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Human Anatomy II - Comp exam review > Review Questions > Flashcards

Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

The inguinal ligament attaches to which of the following pairs of structures?

A. ASIS and AISS
B. AIIS and ischial spine
C. ASIS and pubic tubercle
D. ASIS and inferior pubic ramus

A

C. ASIS and pubic tubercle

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2
Q

All of the following features except one are characteristic of the male pelvis in comparison with the female pelvis. Which one is characteristic of the female pelvis?

A. Deeper greater pelvis
B. Round obturator foramen
C. Wide pubic arch
D. Large acetabulum

A

C. Wide pubic arch

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3
Q

Which of the following features marks the boundary between the false (greater) and the true (lesser) pelvis?

A. Pelvic brim
B. Pelvic diaphragm
C. Perineum
D. Iliac crests

A

A. Pelvic brim

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4
Q

The lesser and greater sciatic notches are separated by which of the following landmarks?

A. PSIS
B. PIIS
C. Ischial tuberosity
D. Ischial spine

A

D. Ischial spine

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5
Q

The major constituent of the pelvic diaphragm is the levator ani complex. Which of the following is NOT part of the levator ani complex?

A. Puborectalis
B. Pubococcygeus
C. Coccygeus
D. Iliococcygeus

A

D. Iliococcygeus

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6
Q

Which of the following forms a muscular sling at the anorectal junction?

A. Puborectalis
B. Pubococcygeus
C. Coccygeus
D. Iliococcygeus

A

A. Puborectalis

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7
Q

Which of the following structures does not exit the pelvis via the greater sciatic foramen?

A. Superior gluteal artery
B. Inferior gluteal artery
C. Sciatic nerve
D. Obturator nerve
E. Inferior gluteal nerve
A

D. Obturator nerve

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8
Q

Which muscle separates the exit of the superior and inferior gluteal arteries from the pelvic cavity?

A. Quadratus femoris
B. Obturator internus
C. Superior gemellus
D. Inferior gemellus
E. Pirifomis
A

E. Pirifomis

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9
Q

The male and female external genitalia are derived from homologous embryonic primordia. The genital swellings of the embryo form which of the following adult structures?

A. Scrotum
B. Labia minora
C. Clitoris
D. Shaft of the penis

A

A. Scrotum

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10
Q

Which of the following layers of the uterus undergo the most pronounced changes during the menstrual cycle?

A. Endometrium
B. Myometrium
C. Perimetrium
D. Mensometrium

A

A. Endometrium

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11
Q

Which of the following is the longest and widest part of the uterine tube?

A. Isthmus
B. Ampulla
C. Intramural
D. Fimbriae

A

B. Ampulla

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12
Q

Which of the following ligaments is the primary support for the medial longitudinal arch of the foot?

A. Long plantar
B. Plantar calcaneonavicular
C. Plantar calcaneocuboid
D. Deltoid

A

B. Plantar calcaneonavicular

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13
Q

The subtalar joint allows for inversion and eversion. Which of the following movements is associated with eversion?

A. Adduction
B. Supination
C. Dorsiflexion
D. Plantarflexion

A

D. Plantarflexion

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14
Q

What is the approximate angle of inclination in the average young adult?

A. 175
B. 150
C. 125
D. 74
E. 15
A

C. 125

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15
Q

The navicular bone is a component of which of the following subdivisions of the foot?

A. Hindfoot
B. Midfoot
C. Forefoot
D. Mortise and tenon joint

A

B. Midfoot

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16
Q

The calcaneus transmits weight from the talus to metatarsals 4 and 5 via which of the following bones?

A. Cuboid
B. Middle cuneiform
C. Navicular
D. Lateral cuneiform
E. Medial cuneiform
A

A. Cuboid

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17
Q

Which of the following represents the lateral boundary of the femoral triangle?

A. Adductor magnus
B. Adductor longus
C. Sartorius
D. Pectineus

A

C. Sartorius

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18
Q

Which of the following is found in the femoral triangle but not the femoral sheath?

A. Femoral artery
B. Femoral vein
C. Femoral nerve
D. Lymphatics

A

C. Femoral nerve

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19
Q

The Trendelenburg test is used to evaluate which of the following muscles?

A. Pectineus
B. Gluteus medius
C. Gluteus maximus
D. Quadriceps femoris

A

B. Gluteus medius

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20
Q

The 3 capsular ligaments of the hip limit which of the following motions?

A. Lateral thigh rotation
B. Hip hyperextension
C. Hip flexion
D. Medial thigh rotation

A

B. Hip hyperextension

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21
Q

Which of the following arteries supplies the medial compartment of the thigh?

A. Femoral
B. Obturator
C. Deep femoral
D. Saphenous

A

B. Obturator

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22
Q

Which of the following structures attach the menisci to the rims of the tibial plataeus?

A. Coronary
B. Cruciates
C. Collaterals
D. Fibular collateral ligament

A

A. Coronary

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23
Q

Which of the following is necessary to unlock the knee from its extended position?

A. Plantaris
B. Popliteus
C. Soleus
D. Lateral head of the gastrocnemius

A

B. Popliteus

24
Q

Which of the following is not found in the popliteal fossa?

A. Popliteal nerve
B. Tibial nerve
C. Popliteal artery
D. Popliteal vein

A

A. Popliteal nerve

25
Q

The malleoli of the tibia and fibula form the mortise component of the ankle joint. Which of the following forms the tenon?

A. Calcaneus
B. Cuboid
C. Talus
D. Medial cuneiform

A

C. Talus

26
Q

The tendon of which of the following muscles passes between 2 sesamoid bones located at the base of the first metatarsus?

A. Adductor hallucis
B. Peroneus longus
C. Flexor hallucis longus
D. Abductor hallucis

A

C. Flexor hallucis longus

27
Q

Which of the following structures/spaces is associated with the spinal cord but not the brain?

A. Arachnoid membrane
B. Pia mater
C. Subdural space
D. Epidural space

A

D. Epidural space

28
Q

Which of the following dural sinuses DOES NOT connect directly with the confluence of sinuses?

A. Straight sinus
B. Transverse sinuses
C. Superior sagittal sinus
D. Inferior sagittal sinus

A

D. Inferior sagittal sinus

29
Q

Which of the following extrinsic muscles of the eye is NOT supplied by the oculomotor nerve?

A. Lateral rectus
B. Inferior oblique
C. Medial rectus
D. Inferior rectus

A

A. Lateral rectus

30
Q

The anterior belly of the digastric muscle is derived from the first pharyngeal arch and is innervated by which of the following nerves?

A. Facial
B. Trigeminal
C. Glossopharyngeal
D. Hypoglossal

A

B. Trigeminal

posterior belly is facial

31
Q

Which of the following scalene muscles attaches to the second rib?

A. Anterior
B. Middle
C. Posterior
D. All attach to the first rib

A

C. Posterior

32
Q

Which of the following represent the spinal cord levels of origin for the phrenic nerve?

A. C1-4
B. C2-5
C. C3-5
D. C3-7

A

C. C3-5

33
Q

Which of the following is the fontanelle located at the junction of the sagittal and lamboidal sutures?

A. Anterior
B. Posterior
C. Anterolateral
D. Posterolateral

A

D. Posterolateral

34
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves supplies extrinsic and intrinsic muscles of the tongue?

A. CN IX
B. CN X
C. CN XI
D. CN XII

A

D. CN XII

35
Q

Olfactory fibers making up the olfactory nerves pass from the olfactory mucosa to the olfactory bulbs through which of the following?

A. Sphenoethmoidal recess
B. Cribiform plate
C. Optic canals
D. Lateral pterygoid foraminae

A

B. Cribiform plate

36
Q

Which of the following cranial nerves supplies motor innervation to the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles?

A. IX
B. X
C. XI
D. XII

A

C. XI

37
Q

The mandibular branch of the trigeminal nerve exits the cranial cavity through which of the following foramina?

A. Foramen ovale
B. Foramen spinosum
C. Foramen rotundum
D. Foramen lacerum

A

A. Foramen ovale

38
Q

The muscles of the suboccipital triangle are innervated by which of the following nerves?

A. Occipital nerve
B. Cervical nerve 1
C. Cervical nerve 2
D. Cervical nerve 3

A

B. Cervical nerve 1

39
Q

The middle meningeal artery enters the cranial cavity via which of the following foramina?

A. Ovale
B. Rotundum
C. Spinosum
D. Lacerum

A

C. Spinosum

40
Q

Proper chewing requires that the mandible be moved from side to side and to be retracted and protracted. Which of the following muscles functions to retract the mandible?

A. Temporalis
B. Lateral pterygoid
C. Medial pterygoid
D. Temporalis

A

D. Temporalis

41
Q

Which of the following muscles consists of two bellies, originating from the body of the hyoid and the superior border of the scapula?

A. Omohyoid
B. Digastric
C. Geniohyoid
D. Cervicohyoid

A

A. Omohyoid

42
Q

Almost all infrahyoid muscles are characterized by which of the following innervation patterns?

A. Hypoglossal nerve
B. Ansa cervicalis
C. C2
D. C2-3

A

B. Ansa cervicalis

43
Q

Postganglionic fibers from which of the following region of the sympathetic trunk supply all the smooth muscles and glands of the head?

A. Superior sympathetic ganglion
B. Middle sympathetic ganglion
C. Inferior sympathetic ganglion
D. Stellate ganglion

A

A. Superior sympathetic ganglion

44
Q

Which of the following represents the narrowest part of the laryngeal cavity?

A. Infraglottic cavity
B. Rima glottidis
C. Rima vestibuli
D. Space between the vestibular folds

A

B. Rima glottidis

45
Q

Cranial nerves characterized by the special visceral motor modality supply which of the following?

A. Smooth muscles of the gut tract
B. Skeletal muscles
C. Muscles derived from pharyngeal arches
D. Autonomic motor muscles

A

C. Muscles derived from pharyngeal arches

46
Q

Special visceral motor modality supplies the stylopharyngeus muscle via which of the following cranial nerves?

A. IX
B. X
C. XI
D. XII

A

A. IX

47
Q

Cell bodies of sensory neurons carrying general sensory information from the dura of the middle and anterior cranial fossae, the external surface of the ear drum and the anterior 2/3 of the tongue are located in which of the following ganglia?

A. Trigeminal (semilunar)
B. Geniculate
C. Superior salivatory nucleus
D. Inferior salivatory nucleus

A

A. Trigeminal (semilunar)

Andersen answers B. Geniculate, but looked up in lecture and answer should be A

48
Q

The medullary rhythmicity center is located in the same area of the brain as the cardiac center and the vasomotor center. The pneumotactic and apneustic centers are located in which of the following?

A. Pons
B. Medulla
C. Mesencephalon
D. Thalamus

A

A. Pons

49
Q

Extensive bilateral lesions involving the mid-pons and the midbrain reticular formation are associated with which of the following conditions?

A. Consciousness but quadriplegic
B. Coma
C. Hypotonia
D. Unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities

A

B. Coma

50
Q

Which of the following is the newest addition to the telencephalon in mammals?

A. Pallium
B. Mid-ventricular ridge
C. Neocortex
D. Paleocortex

A

C. Neocortex

51
Q

Which of the following areas of the brain stem is thought to be involved in pain suppression?

A. Red nucleus
B. Restiform bodies
C. Periaqueductal gray
D. Vagal lobes

A

C. Periaqueductal gray

52
Q

Floccular lobes in the cerebellum of reptiles may correspond to restiform bodies in cartilaginous fishes. This function is most likely related to which of the following?

A. Taste
B. Sight
C. Memory
D. Equilibrium

A

D. Equilibrium

53
Q

The magnocellular zone of the RAS is characterized by a specific type of neuron with long radiating dendrites spread out in a plane perpendicular to the long axis of the brain. It has been suggested that the function of this area of the brain stem may be associated with which of the following?

A. Carrying information from the pineal body to the RAS
B. Connecting the superior and inferior colliculi
C. Picking up information from a variety of sources
D. Linking olfactory and taste sensations to the autonomic nervous system

A

C. Picking up information from a variety of sources

54
Q

Cranial nerve nuclei V, VII and VII are found in which of the following subdivisions of the brain?

A. Medulla
B. Pons
C. Midbrain
D. Diencephalon

A

B. Pons

55
Q

The thalamus is a paired complex of many nuclei, some of which are associated with relaying sensory information to the cerebral cortex. Others relay motor information from the cerebral cortex, and some serve to integrate the others. Which of the following relay information to the primary auditory cortex of the cerebral cortex?

A. Medial geniculate
B. Lateral geniculate
C. Ventral posterior
D. Anterior

A

A. Medial geniculate

lateral geniculate is for vision

56
Q

Increase in sexual activity, compulsive tendency to place objects in mouth, decreased emotionality, changes in eating behavior and visual agnosia are characteristics of the Kulver-Bucy syndrome. This results when which of the following is/are bilaterally destroyed?

A. Substantia nigra
B. Red nucleus
C. Amygdala
D. Thalamus

A

C. Amygdala

57
Q

Melanin-containing dopaminergic neurons and iron-containing cells that secrete serotonin and GABA are major components of which of the following?

A. Substantia nigra
B. Thalamus
C. RAS
D. Superior colliculi

A

A. Substantia nigra

Human Anatomy II - Comp exam review (1 decks)

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