion

Question 218

Snail-shaped, spirally wound tube in the inner ear is the:

a. Auricle
b. Cochlea
c. Auditory meatus
d. Utricle
e. Pinna

Answer 218

b. Cochlea

Question 219

Channel between the middle ear and the nasopharynx:

a. Organ of Corti
b. Semicircular canal
c. Labyrinth
d. Eustachian tube
e. Oval window

Answer 219

d. Eustachian tube

Question 220

Bacterial infection of the middle ear:

a. Serous otitis media
b. Cholesteatoma
c. Mastoiditis
d. Barotitis
e. Suppurative otitis media

Answer 220

e. Suppurative otitis media

Question 221

Tinnitus:

a. Hearing loss occurring with old age
b. Dizziness associated with nausea and sensations of whirling motion
c. Ringing sound in ears
d. Dysphonia
e. Aural discharge

Answer 221

c. Ringing sound in ears

Question 222

Visual examination of the ear:

a. Audiometry
b. Otoscopy
c. Tympanometry
d. Tuning for test
e. Ophthalmoscopy

Answer 222

b. Otoscopy

Question 223

Nerve deafness occurring with aging:

a. Vertigo
b. Meniere disease
c. Acoustic neuroma
d. Presbycusis
e. Otopyorrhea

Answer 223

d. Presbycusis

Question 224

Which is a function of the thyroid gland:

a. Secretes immunologic substances
b. Secretes thymosin
c. Secretes corticosteroids
d. Secretes thyroid-stimulating hormone
e. Secretes thyroxine

Answer 224

e. Secretes thyroxine

Question 225

Which of the following secretes cortisol:

a. Testes
b. Ovaries
c. Adrenal medulla
d. Adrenal cortex
e. Pituitary gland

Answer 225

d. Adrenal cortex

Question 226

Which is a hormone secreted by the pancreas:

a. Estrogen
b. Insulin
c. Vasopressin
d. Epinephrine
e. Glucose

Answer 226

b. Insulin

Question 227

What is an example of an electrolyte:

a. Insulin
b. Sodium
c. Renin
d. Glucagon
e. Steroid

Answer 227

b. Sodium

Question 228

Which is an element that is present in thyroxine:

a. Iron
b. Calcium
c. Vitamin D
d. Glucose
e. Iodine

Answer 228

e. Iodine

Question 229

Which is a hormone secreted by the ovary and adrenal cortex:

a. Follicle-stimulating hormone
b. Luteinizing hormone
c. Androgen
d. Estrogen
e. Oxytocin

Answer 229

d. Estrogen

Question 230

Kal/i is a combining form for which substance:

a. Phosphorus
b. Sodium
c. Calcium
d. Milk
e. Potassium

Answer 230

e. Potassium

Question 231

Insulin deficiency or resistance leads to hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis:

a. Grave’s disease
b. Diabetes mellitus
c. Cushing’s syndrome
d. Acromegaly
e. Myxedema

Answer 231

b. Diabetes mellitus

Question 232

Which term means enlargement of the thyroid gland:

a. Hypergonadism
b. Euthyroid
c. Goiter
d. Hypophyseal enlargement
e. Tetany

Answer 232

c. Goiter

Question 233

Natr/o is the combining form for which substance:

a. Sugar
b. Milk
c. Sodium
d. Iodine
e. Potassium

Answer 233

c. Sodium

Question 234

Characteristic of Type 1 diabetes mellitus:

a. Gradual onset; patient is asymptomatic
b. Ketoacidosis seldom occurs
c. Treatment is diet and oral hypoglycemic agents
d. Little or no insulin produced
e. Usually occurs after age 30

Answer 234

d. Little or no insulin produced

Question 235

Which is a description of achondroplasia:

a. Enlargement of extremities
b. Defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth
c. Tumor of the sella turcica
d. Abnormal formation of cartilage in an adult
e. Hyperfunctioning of pituitary gland

Answer 235

b. Defective cartilage formation that affects bone growth

Question 236

hyper-

Answer 236

above, excessive

Question 237

peri-

Answer 237

surrounding

Question 238

epi-

Answer 238

above, upon

Question 239

trans-

Answer 239

through

Question 240

hypo-

Answer 240

below, less than normal

Question 241

dia-

Answer 241

complete, thorough

Question 242

ante-

Answer 242

before, forward

Question 243

anti-

Answer 243

against

Question 244

ana-

Answer 244

up, apart, anew

Question 245

brady-

Answer 245

slow

Question 246

con-

Answer 246

together, with

Question 247

contra-

Answer 247

against, opposite

Question 248

bi-

Answer 248

two

Question 249

ad-

Answer 249

toward

Question 250

dys-

Answer 250

bad, painful, abnormal

Question 251

eu-

Answer 251

good, normal

Question 252

intra-

Answer 252

within, into

Question 253

inter-

Answer 253

between

Question 254

auto-

Answer 254

self, own

Question 255

infra-

Answer 255

below, beneath

Question 256

mal-

Answer 256

bad

Question 257

poly-

Answer 257

many, increased

Question 258

neo-

Answer 258

new

Question 259

meta-

Answer 259

change, beyond

Question 260

para-

Answer 260

near, beside

Question 261

post-

Answer 261

after, behind

Question 262

endo-

Answer 262

in, within

Question 263

hemi-

Answer 263

half

Question 264

macro-

Answer 264

large

Question 265

pseudo-

Answer 265

false

Question 266

-gram

Answer 266

record

Question 267

-itis

Answer 267

inflammation

Question 268

-opsy

Answer 268

view of

Question 269

-oma

Answer 269

tumor, mass, fluid collection

Question 270

-scopy

Answer 270

visual examination

Question 271

-logy

Answer 271

study of

Question 272

-cele

Answer 272

hernia

Question 273

-coccus

Answer 273

berry-shaped bacterium

Question 274

-centesis

Answer 274

surgical puncture to remove fluid

Question 275

-genesis

Answer 275

producing, forming