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Embryology Exam 3 > Review Questions > Flashcards

Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q 
The morphology of specific muscles within the limb buds is determined by which of the following factors?
A. Surrounding connective tissue
B. BMPs
C. Apical ectodermal ridge
D. Noggin
A

A. Surrounding connective tissue

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2
Q

Pre-muscle cells in the developing limb bud are derived from which of the following sources?

A. Lateral plate mesoderm
B. Somitic dermatomes
C. Somitic Myotomes
D. Neural crest

A

C. Somitic Myotomes

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3
Q

Which of the following represents the principal function of the AER?

A. Stimulating outgrowth of the limb bud
B. Setting up the AP axis of the limb bud
C. Determining the specific characteristics of the ectodermal appendages of the limb
D. Determining the pattern of neural outgrowth of the limb

A

A. Stimulating outgrowth of the limb bud

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4
Q

If the limb disc of a salamander embryo is rotated 180 degrees, so that both the AP and the DV axes are reversed, which of the following would be observed?

A. The resulting limb would be completely normal with no reversal of axes.
B. The AP axis of the resulting limb would be reversed but not the DV axis.
C. The DV axis of the resulting limb would be reversed but not the AP axis.
D. Both the AP and the DV axes of the resulting limb would be reversed.

A

B. The AP axis of the resulting limb would be reversed but not the DV axis.

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5
Q

Numerous experiments have shown that retinoic acid is capable of inducing the formation of the posterior limb in vertebrates. Retinoic acid is not the actual morphogen but is capable of activating which of the following genes, which is thought to express the actual morphogen?

A. Sonic hedgehog gene
B. Wnt-7 gene
C. Pax-3 gene
D. Noggin gene

A

A. Sonic hedgehog gene

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6
Q

Pattern formation along the proximodistal axis of the limb bud is primarily determined by which of the following?

A. Paxa gene
B. Hoxd gene
C. Retinoic acid
D. Sonic hedgehog

A

B. Hoxd gene

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7
Q

The presence of webbing between the toes of wading birds such as ducks and the presence of webbed fingers (syndactyly) is most likely associated with which of the following?

A. Overexpression of Noggin
B. Oligohydraminos
C. Reduced apoptotic activity
D. Aminocentesis

A

C. Reduced apoptotic activity

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8
Q

Which of the following experiments carried out on salamander embryos illustrates that the developing limb is a highly regulative system?

A. Split a limb primordium into two halves and prevent them from fusing
B. Juxtapose two equivalent halves of a limb primordium
C. Remove part of a limb primordium
D. All of the above

A

D. All of the above

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9
Q

Which of the following factors functions as the initial initiator of future hindlimb development?

A. Hoxd
B. Tbx4
C. Shh
D. Gli3

A

B. Tbx4

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10
Q

In limb development, the attraction of the outgrowing nerves to peripheral organs seems to be unspecific to a very high degree. Connections between a nerve and the end organ can be made only if the two correspond to each other. These assumptions are based on which of the following experiments?

A. An eye was transplanted to the side of a salamander embryo after the forelimb rudiment was removed.
B. A salamander forelimb bud was removed and replaced by a hindlimb bud.
C. A salamander limb rudiment was transplanted to the flank (side) of a host salamander.
D. An obstacle (i.e., piece of mica) was placed between the spinal cord and the region where the hindlimb rudiment was to develop in a salamander embryo.

A

A. An eye was transplanted to the side of a salamander embryo after the forelimb rudiment was removed.

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11
Q

During limb development, pre-muscle cells in the somite express c-met, which is the receptor for which of the following?

A. Pax-3
B. N-cadherin
C. Tcf-4
D. Scatter factor

A

D. Scatter factor

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12
Q

In the formation of limb joints, which of the following signal molecules is responsible for inhibiting BMP in the region of the future joint cavity?

A. Shh
B. Noggin
C. Wnt-1
D. Eng-1

A

B. Noggin

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13
Q

Which of the following occurs when an additional limb bud is transplanted into the immediate of the host forelimb of a salamander embryo?

A. Neither limb bud will be supplied by any branches of the brachial plexus.
B. The brachial nerves will develop branches running out to the additional limb and will supply it.
C. The transplanted limb bud will be supplied by local nerves that would normally supply flank muscles.
D. Local brachial plexus nerves deviate from the normal limb bud and supply only the transplanted limb bud.

A

B. The brachial nerves will develop branches running out to the additional limb and will supply it.

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14
Q

The formation of clubfoot (talipes equinovarus) is associated with which of the following?

A. A misplaced ZPA
B. Defective cellular migration from somites
C. Thalidomide
D. Oligohydraminos
E. A neural crest defect
A

D. Oligohydraminos

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15
Q

Which of the following is observed when the forelimb rudiment of a salamander embryo is removed so that the limb fails to develop?

A. The associated spinal ganglia increase to more than 150% of their normal size.
B. Local nerves are not affected.
C. The nerves of the brachial plexus remain smaller (thinner) than they would have been if the limb were still there.
D. Nerves of the future brachial plexus undergo apoptosis.

A

C. The nerves of the brachial plexus remain smaller (thinner) than they would have been if the limb were still there.

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16
Q

Which of the following are NOT derived from neural crest cells?

A. Postganglionic autonomic neurons
B. Autonomic ganglia
C. Sensory neuron cell bodies
D. Motor neuron cell bodies

A

D. Motor neuron cell bodies

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17
Q

Trunk neural crest cells utilize three migratory pathways. The earliest (first) emigrating cells follow which pathway?

A

ventral path

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18
Q

Cranial neural crest cells from the region of rhombomeres 6 and 7 are involved in the establishment of which of the following structures?

A

pharyngeal arch 3

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19
Q

Neural crest cells that give rise to the leaflets of the semilunar valves, thymus, thyroid and parathyroid glands, and the septa that divide the conus arteriosus into the aortic and pulmonary arteries arise from which of the following?

A

cardiac neural crest

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20
Q

Which of the following neurocristopathies is characterized by pigmentation defects, white strip in hair, deafness, and cleft palate among others?

A

Waardenburg syndrome

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21
Q

A low concentration of which of the following factors results in placode formation, while a high concentration of the same factor results in the formation of the neural plate.

A

BMP

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22
Q

Which of the following factors is referred to as the “master gene of eye development” in
Drosophila and in human eye development is necessary to induce the formation of the lens placode?

A

Pax-6

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23
Q

In the development of the retina, the nasotemporal (anterior-posterior) axis is fixed first (before the dorsoventral axis). The axis is established, in part, by gradient composed of which of the following?

A

ephrins

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24
Q

Except for the first pharyngeal pouch, pattering of pharyngeal arch endoderm is heavily based on exposure to which of the following factors?

A

retinoic acid

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25
The palate forms during which of the following time periods?
6-10 weeks of development
26
Tendons of limb muscles arise from the lateral plate mesoderm. Limb muscles arise from which of the following sources? A. Dorsal lip of the myotome B. Ventral buds of myotomes C. Ventrolateral dermomyotome D. Paraxial somitomeres
C. Ventrolateral dermomyotome
27
Which of these cell and tissue types arises from cranial, but not trunk, neural crest cells? ``` A. Sensory ganglia B. Adrenal medulla C. Melanocytes D. Schwann cells E. None of the above ```
E. None of the above
28
Which of the following is a poor substrate for migrating neural crest cells? ``` A. Laminin B. Chondroitin sulfate C. Fibronectin D. Type IV collagen E. Hyaluronic acid ```
B. Chondroitin sulfate
29
Neural crest cells arise from which of the following? ``` A. Somite B. Dorsal non-neural ectoderm C. Neural plate D. Splanchnic mesoderm E. Yolk sac endoderm ```
C. Neural plate
30
A 65-month-old infant exhibits multiple congenital defects, including a cleft palate, deafness, ocular hypertelorism, and a white forelock but otherwise dark hair on his head. Which of the following represents the probable diagnosis? ``` A. CHARGE association B. Von Recklinghausen’s disease C. Hirschsprung’s disease D. Waardenburg’s syndrome E. None of the above ```
D. Waardenburg’s syndrome
31
Which of the following is involved in the migration of neural crest cells from the neural tube? ``` A. Snail B. BMP-2 C. Mash-1 D. Norepinephrine E. Glial growth factor ```
A. Snail
32
Which is not a derivative of the neural crest? ``` A. Sensory neurons B. Motor neurons C. Schwann cells D. Adrenal medulla E. Dental papilla ```
B. Motor neurons
33
What maintains the competence of neural cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons? ``` A. Shh B. Acetylcholine C. Mash 1 D. Glial growth factor E. TGF-β ```
C. Mash 1
34
If trunk neural crest cells are transplanted into the cranial region, they can form all of the following types of cells except: ``` A. Pigment cells B. Schwann cells C. Sensory neurons D. Cartilage E. Autonomic neurons ```
D. Cartilage
35
Which of the following syndromes is characterized by reduced function of the thymus, thyroid, and parathyroid glands, cardiovascular defects, and abnormalities of the aortic arches and is the result of a defect in the neural crest supplying the third and fourth pharyngeal arches? A. Neurofibromas B. DiGeorge syndrome C. Waardenberg’s syndrome D. CHARGE
B. DiGeorge syndrome
36
Most neural crest cells originating from the areas of somites 1-3 will follow the circumpharyngeal path and will make up which of the following divisions? A. Cardiac neural crest B. Vagal neural crest C. Sympathoadrenal neural crest D. Spinal ganglia neural crest
A. Cardiac neural crest
37
Which of the following conclusions concerning the choroid fissure is correct? A. The optic nerve and the hyaloid artery both use the choroid fissure to reach the posterior chamber of the eye. B. Low concentrations of Shh are necessary to guide the axons of the ganglion cells along the choroid fissure to the retina. C. Failure of the choroid fissure to close results in the formation of cyclopia. D. The hyaloid artery uses the choroid fissure to reach the posterior chamber of the eye.
D. The hyaloid artery uses the choroid fissure to reach the posterior chamber of the eye.
38
Neural crest-derived cells constitute a significant component of which tissue of the eye? ``` A. Neural retina B. Lens C. Optic nerve D. Cornea E. None of the above ```
D. Cornea
39
What molecule plays a role in guidance of advancing retinal axons through the optic nerve? ``` A. Pax-2 B. FGF-3 C. BMP-4 D. Pax-6 E. BMP-7 ```
A. Pax-2
40
Surface ectoderm is induced to become corneal epithelium by an inductive event originating in which of the following? ``` A. Optic cup B. Chordamesoderm C. Optic vesicle D. Lens vesicle E. Neural retina ```
D. Lens vesicle
41
Which of the following is caused by failure of the choroid fissure to close during the sixth week of pregnancy? A. Anophthalmos B. Microphthalmos C.Cyclopia D. Colobomo
D. Colobomo
42
Antagonistic actions of BMP-4 and Shh, along with ventropin, establish which of the following axes? A.The anterior-posterior axis of the cornea B.The anterior-posterior axis of the lens C.The dorsal-ventral axis of the retina D. The nasal-temporal fields of the retina
C.The dorsal-ventral axis of the retina
43
Except for the pharyngeal muscles, pharyngeal arch mesoderm (tendons, etc.) are derived from which of the following? A. Neural crest B. Somitomeres C. Paraxial mesoderm D. Parachordal mesoderm
A. Neural crest
44
Shaping of the snout involves the establishment of a gradient between which of the following pairs of signals? A. FGF-8 and Edn-1 B. Hox and Pax C.Tgf-2 and BMP-4 D. FGF-8 and Shh
D. FGF-8 and Shh
45
In craniofacial development, segmentation of the cranial neural tube occurs as a result of expression of which of the following genes? A. Sox B. BMP C. Hox D. TGF
C. Hox
46
In most kinds of glandular development signaling between Shh and FGF occurs between the epithelium and mesenchyme. In which of the following development processes does this signaling occur entirely within the epithelium? A. Nasal B. Salivary C.Thyroid D. Anterior pituitary
B. Salivary
47
n molar development, induction of secondary enamel knots by the primary enamel knot followed by apoptosis of the primary enamel knot is associated with which of the following morphogenetic events? A. Formation of future molar cusps B. Induction of the ameloblast layer C. Induction of the odontoblast layer D. Formation of the dental sac
A. Formation of future molar cusps
48
At which of the following stages of tooth development do both the ameloblast and odontoblast layers first appear together. A. Tooth bud stage B. Cap stage C. Bell stage D. Dental sac stage
C. Bell stage
49
Which of the following is necessary for tooth development to continue past the bud stage? A. BMP-4 B. Shh C. FGF-8 D. Pax-9
D. Pax-9
50
Cleft lip results from lack of fusion of which of the following? A. Nasomedial and nasolateral processes B. Nasomedial and maxillary processes C. Nasolateral and maxillary processes D. Nasolateral and mandibular processes
B. Nasomedial and maxillary processes
51
Which of the following abnormalities in tooth development is characterized by teeth that appear blue-gray or amber brown and are opalescent and may be caused by mutations in type I collagen? A. Amelogenesis imperfecta B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta C. Enamel fluorosis D. KGB syndrome
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
52
Which of the following develops from the cartilaginous portion of the second pharyngeal arch? A. Meckel’s cartilage B. Malleus C. Incus D. Stapes
D. Stapes
53
Cranial nerve V innervates structures derived from which of the following pharyngeal arches? A. Pharyngeal arch 1 B. Pharyngeal arch 2 C. Pharyngeal arch 3 D. Pharyngeal arch 4
A. Pharyngeal arch 1
54
Rathke’s pouch arises from which of the following? ``` A. Diencephalon B. Stomodeal ectoderm C. Mesencephalon D. Pharyngeal endoderm E. Infundibulum ```
B. Stomodeal ectoderm
55
Expression of which of the following genes is necessary to prevent pharyngeal arch 2 from into pharyngeal arch 1? A. Engrail B. Pax-7 C. Hoxa-2 D. Foxd
C. Hoxa-2
56
Muscles of facial expression are innervated by cranial nerve seven. This relationship would suggest that these muscles are derived from which of the following pharyngeal arches? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
B. Second
57
In the formation of the mammalian temporomandibular articulation, several bones that are involved in the jaw articulation in lower vertebrates dissociate themselves from jaw articulation and become located in the middle ear cavity, where they function in sound transmission. The malleus of the middle ear in mammals is derived from which of the following former jaw articulation bones? A. Columella B. Meckel’s cartilage C. Quadrate D. Articular
D. Articular
58
Which of the following develop from the third pharyngeal pouch in response to high concentrations of Shh? A. Thyroid B. Superior parathyroids C. Thymus D. Inferior parathyroids
D. Inferior parathyroids
59
The auditory tube is a derivative of which of the following pharyngeal pouches? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
A. First
60
Which of the following remains temporarily connected to the floor of the pharynx by a narrow duct that later forms the foramen cecum on the tongue? A. Thyroid B. Thymus C. Parathyroids D. Anterior pituitary
A. Thyroid
61
Which of the following DO NOT form from the ureteric bud (metanephric diverticulum)? A. Renal pelvis B. Ureter C. Nephrons D. Calyces
C. Nephrons
62
Metanephrogenic blastemata are induced to condense from the surrounding mesenchyme by which of the following? A. Allantoic sac B. Mesonephric duct C. Pronephric duct D. Ureteric diverticulum
D. Ureteric diverticulum
63
Potter’s facies is characteristic of an embryo exposed to which of the following? A. Extrosophy of the bladder B. Oligohydramnios C. Polycystic disease of the kidney D. Epispadias
B. Oligohydramnios
64
The ureteric epithelium, influenced by BMP-4, forms which of the following proteins necessary to render the epithelium of the ureter impermeable to water? A. Sproutys B. Gremlins C. Uroplakins D. Uvomorulins
C. Uroplakins
65
Which of the following factors determine the craniocaudal limits of the early urinary system? A. Lim-1 B. Hox 4-11 genes C. Retinoic acid D. Pax-2 and Pax-8
B. Hox 4-11 genes
66
Sprouty and Gremlin are involved in the development of which of the following? A. Teeth B. Kidneys C. Tongue D. Salivary glands
B. Kidneys
67
The presence of the SRY gene is directly associated with which of the following? A. Switching of the indifferent gonad to a testis B. Switching of the indifferent gonad to an ovary C. Retention of the Mullerian ducts D. Development of secondary male characteristics
A. Switching of the indifferent gonad to a testis
68
The scrotum and labia majora develop from which of the following primordia? A. Genital tubercle B. Genital swellings C. Genital folds D. A combination of genital tubercle and the genital swellings
B. Genital swellings
69
In the genetic male, Sertoli cells develop from which of the following? A. Rete cords B. Sex cords C. Efferent ductules D. Cortex of the indifferent gonad
B. Sex cords
70
In a genetic male, mesonephric tubules in the vicinity of the gonad will form which of the following? A. Rete cords B. Sex cords C. Efferent ductules D. Mesonephric duct
C. Efferent ductules
71
The conversion of primordial germ cells into meiosis competent cells depends on which of the following factors? A. Dazl B. Retinoic acid C. Nanos-2 D. Stra-8
A. Dazl
72
The internal carotids are derived from which of the following pairs of aortic arches? A. Third B. Fourth C. Fifth D. Sixth
A. Third
73
The hepatic portal vein develops from which of the following fatal vessels? A. Left vitelline B. Right vitelline C. Left umbilical D. Right umbilical
C. Left umbilical
74
Q: Which of the following best describes the function of the ductus venosus? A. It will become the left hepatic vein. B. It carries food-laden blood from the yolk sac to the hepatic capillary network. C. It drains the hepatic capillary network into the sinus venosus. D. It permits the incoming oxygenated placental blood to bypass the capillary networks of the liver.
D. It permits the incoming oxygenated placental blood to bypass the capillary networks of the liver.
75
The ductus arteriosus shunt in the fetus becomes the ligamentum arteriosus in the adult. It is derived from the dorsal portion of which of the following structures? A. Right fourth aortic arch B. Left fourth aortic arch C. Right sixth aortic arch D. Left sixth aortic arch
D. Left sixth aortic arch
76
Hemangioblasts originate from the posterolateral mesoderm during gastrulation and organize into blood islands in the yolk around day 18. They become divided into two lineages. Which of the following factors is responsible for establishing the endothelial lineage? A. Runx-1 B. Hox 3 C. VEGF-A D. Angiopoietin
B. Hox 3
77
The initial formation of the cardiac tube is guided by which of the following? A. Tbx-2 B. Tbx-5 C. Pax-6 D. Shh
A. Tbx-2
78
During cardiac development, the distal region of the bulbous cordis (outflow tract) is derived from which of the following? A. Primary cardiac field B. Secondary cardiac field C. Neural crest D. Septoconal ridges
C. Neural crest
79
Absence of hand-2 results in the absence of which of the following cardiac structures? A. Left ventricle B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
80
The proximal region of the outflow tract of the developing heart is derived from which of the following sources? A. Primary heart field B. Secondary heart field C. Neural crest D. Conotruncal septa
B. Secondary heart field
81
Which of the following adult heart components is derived from the secondary embryonic heart field? A. Left ventricle B. Right ventricle C. Left atrium D. Right atrium
B. Right ventricle
82
The foramen ovale is a right-left cardiac shunt and is structurally associated with which of the following cardiac structures? A. Septum primum B. Septum secundum C. Foramen primum D. Foramen secundum
B. Septum secundum
83
Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the characteristics of the three stages of kidney development in human embryos? A. The pronephros is functional only in the first few weeks of human embryonic development; the mesonephros is functional for a short period after that, and the metanephros is functional throughout the development of the fetus. B. The mesonephros is the functional kidney in the human embryo and the pronephric duct is necessary to form the mesonephric duct. C. The pronephric duct forms the mesonephric duct, and the mesonephric tubules will become associated with the metanephric duct to form the metanephric kidney. D. The mesonephric duct will become associated with the development of the male reproductive system, and the pronephric duct will become associated with the development of the female Mullerian duct.
B. The mesonephros is the functional kidney in the human embryo and the pronephric duct is necessary to form the mesonephric duct.
84
Partitioning of the single ventricle into a left and a right chamber begins during which of the following developmental periods? A. Third week B. Fourth week C. Fifth week D. Seventh week
C. Fifth week
85
The tracheal primordium extends from the ventral floor of the foregut and will later have to be separated from the foregut lumen (future esophagus) by a septum. The separation is accomplished by a pair of lateral ridges that fuse toward the midline from posterior to anterior. Which of the following factors is responsible for initiating the formation of this septum? A. Wnt B. Hox6 C. BMP4 D. FoxA3
A. Wnt
86
The initial site for the development of the respiratory system is from the floor of the pharynx (ventral foregut). Which of the following factors marks this site (as well as the site of the thyroid diverticulum)? A. Wnt B. BMP4 C. Nkx2.1 D. FGF 10
C. Nkx2.1
87
The large, ventral portion of the respiratory diaphragm is derived from which of the following primordia? A. Pleuropericardial folds B. Falciform ligament C. Pleuroperitoneal folds D. Septum transversum
D. Septum transversum

Embryology Exam 3 (2 decks)

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