Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Major action of sodium chromoglycate

A

Mast cell stabilization

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2
Q

Action of histamine

A

Stimulation of gastric secretion

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3
Q

Resistant to penicillinase

A

Floxapen

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4
Q

Inderal

A

Pure b-adrenergic receptor blocker

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5
Q

Rifampicin

A

Tuberculosis

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6
Q

Non-selective b1 blocker

A

Labetalol

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7
Q

After meals

A

Post cibum

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8
Q

Four times daily

A

Quater in die

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9
Q

Every night

A

Quaque nocte

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10
Q

Erythroped A

A

Effective against g+ cocci
Macrolide antibiotic
Increase GI motility
Used in pregnant women if needed

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11
Q

Treatment of anaphylactic shock

A

Epinephrine

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12
Q

Allopurinol

A

Agent which increases renal tubular reabsorption

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13
Q

Not betamethasone side effect

A

Hypoglycemia

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14
Q

Due to viral infection

A

Poliomyelitis
Chicken pox
Rabies
Herpes

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15
Q

Atropine

A

Muscarinic antagonist

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16
Q

Myocardial muscle tissue property to generate electrical

A

Automaticity

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17
Q

Heart’s dominant pacemaker

A

SA node

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18
Q

Adenosine indication

A

Supraventricular tachycardia

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19
Q

Responsible for Buffering

A

Bicarbonates

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20
Q

Respiratory acidosis is due to

A

CO2 retention

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21
Q

Not a colloid solution

A

Ringer’s solution

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22
Q

Adenosine P produces

A

facial flushing and dyspnea

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23
Q

Shock signifies

A

Hypoperfusion

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24
Q

Treatment of Shock

A

Airway control
Dopamine to support blood pressure
IV of crystalloid solution
Monitor Heart Rhythm

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25
Q

Released by Bacterial Infection

A

Exotoxin

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26
Q

Amount of water in adult male

A

60%

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27
Q

Causes of Edema

A

Increase hydrostatic pressure
Decrease oncotic pressure
Capillary permeability

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28
Q

Patients prescribed non reversible monoamine oxidase inhibitor should be advised not to consume food containing tyramine because

A

Acute adrenergic crisis including severe hypertension

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29
Q

Concerning COX2 inhibitors, which is NOT true?

A

combination with non selective agents give more effective action

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30
Q

In the treatment of osteoporosis which of the following is NOT true?

A

hormone replacement therapy should be considered

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31
Q

First choice in acute gout

A

Indomethacin

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32
Q

Not a risk factor for osteoparalysis

A

Male gender

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33
Q

Early symptoms of aspirin poisoning

A

Ringing in the ears and blurred vision

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34
Q

Not true about infliximab

A

IL-I blocker

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35
Q

Disease-modifying drugs in rheumatoid arthritis

A

Gold preparations
Hydroxychloroquine
Methotrexate

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36
Q

A patient who is admitted through the ER with an initial diagnosis of arterial fibrillation

A

slow ventricular response using verapamil

consider anticoagulation with warfarin

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37
Q

True about surgical prophylaxis

A

Reduce the possibility of surgical site infection

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38
Q

Diagnosis of diabetes

A

oral glucose tolerance test

HBA1c

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39
Q

Goals of Diabetes Mellitus management

A

reduce onset of complications
control symptoms of diabetes
near normal glycemic control and HBA1c

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40
Q

Dosing insulin

A

initial dose 0.6u/kg/day split 2/3 am and 1/3 pm
regular NPH ratio is 1:1 or 1:2
dose may need to be increased during acute illness

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41
Q

First line management to consider for obese with type 2 diabetes

A

Metformin

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42
Q

Non-aqueous pharmaceutical solutions

A

essences, collodions and elixirs

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43
Q

Drug exhibits dose dependent pharmaceutical therapeutic doses

A

Phenytoin

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44
Q

Propranolol is often prescribed with hydralazine to

A

reduce reflex tachycardia

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45
Q

ability of a liquid to dissolve

A

miscibility

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46
Q

True or false:

Lifestyle modification should not be enforced if an oral agent is to be started

A

False

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47
Q

in CHF management which is NOT correct

A

spironolatone should be avoided because of the great risk of hypokalemia

Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic

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48
Q

NOT a primary literature

A

applied therapeutic and clinical use of drug

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49
Q

references to check compatibility of drugs in parenteral administration

A

handbook on injectable drugs

micromedic

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50
Q

When a CNS depressant is prescribed, which is NOT taken at the same time?

A

Diphenhydramine

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51
Q

A 4mg dose of lorazepam administered to an adult will act as

A

Hypnotic

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52
Q

drug of choice to control pain during acute myocardial infarction

A

morphine

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53
Q

Major contraindication to the use of an OTC sympathomimetic drug

A

Hypertension

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54
Q

Category C in FDA for drug used in pregnancy

A

Animal reproduction studies have shown an adverse effect on the fetus and there are no adequate and well-controlled studies in humans, but potential benefits may warrant use of the drug in pregnant women despite potential risks.

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55
Q

Patient advice on taking Rifampicin

A

may cause discoloration of urine

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56
Q

Correct method of parenteral administration of potassium

A

Slow IV injection

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57
Q

Route of administration that will provide rapid onset of action of morphine

A

IV

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58
Q

Long-term administration of thiazide diuretics requires

A

K+ (to counteract Hypokalemia side effect)

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59
Q

What should be considered in drug therapy for hypertension?

A

Beta-blockers should be avoided in asthmatic patient

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60
Q

NOT used in theophylline toxicity management

A

Methylphenidate to reduce sedation

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61
Q

Use of ACEIs

A

Chronic Dry Cough

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62
Q

Treatment of Digoxin Toxicity

A

check Mg and K levels and correct if needed

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63
Q

The antimalarial to be avoided in glucose-6-phophate dehydrogenase deficiency

A

Primaquine

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64
Q

NOT characteristic of solution

A

the solvent and solute can be separated by filtration

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65
Q

Role of Carbidopa in treatment of Parkinsonism

A

Decrease dopamine in peripheral vessel

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66
Q

Role of B-blockers in angina

A

Beta blockers work by blocking the effect of adrenaline on the heart. This has two major beneficial effects in patients with angina: Slowing of the heart rate, in particular during periods of exercise or stress. Reducing the force of heart muscle contraction.

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67
Q

When drug is absorbed through GIT then go to liver and excreted, this process is called

A

First pass

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68
Q

All have anti-inflammatory and analgesic effect except

A

Sevredol (morphine) - opioid analgesic

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69
Q

need filtration before IV infusion

A

mannitol

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70
Q

Azaleic acid used in

A

acne

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71
Q

Hormone secreted from posterior pituitary gland

A

oxytocin

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72
Q

To increase duration of lidocaine in anaesthesia

A

Epinephrine

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73
Q

Drug absorption depend on

A

Dosage form

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74
Q

Monitoring for dose in elderly patient

A

decrease in kidney excretion

decrease in liver enzymes function

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75
Q

Metallic taste

A

Captopril

Metronidazole

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76
Q

Optimal size for ophthalmic drops

A

< 10ug

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77
Q

Amphetamine is used in

A

detect awareness in the brain of children

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78
Q

expiry November 2006

A

use until November 31 2006

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79
Q

Mechanism of action of Buspirone

A

5HT agonist
decrease serotonin
increase dopamine and norepinephrine

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80
Q

Nitroglycerine

A

Coronary vasodilation

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81
Q

Omeprazole

A

decrease gastric acid secretion

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82
Q

Aldosterone antagonist effect

A

Spironolactone

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83
Q

Change of color of urine to red

A

Nitrofurantoin

Rifampicin

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84
Q

Patient taking Gentamicin for a long time needs which monitoring test

A

Serum concentration level

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85
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class Ia

A

Quinidine

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86
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class II produce its action through

A

suppress phase 4 depolarization

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87
Q

Antiarrhythmic Class Ib produce its action through

A

shorten phase 3 repolarization

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88
Q

Chiral molecule mean

A

optical activity

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89
Q

Lovastatin produce action through

A

HMG-co reductase inhibitor

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90
Q

Lisopril, Zinopril and Zestril are brand names of

A

Lisinopril

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91
Q

am is abbreviation of

A

ante meridiem / at morning

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92
Q

gtt od bid

A

gutta oculus dexter bis in die

one drop in the right eye twice a day

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93
Q

Tegretol (Carbamazepine)

A

Status epilepticus, Seizures

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94
Q

Streptokinase

A

Pulmonary emboli

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95
Q
All of the ff are antifungal except:
Nystatin
Ketoconazole
Amphotericin
Gamciclovir
A

Gamciclovir (antivirus)

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96
Q

Ceftazidime

A

third-generation cephalosporin

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97
Q

Bambuterol

A

Asthma

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98
Q

Traveler’s diarrhea

A

Ciprofloxacin

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99
Q

Cause of traveler’s diarrhea

A

E.coli

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100
Q

Use of Diazepam

A

Anxiety

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101
Q

Solid to be reduced in size before dissolving is called

A

Disintegration

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102
Q

Benzodiazepine mechanism

A

binding δ subunit of GABAA receptor

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103
Q

Vinca alkaloids produce anticancer drugs

A

vincristine
vinblastine
vindesine

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104
Q

Warfarin monitoring therapy by

A

INR (international normalized ratio)

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105
Q

In ovulation phase, which hormone is predominant

A

Luteinizing hormone

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106
Q

Vecuronium is used as

A

Skeletal muscle relaxant

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107
Q

Most common process of sterilization

A

Moist Heat

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108
Q

Which needs serum level monitoring with Quinidine

A

Digoxin

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109
Q

Side effect of epinephrine

A

Nausea & Vomiting

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110
Q

Drug used for treatment of Migraine and Hypertension

A

Clonidine

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111
Q

Can’t be used as monotherapy in mild HTN

A

Hydralazine

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112
Q

Which has cathartic side effect

A

Magnesium sulfate

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113
Q

Normal water can be used in

A

External preparation

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114
Q

Ecothiopate mechanism is through

A

Make complex with acetylcholinesterase and inhibit its action

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115
Q

Tetracaine is used as

A

Spinal Anesthesia

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116
Q

Half life for first order kinetic

A

0.693k

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117
Q

Adsorption are affected by the ff except:

a) Physical reaction
b) Chemical reaction
c) Irreversible
d) Reversible
e) B & C

A

Chemical reaction

Irreversible

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118
Q

Charcoal produce its action through

A

Adsorption

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119
Q

Digoxin used in treatment of CHF has

A

+VE inotropic effect

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120
Q

PPM means

A

part per million OR million part

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121
Q

All are causes of secondary HTN except:

a) phyochromocytoma
b) cholinergic agent
c) sodium intake

A

b) cholinergic agent

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122
Q

Patient with CHF take digoxin and hydrochlorothiazide with X-ray indicating arthritis which is the best medication

A

Prednisolone

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123
Q

If a drug has the same active ingredient like other drug but not contain the same inactive ingredient this means?

A

Pharmaceutical equivalent

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124
Q

Concentration of a drug is 7.5mg in teaspoonful. What will be the concentration in 150ml?

A

225mg

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125
Q

Which of the ff is not a colloid:

a) krebs solution
b) albumin 2%
c) dextran
d) beta starch
e) albumin 20%

A

Krebs solution

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126
Q

Sildenafil is found in

A

Viagra

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127
Q

Alteplase is used as

A

Fibrinolytic (thrombolytic)

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128
Q

Salbutamol is used as

A

Bronchodilator

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129
Q

Podocodeine is used in

A

Dry cough

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130
Q

Which of the ff is NOT used in emergency HTN:

a) furosemide
b) pindolol
c) labetalol

A

Pindolol

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131
Q

Doxorubicin side effect

A

Cardiac toxicity

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132
Q

Which of the ff is NOT used in treatment of asthma:

a) b2 agonist
b) b2 antagonist

A

b2 antagonist

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133
Q

Which is an alkylating agent and anticancer

A

Cyclophosphamide

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134
Q

very small molecule (1 part) soluble in 10,000 part of water

A

slightly soluble

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135
Q

Benzoil is not soluble in H2O but soluble in Benzene in 25C

A

Non polar

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136
Q

A member of phenothiazines group

A

Prochlorperazine - antipsychotic

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137
Q

Primidone is a prodrug for

A

Antiepileptic
Phenobarbital
PEMA (Phenylethylmalonamide)

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138
Q

Daily recommended dose for folic acid

A

400-500mcg

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139
Q

Daily recommended dose for vitamin C in male

A

90mg/day

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140
Q

Daily recommended dose for vitamin C in female

A

50mg/day

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141
Q

Maximum daily dose for paracetamol is

A

4000mg

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142
Q

Ergot alkaloids is used as treatment for

A

Migraine

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143
Q

Buffering agent used in ophthalmic drops to

A

decrease irritation to eye and increase stability

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144
Q

Picosulphate is used as

A

Laxative

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145
Q

Digoxin toxicity increase with

A

Renal failure

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146
Q

All of the following are side effect of oral contraceptive except:

a) hypertension
b) weight gain
c) hyperglycemia
d) dizziness
e) constipation

A

Constipation

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147
Q

Which narcotic is not used today

A

Heroin

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148
Q

Drug stored in the body is found where

A

Fat

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149
Q

Which dosage form is famous

A

solution, ointment and gel

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150
Q

In case of hepatic or renal failure which muscle relaxant is recommended

A

Atracurium

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151
Q

Heparin can be monitored through

A

aPTT - activated Partial Thromboplastin Time

time taken by plasma to clot

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152
Q

Enoxoparin is administered

A

S.C.

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153
Q

If drug protein binding increases or decreases, what will be affected

A

increase of half-life

decrease of half-life

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154
Q

3rd generation cephalosporin has

A

G+ve, G-ve

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155
Q

Solubility is enhanced through

A

reduce particle size

increase surface area

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156
Q

determination analysis of solution depend on

A

nature of solute

type of solution

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157
Q

When use liquid or ointment to dissolve the solid, it is called

A

Levigation

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158
Q

Phenytoin act on

A

GABA receptor

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159
Q

NSAIDs produce action through

A

decrease prostaglandin synthesis

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160
Q

Which of the ff is NOT a characteristic of Theophylline:

a) relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle
b) increase cardiac contractility
c) nausea, abdominal disturbance
d) convulsion
e) sedation

A

Sedation

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161
Q

What is the drug of choice in the treatment of bronchospasm or asthma?

A

Salbutamol / Albuterol

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162
Q

A drug that causes depression

A

Reserpine

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163
Q

Prevoc is a trade name used as

A

antiplatelet - ticlopidine

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164
Q

How many kg is a pound

A

0.454kg

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165
Q

Sustained release dosage form is used to

A

increase half-life

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166
Q

Drug after metabolized in liver will become

A

Polar

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167
Q

a large initial dose of a substance or series of such doses given to rapidly achieve a therapeutic concentration in the body

A

Loading dose

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168
Q

Half life of a drug is 7 days, how can it be taken?

A

every week

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169
Q

Diltiazem is classified as

A

calcium-channel blocker

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170
Q

B-carotene is a precursor of

A

retinol

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171
Q

electrical property which produce impulses is called

A

automaticity

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172
Q

infusion of hypotonic solution in blood cause

A

hemolysis

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173
Q

denaturation will happen in body for which compounds?

A

proteins

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174
Q

major metabolism process in GIT is

A

Hydrolysis

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175
Q

Dosage form of nitroglycerin when used in malignant hypertension

A

Infusion

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176
Q

Drug induced lupus-like syndrome is associated with which antihypertensive

A

Hydralazine

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177
Q

Hypothyroidism causes

A

Weight gain

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178
Q

ACE I mechanism of action as antihypertension?

A

Inhibition of converting angiotensin I to angiotensin II

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179
Q

First pass effect increases what

A

Rate of absorption

Biotransformation

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180
Q

Metal used in rheumatoid arthritis

A

Gold

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181
Q

Low density lipoprotein (LDL) act as

A

carrier cholesterol in plasma

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182
Q

True solutions another name is

A

Homogenous

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183
Q

About ophthalmic preparation as single dose which is false:

a) sterile
b) purified
c) should contain preservative

A

should contain preservative

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184
Q

Most drugs are:

a) weak electrolyte
b) non electrolyte
c) non ionic
d) strong electrolyte
e) b+c

A

Weak electrolytes

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185
Q

Antipseudomonas drug

A

Vancomycin

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186
Q

Digoxin differ from digitoxin how

A

excreted unchanged in urine

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187
Q

In digoxin induced arrhythmia, what is NOT recommended?

a) stop digoxin administration
b) phenytoin administration
c) give lidocaine
d) give digoxin immune fab
e) electrical cardio

A

Electrical Cardio

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188
Q

Which is NOT asthma property:

a) bronchodilator
b) bronchospasm
c) increase mucous secretion
d) chest pain

A

Bronchodilator

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189
Q

Hormone NOT excreted from adrenal cortex

a) Growth hormone
b) Primary product
c) Mineral corticoids
d) Glucocorticoids

A

Growth hormone

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190
Q

All of the following are side effects of methotrexate except:

a) bone marrow depression
b) alopecia
c) nausea and vomiting
d) drive sex gland

A

Drive Sex Gland

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191
Q

MOA of Antipsychotic drug

A

Dopamine Receptor Inactivation

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192
Q

ACE inhibitors are contraindicated in:

A

Bilateral Renal Artery Stenosi

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193
Q

Cardioglycosidic effect

A

+ve, inotropic

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194
Q

All factors affect on Distribution of drug except:

a) tissue solubility
b) protein binding
c) molecular weight of drug
d) type enzyme response of metabolism

A

type enzyme response of metabolism

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195
Q

All factors affect on renal clearance except:

a) age
b) sex
c) both
d) disease state

A

Sex

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196
Q

Ointment is used for:

a) carrier of drug
b) emollient
c) a & b
d) increase absorption
e) increase distribution

A

Carrier of Drug

Emollient

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197
Q

In hypodynamic shock treatment, we use:

a) dopamine
b) nicotine
c) aspirin

A

Dopamine

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198
Q

Acyclovir is used for

A

Herpes Simplex

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199
Q

A lady taking chronic warfarin, which is not true:

a) avoid aspirin containing preparation
b) avoid doubling dose from herself
c) balanced food with green leaves to avoid thrombosis
d) if she is pregnant, monitor INR to avoid DVT
e) take care about nasal bleeding

A

If she is pregnant, monitor INR to avoid DVT

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200
Q

Which of the ff has least sedative action?

a) diazepam
b) estazolam
c) triazolam
d) temazepam

A

Diazepam

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201
Q

Drug that has Spasmolytic action

A

Amphetamine

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202
Q

Desmopressin is used in

A

Nocturnal enuresis &

Diabetes insipidus

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203
Q

Pentoxifylline is used as

A

Peripheral Vasodilator

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204
Q

Normal water is used for

A

External Preparation

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205
Q

Ceftazidime

A

3rd generation Cephalosporin

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206
Q

About Aminoglycoside, which is NOT true?

a) has gram + activity
b) less toxicity
c) narrow therapeutic
d) compatible with other drug
e) usually IV or IM

A

Less toxicity

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207
Q

About Norepinephrine, which is NOT true?

a) increase BP
b) vasoconstrictive
c) used in cardiogenic shock
d) effective orally
e) SC

A

effective orally

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208
Q

Pharmacokinetic Constant

A

Zero order

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209
Q

Which of the ff is NOT prednisolone side effect?

a) cataract
b) hypoglycemia
c) skeletal muscle weakness
d) sodium retention
e) lowered resistance to infections

A

Hypoglycemia

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210
Q

When considering drug therapy for hypertension, which is true?

a) combination of drugs always preferred
b) hydralazine is first line therapy in young hypertension
c) furosemide should be administered before meal to improve absorption
d) b-blockers should be avoided in asthmatic patient
e) ACEis are recommended in pregnant women

A

B-blockers should be avoided in asthmatic patient

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211
Q

Solutions are better than solid dosage form because of

A

Faster action

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212
Q

One of the ff is NOT used to cover bitter taste

a) film coat
b) enteric coat
c) grinding of tablet

A

Grinding of Tablet

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213
Q

A tricyclic antidepressant that is a tertiary amine

A

Amitriptyline

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214
Q

Antihypertensive that is used in pregnancy

A

Alpha Methyldopa

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215
Q

Drug used for peptic ulcer

A

Losec (Omeprazole)

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216
Q

Drug infusion rate is 2mg/kg/hr, infused for 12hours, for 70kg patient, what is the total dose?

A

2x70x12 = 1680mg

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217
Q

GMP means

A

Good Manufacturing Practice

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218
Q

According to Sterile method, what is false about filtration?

A

able to filter viscous substance

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219
Q

When you know the preservative used with antibiotic is not suitable, what should be done?

A

Use another that is suitable

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220
Q

Diltiazem, Nifedipine and Felodipine act by

A

block Ca to intracellular & increase metabolism from storage site

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221
Q

All of this affect rate of absorption except:

a) chemical stability
b) PH
c) protein binding
d) a & b
e) b & c

A

Protein binding

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222
Q

Alteplase and Streptokinase used in

A

Pulmonary Emboli

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223
Q

Cholestyramine Resin act by

A

Anion exchange

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224
Q

Concentration of ionized & unionized calculated by

A

Henderson Hasselbalch equation

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225
Q

Light sensitive drug should be stored in

A

Amber glass

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226
Q

Electromagnetic rays

A

Gamma rays

X-rays

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227
Q

Isoproterenol (isoprenaline) is categorized as

A

Adrenergic agonist medication

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228
Q

Coal tar uses

A

Psoriasis

Dandruff

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229
Q

Most common reaction catalysed by cytochrome P450

A

Monooxygenase

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230
Q

Most common phase I reaction

A

Oxidation

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231
Q

Which of the ff is NOT used in Peptic ulcer:

a) tetracycline
b) itraconazole
c) metronidazole
d) bismuth subsalicylate
e) clarithromycin

A

Itraconazole

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232
Q

Which of the ff act as Alpha-1 blocker:

a) hydralazine
b) terazosin
c) propranolol
d) captopril
e) clonidine

A

Terazosin

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233
Q

Comparison between sterile water and water for injection

A

Pyrogen-free

Isotonic

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234
Q

Quinidine has similar action with

A

Procainamide

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235
Q

Which of the ff drugs has side effect of lupus like syndrome:

a) lidocaine
b) minoxidil
c) procainamide
d) hydrochlorothiazide

A

Procainamide

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236
Q

Over dose of digoxin, we use

A

Antidote FAB fragment

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237
Q

Ampicillin has similar action with

A

Cephalexin

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238
Q

Cephalosporin act as:

A

Inhibitors of cell wall synthesis

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239
Q

antibiotic used as anti-pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

meropenem

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240
Q

antipseudomonal antibiotic

A

Piperacillin
Carbenicillin
Ticarcillin

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241
Q

Auxiliary label are written on box contain Co-trimoxazole, all are true except:

a) shake the bottle before use
b) suspension
c) freezing of drug
d) keep out of reach of children

A

Freezing of Drug

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242
Q

Ipratropium bromide MOA

A

anti-muscarinic bronchodilator

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243
Q

Keep in cool place means

A

10-20C

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244
Q

Amphetamine act as:

A

Indirect-acting adrenergic agonist

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245
Q

Increasing the plasma HDL level

A

Reduces risk of atherosclerosis

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246
Q

Warfarin acts as

A

Anticoagulant

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247
Q

Cyclophosphamide side effects are:

a) blurred vision
b) vomiting, alopecia
c) bone marrow depression
d) a & b
e) b & c

A

b & c
Vomiting, alopecia
Bone marrow depression

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248
Q

Drug used in open angle glaucoma

A

Pilocarpine

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249
Q

All ACEi are prodrug except

A

Captopril

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250
Q

Ophthalmic preparation preferred to be taken

A

Solution > Ointment > Suspension

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251
Q

Digoxin toxicity precipitated by

A

Hypokalemia

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252
Q

A drug that has anti-inflammatory effect

A

Ibuprofen

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253
Q

Digitoxin effect in ECG

A

Prolong PR

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254
Q

Instrument to use in relative bioequivalent compared between standard drug and test drug

A

AUC (Area Under the Curve)

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255
Q

Cephalexin

A

1st generation cephalosporin

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256
Q

After myocardial infarction, we use:

A

Anti-platelet such as Aspirin

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257
Q

Omeprazole is used for

A

Peptic ulcer

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258
Q

Alpha 2 agonist act by

A

Decrease Blood Pressure

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259
Q

Equation that determine acid and base degree is

A

Bronsted equation

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260
Q

Isoniazid is used in

A

Tuberculosis

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261
Q

Buspirone MOA

A

Serotonin (5HT2a) receptor

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262
Q

All these cases occur with thiazides except:

a) hypernatremia
b) hyperglycemia
c) hypokalemia
d) hyperuricemia
e) hyponatremia

A

Hypernatremia

*Thiazides prevent reabsorption of Na

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263
Q

Drug of choice for Myxedema (Hypothyroidism)

A

Thyroxine sodium

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264
Q

Vitamin A daily dose for correction of the deficiency

A

30,000-50,000IU/day

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265
Q

Vitamin A daily dose for therapy

A

100,000-200,000IU/day

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266
Q

All these cases occur with Thiazides except:

a) hypercalcemia
b) hypoglycemia
c) hypokalemia
d) hyperuricemia
e) hyponatremia

A

Hypoglycemia

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267
Q

Zidovudine is used for

A

HIV

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268
Q

Bisacodyl is used as

A

Laxative

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269
Q

POM means

A

prescription only medicine

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270
Q

Concentration of drug on expiry date

A

from 90%-110%

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271
Q

Surfactant not used orally

A

sodium lauryl sulphate

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272
Q

drug transfer through the cell membrane is

A

Passive diffusion

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273
Q

Calcipotriol is indicated for

A

Psoriasis

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274
Q

Drug that makes water retention

A

Indomethazine

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275
Q

Nitroglycerin effect

A

Vasodilation of Coronary Artery

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276
Q

Antipsychotic drugs act as

A

Dopaminergic antagonist

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277
Q

Vitamin K is antagonist of

A

Warfarin

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278
Q

Protamine sulphate is antidote of

A

Heparin

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279
Q

Promethazine is used as

A

Antihistaminic (pruritis, cough, antiemetic)

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280
Q

Prazosin MOA

A

Alpha 1 blocker

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281
Q

Esmolol MOA

A

Short-acting b-blocker used in emergency acute arrhythmia as IV administration

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282
Q

Which of the ff has no effect in drug response?

a) nutrition
b) genetic
c) mental status
d) age
e) disease

A

Mental Status

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283
Q

Cyclizine is used in

A

Nausea and Vomiting

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284
Q

Which of the ff is not side effect of propantheline:

a) blurred vision
b) dry mouth
c) constipation
d) bronchospasm
e) urinary retention

A

Bronchospasm

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285
Q

Probenecid increases the concentration of penicillin through

A

Decrease renal excretion

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286
Q

One of the ff is NOT a toxic effect of methyldopa:

a) sedation
b) drug fever
c) gangrene
d) anemia
e) hepatitis

A

Gangrene

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287
Q

Patient taking cisplatin should be taken with

A

Granisetron (anti emetic)

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288
Q

Purified water cannot be used in

A

Ophthalmic preparation

IV solution

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289
Q

Ascorbic acid is

A

Vitamin C

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290
Q

MOA of Tricyclic antidepressant

A

Serotonin & NE reuptake inhibitor

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291
Q

Active immunity can be conferred by

A

Vaccine

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292
Q

MOA of Echothiophate

A

Form stable complex with cholinesterase enzyme
Indirect-acting cholinergic agonists
Anticholinesterases - irreversible

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293
Q

Stat means

A

Immediately

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294
Q

Volume of blood cleared through kidney

A

Renal clearance

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295
Q

Ventamax is a

A

Bronchodilator

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296
Q

Diltiazem is NOT used in which of the ff:

a) heart failure
b) angina pectoris
c) hypertension
d) SA node block
e) headache

A

Heart failure

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297
Q

Drug used in diarrhea & constipation

A

Polycarbophil

Pectin

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298
Q

Alpha blocker side effect

A

Postural hypotension

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299
Q

Dose of Cefixime

A

400mg

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300
Q

Dose of Aspirin as antiplatelet

A

80mg

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301
Q

Co-trimethoxazole percentage of trimethoprim to sulfamethoxazole

A

1:5

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302
Q

Diazepam overdose treatment

A

Flumazenil

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303
Q

Theophylline side effect is

A

Insomnia

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304
Q

Dipivefrin is for

A

Glaucoma

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305
Q

Which of the ff does NOT occur in digitalis toxicity:

a) hypokalemia
b) hypomagnesemia
c) hypocalcemia
d) hypothyroidism
e) impaired kidney function

A

Hypocalcemia

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306
Q

Verapamil is categorized as

A

Class IV Antiarrhythmic

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307
Q

Patient who is allergic to penicillins use

A

Erythromycin

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308
Q

Tetracaine is used for

A

Spinal Anaesthesia

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309
Q

Sterility through 0.22m filter does NOT remove

A

Virus

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310
Q

Not used clinically anymore:

a) heroin
b) morphine
c) codeine
d) oxycodone

A

Heroin

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311
Q

Drug increases action of Morphine

A

Amiodarone

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312
Q

Side effect of class 2 antiarrhythmic

A

Bronchospasm

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313
Q

In CHF, we use digoxin to

A

Increase Myocardiac Contraction

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314
Q

Least sedating:

a) diazepam
b) chlordiazepoxide
c) probamate
d) oxazepam
e) buspirone

A

Buspirone

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315
Q

Drug NOT decreases LDL

a) simvastatin
b) clofibrate
c) nicotinamide
d) propecol

A

nicotinamide

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316
Q

Raloxifene is a what

A

Selective estrogen modulator contraindicated in DVT patient

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317
Q

Promethazine is used for

A

Antihistamine

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318
Q

Which of the ff is not used in diagnosis of acute MI

a) albumin
b) signs and symptoms
c) troponin
d) scurvy
e) a & d

A

Albumin

Scurvy

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319
Q

Cushing syndrome is caused by

A

A pituitary gland tumor (pituitary adenoma). A noncancerous (benign) tumor of the pituitary gland, located at the base of the brain, secretes an excess amount of ACTH, which in turn stimulates the adrenal glands to make more cortisol.

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320
Q

q.d.s means

A

quater die sumendum

take 4 times daily

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321
Q

Vitamin A to be avoided in

A

Pregnancy

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322
Q

Which is NOT a effect of theophylline:

a) peripheral vasoconstriction
b) cardiac stimulation
c) diuresis
d) relaxation of stomach muscles

A

Peripheral Vasoconstriction

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323
Q

Not expected with inhaled smoke of Cannabis

a) increase pulse rate
b) anorexia
c) preseptal changes
d) vascular changes of the eye

A

anorexia

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324
Q

Na picosulfate is used as

A

Laxative

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325
Q

Dopamine is used in cardiac shock and acts by

A

selectively dilating renal and mesenteric vessels

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326
Q

Verapamil can increase effect of theophylline, carbamazepine and digoxin by

A

acting as a liver enzyme inhibitor

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327
Q

used in treatment of Parkinsonism

A

Dopamine

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328
Q

Aspartame is used as a

A

Sweetener

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329
Q

True or False:

HRT should be done in ALL postmenopausal women

A

False

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330
Q

Properties of catecholamine

A

rapid metabolism by COMT and MAO

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331
Q

Antihypertensive drug that acts as alpha 1 blocker in artery and vein

A

Terazosin

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332
Q

ACEi & ARBs are contraindicated in

A

Renal artery stenosis patients

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333
Q

Cycloserine is used in TB for how long?

A

18-24 months

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334
Q

Natural water can be used in

A

External preparation

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335
Q

Ideal volume of eye solution

A

<10ug

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336
Q

Dipivefrine is

A

Epinephrine analogue used in open-angle glaucoma

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337
Q

Doxorubicin is used as

A

antiviral for herpes simplex

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338
Q

When a pharmacy owner gives direction to an employee in his pharmacy to monitor policies and regulation, it is a

A

consultative

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339
Q

All are action of caffeine except:

a) CNS stimulant
b) skeletal muscle relaxant
c) diuretics
d) cardiac stimulant

A

skeletal muscle relaxant

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340
Q

Nitroglycerin side effect

A

tachycardia

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341
Q

Propranolol is a

A

non-selective b-blocker

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342
Q

Which of the ff drug causes tachycardia:

a) propranolol
b) atenolol
c) hydralazine

A

hydralazine

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343
Q

Enkephalin / Encephalin is a peptide that has

A

similar action to morphine

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344
Q

Pentoxifylline is used as

A

Vasodilator

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345
Q

main site of excretion of the drug in the body

A

kidney

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346
Q

clofibrate act by

A

decreasing lipoprotein

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347
Q

water used for reconstitution of large dose of parenteral is

A

sterile water for injection

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348
Q

All of the ff are side effect of hydrocortisone except:

a) sodium retention
b) glucose intolerance
c) arthritis
d) osteoporosis

A

arthrisis

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349
Q

Reserpine side effect

A

Depression

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350
Q

pH is used to

A

determine acidity

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351
Q

enzyme cytochrome P450 was discovered by

A

Axelrod and Brodie

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352
Q

Bioavailability means the drug reached

A

blood circulation

353
Q

Which of the ff drugs is a systemic amoebicide?

a) diloxanide furoate
b) pyrimethamine
c) emetine
d) sodium stibogluconate

A

emetine

354
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of all forms of Schistosomiasis

A

Praziquantel

355
Q

Which of the ff drugs can be used for the treatment of influenza A infection?

a) zidovudine
b) amantadine
c) ribavirin
d) vidarabine

A

amantadine

356
Q

Which of the ff drug is used in the treatment of Leishmaniasis?

a) pyrimethamine
b) diloxanide
c) sodium stibogluconate
d) emetine

A

sodium stibogluconate

357
Q

All of the ff preparations contain alcohol except:

a) syrup simplex
b) aromatic ammonia spirit
c) terpin hydrate elixir
d) belladonna tincture

A

syrup simplex

358
Q

Which of the ff solutions is used as an astringent?

a) strong iodine solution
b) aluminium acetate topical solution
c) acetic acid
d) benzalkonium chloride solution

A

aluminium acetate topical solution

359
Q

Extrapyramidal adverse effects are caused by the blocking of

A

Dopamine receptors in the brain

360
Q

Steven Johnson syndrome is a severe

A

Skin reaction

361
Q

Which of the ff are side effects of phenytoin treatment?

a) acne
b) hirsutism
c) gingival hyperplasia
d) all of the above

A

all
acne
hirsutism
gingival hyperplasia

362
Q

All factors affect on distribution of drug except:

a) partition coefficient
b) rate of blood flow to tissue
c) pH

A

pH - absorption

363
Q

Which of the ff is NOT betamethasone side effect?

a) hypoglycemia
b) skeletal muscle weakness
c) sodium retention
d) lowered resistance to infections

A

hypoglycemia

364
Q

Which of the ff are causes of edema?

a) increase hydrostatic pressure
b) decrease oncotic pressure
c) increase capillary permeability
d) all of the above

A

All
increase hydrostatic pressure
decrease oncotic pressure
increase capillary permeability

365
Q

All these are side effects of Chloramphenicol except:

a) irreversible aplastic anemia
b) optic neuritis
c) peripheral neuritis
d) iron deficiency anemia

A

iron deficiency anemia

366
Q

Ticlopidine is used as

A

Antiplatelet

367
Q

All these drugs are fibrinolytic except:

a) dipyridamole
b) streptokinase
c) urokinase
d) none

A

dipyridamole

368
Q

All these drugs cause anti-metabolic effect except:

a) methotrexate
b) fluorouracil
c) cytarabine
d) cyclophosphamide

A

cyclophosphamide

369
Q

All of these drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except:

a) selegiline HCl
b) carbidopa
c) pergolide
d) nedocromil sodium

A

nedocromil sodium

370
Q

cardiac arrest could be managed by the ff except:

a) ephedrine
b) lidocaine
c) propranolol
d) normal saline

A

propranolol

371
Q

Insulin which can be given as IV is

A

regular type

372
Q

All these drugs are antibacterial except:

a) mbine
b) lomefloxacin
c) cefoperazone

A

zalcitabine

373
Q

All these are natural estrogens except:

a) mestranol
b) oestrone
c) oestriol
d) oestradiol

A

mestranol

374
Q

Which one of the ff has vasodilator effect:

a) nicotine
b) cholestyramine
c) urokinase
d) vitamin D

A

nicotine

375
Q

One of the ff is NOT from Quinolone group:

a) nalidixic acid
b) quinine
c) enoxacin
d) norfloxacin

A

quinine

376
Q

One of the ff is NOT for epilepsy:

a) clonazepam
b) phenytoin
c) primidone
d) imipramine

A

imipramine

377
Q

Sumatriptan is used for

A

Treatment of Migraine

378
Q

All of the ff are for prophylaxis of asthma except:

a) ketotifen
b) nedocromil sodium
c) sodium cromoglycate
d) salbutamol

A

salbutamol

379
Q

All of the ff is NSAH (non-sedating antihistamine) except:

a) loratidine
b) cetirizine
c) astemizole
d) azotodin

A

azotodin - no such drug

380
Q

All of the ff are controlled drugs except:

a) Rivotril
b) Epanutin
c) Stesolid
d) Diazepam

A

Epanutin

381
Q

Which one of the symptoms does not occur with morphine:

a) diarrhea
b) respiratory depression
c) constipation
d) vomiting

A

diarrhea

382
Q

Which one of these drugs is NOT used for acute pain:

a) naproxen
b) colchicine
c) codeine
d) prednisolone

A

prednisolone

383
Q

Hepatitis vaccine dose is

A

3 times a year

384
Q

One of the ff is given once daily:

a) amorphous insulin
b) protamine zinc insulin
c) neutral insulin
d) regular insulin

A

Protamine zinc insulin

385
Q

Dobutamine is given IV because

A

It is not soluble in gastric pH

386
Q

Amiloride and Triamterene causes

A

Hyperkalemia

387
Q

Cefaclor is a

A

2nd generation cephalosporin

388
Q

Which aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally?

a) gentamycin
b) neomycin
c) amikacin
d) tobramycin

A

Neomycin

389
Q

infusion of hypertonic solution in blood causes

A

shrinking of blood cells

390
Q

Isoproterenol is a

A

B agonist

391
Q

Enkephalins are peptides that

A

exert actions resembling those of opiates

392
Q

How to measure severity of immunodeficiency in HIV

A

CD4 count

393
Q

The ethical principle of veracity requires that:

A

we act with honesty, without deception

394
Q

A patient purchasing sublingual nitroglycerin tablets should be told to store the medication:

A

in an Amber glass bottle with a metal cap

395
Q

Nonmaleficence

A

avoid, remove or prevent harm from people

396
Q

Hydroxyurea is a

A

antineoplastic drug

397
Q

Which of the ff is taken orally:

a) estrogen
b) estrogen gluconate
c) estrogen maleate
d) all of the above

A

estrogen gluconate

398
Q

Responsibility of phamacist in hospital is

A

deal with drug interaction

399
Q

plasma concentration of drug in all body is

A

Therapeutic volume

400
Q

What is domperidone

A

Anti-emetic without CNS effect

401
Q

Prescription of narcotics in the pharmacy should be kept for how many years

A

5 years

402
Q

Pka for normal water in room temp

A

14

403
Q

Drug that makes urine red other than rifampicin

A

Phenazopyridine

404
Q

Syncope (fainting) may occur with 1st dose of which drug

A

Prazosin

405
Q

Action of digoxin can be reduced with

A

Hyperthyroidism

406
Q

Main cause of digitalis toxicity is

A

Renal failure

407
Q

Digitalis arrhythmia can be treated with

A

Lidocaine

408
Q

Used in Ventricular Arrhythmia with Heart block

A

Procainamide

409
Q

Which one is antiarrhythmic class 1A:

a) phenytoin
b) disopyramide
c) propranolol
d) verapamil
e) propafenone

A

Disopyramide

410
Q

Anticancer derived from venca is

A

Cisplatin

411
Q

Used for trigeminal neuralgia

A

Tegretol (Carbamazepine)

412
Q

Solution contain 9ppm of NaCl, concentration of the compound in the solution is

A

0.009

413
Q

Process require CYP450

A

Oxidation

414
Q

About steady state concentration during IV administration

A

Directly proportional to infusion rate

Inversely proportional to total body clearance

415
Q

Which of the ff decrease gastric emptying rate:

a) metoclopramide
b) atropine
c) hypothyroidism
d) a & b
e) b & c

A

Atropine

Hypothyroidism

416
Q

Side effect of Quinidine

A

Cinchonism

417
Q

About digitoxin, which is false:

a) oral bioavailability 100%
b) protein binding 95%
c) half life is 7 days
d) mainly hepatic metabolism by microsomal

A

Oral bioavailability 100%

418
Q

Volatile substance given by inhalation

A

Halothane

419
Q

To compare between 2 drugs, use:

A

Pharmacodynamic parameter

420
Q

In tolerance

A

Patient need more dose to obtain the same effect

421
Q

Causes of hypothyroidism

A

Iodine deficiency

Low hypothalamus and Pituitary hormones

422
Q

Phenytoin uses

A

Anti convulsant
Treatment of irregular heart beat
Treatment of painful nerve conduction

423
Q

Arrhythmia is due to:

A

Dysfunction to generate heart pulse or conduction of it

424
Q

Guanethidin side effects

A

Prevent ejaculation
Orthostatic hypotension
Diarrhea

425
Q

Not fom WBC

A

Reticulocyte

426
Q

Minoxidil MOA

A

dilates arteries only

427
Q

Mizolastine used as

A

non-sedating antihistaminic

428
Q

All these drugs are antimetabolite except

A

Cisplatin

Cyclophosphamide

429
Q

Digitoxin, what is not true

A

Taken only orally

430
Q

Captopril and Enalapril do all the ff except:

a) increase renin conc in blood
b) inhibit an enzyme
c) competitively blocks angiotensin at its receptor
d) raises the blood potassium concentration

A

competitively blocks angiotensin at its receptor

431
Q

Various opiates may be used as all of the ff except:

a) analgesics
b) anti-inflammatories
c) antidiarrheals
d) aids to anesthesia
e) antitussive

A

anti-inflammatories

432
Q

Which of the ff action is not seen with sympathomimetics?

a) pupil constriction
b) increased heart rate
c) bronchodilation
d) systemic blood vessel constriction

A

pupil constriction

433
Q

Which of the ff beta-adrenergic agents is not short acting?

a) pirbuterol
b) salmeterol
c) terbutaline
d) albuterol
e) none of the above

A

Salmeterol

434
Q

Which of the ff drugs is not a tricyclic antidepressants?

a) trimipramine
b) maprotiline
c) nortyptiline

A

Maprotiline

435
Q

Most common disintegrator

A

Starch

436
Q

found in vitamin b12

A

Cobalt

437
Q

Gums are used in tabletting as

A

binding agents

438
Q

Cyclosporine is used for

A

prevention of transplant rejection

439
Q

Ultra-short acting barbiturates are used primarily as

A

pre-anesthetic agents

440
Q

for a 4 year old child, the maximum daily dose of paracetamol is

A

1g

441
Q

Which one of the ff cannot be dispensed without prescription:

a) ibuprofen
b) doxycycline
c) aspirin
d) bisacodyl

A

Doxycycline

442
Q

aim in the management of uncomplicated hypertension

A

85/130

443
Q

solid dosage forms are better than solution dosage form because:

A

accurate dose
easy to handle
more stable

444
Q

Tolerance is a problem when using nitroglycerin, which of the ff is true:

a) tolerance doesn’t occur in young patient
b) over 50 years patient doesn’t develop tolerance
d) dosing schedule may affect tolerance
d) isosorbide dinitrate doesn’t develop tolerance

A

Dosing schedule may affect tolerance

445
Q

electromagnetic waves in increase ranking in air

A

alpha, beta, gamma

446
Q

Grey man syndrome

A

Amiodarone

447
Q

Indapamide is used in

A

Pulmonary edema

Essential hypertension

448
Q

One of the ff is not related to heparin:

a) prevent blood clotting
b) decrease antithrombin time
c) prevent formation of factor VII
d) used in pulmonary emboli

A

prevent formation of factor VII

449
Q

Hypertonic solutins can be adjusted by

A

make dilution by adding more solvent

450
Q

Enterohepatic recycling depend on all of the ff except:

a) dosage form of the drug
b) extent of drug passed in feces
c) extent of drug absorption from stomach
d) gallbladder state

A

extent of drug passed in feces

451
Q

drugs that show most multidrug resistance

A

antibiotics

anticancer

452
Q

The ff liquids are least likely to be miscible:

a) polar + polar
b) nonpolar + polar
c) nonpolar + nonpolar
d) all of the above will be miscible
e) b and c

A

nonpolar + polar

453
Q

The following properties are similar for both solutions and suspensions:
A. The components of both solutions and suspensions can be separated from each other by physical processes.
B. Solutions and suspensions are composed of two or more components.
C. Solute in the solutions and suspensions settle out over a period of time.
D. Both A and B
E. Both Band C

A

A. The components of both solutions and suspensions can be separated from each other by physical processes.
B. Solutions and suspensions are composed of two or more components.

454
Q

Side effects of albuterol include which of the ff?

a) bradycardia
b) tachycardia
c) convulsion
d) hypotension
e) alopecia

A

Tachycardia

455
Q

Which of the following side effects is associated with the use of norepinephrine:
A. Nausea and vomiting.
B. Ischemic damage due to vasoconstriction and tissue hypoxia.
C. Hypoglycemia due to increase insulin release.
D. Skin rashes.
E. Headache and constipation.

A

Ischemic damage due to vasoconstriction and tissue hypoxia.

456
Q

pharmacological property of amphetamine is

A

causes release of stored norepinephrine

457
Q

First dose phenomenon associated with prazosin

A

marked postural hypotension 30 to 90 mins following initial dose

458
Q

All of the ff are diazoxide side effects except:

a) tachycardia
b) diuresis
c) hyperglycemia
d) hyperuricemia
e) hypotension

A

diuresis

459
Q

Causes hypotension due to blockage of efferent limb baroreceptor reflex

A

Bretylium

460
Q

Thiopental is a

A

short acting barbiturates

461
Q

Which of the ff is not macrolide antibiotic?

a) erythromycin
b) spiramycin
c) chloramphenicol
d) clarithromycin
e) azithromycin

A

chloramphenicol

462
Q

Digoxin action except:

a) +ve inotropic
b) shorten refractory period in atrial and ventricular myocardial
c) increase conduction velocity in AV node
d) contraction of myocardial muscle

A

increase conduction velocity in AV node

463
Q

Milrinone has the ff except:

a) +ve inotropic
b) vasodilator
c) increase Ca intercellular
d) phosphodiesterase inhibitor
e) potentiate the effect of cAMP

A

increase Ca intercellular

464
Q

To decrease radiation exposure, all are correct except:

a) increase the distance from radiation source
b) out from the place of radiation
c) put shelves
e) decrease the activity of radiation person

A

decrease the activity of radiation person

465
Q

how many gm of water ad to 5% KCl solution to make 100g of solution w/w?

A

95

466
Q

Causes hypertensive crisis if withdrawn suddenly

A

Clonidine

467
Q

Which one is not effect of nitroglycerin:

a) vasodilation
b) relax of biliary muscle
c) slow heart rate
d) taken sublingually
e) decrease blood pressure

A

slow heart rate

468
Q

Drugs have different crystal structures so different in

A

polymorphism

469
Q

Which of these have intrinsic sympathomimetics effect:

a) labetalol
b) timolol
c) nadolol
d) pindolol
e) propranolol

A

pindolol

470
Q

protect from light in usp means

A

light resistant container

471
Q

daily intake of vitamin A for adult female is

A

700mcg

472
Q

Most potent anti-inflammatory corticosteroid systemically is

A

dexamethasone

473
Q

Suspension eye drop differ than ophthalmic solution in:

A

less commonly used

used for insoluble drugs

474
Q

Cushing-like syndrome is due to

A

Adrenal hyperplasia

475
Q

Morphine causes respiratory depression by

A

depression of respiratory center in brain

476
Q

Calcium-channel blockers mode of action

A

Decrease the inward calcium to cells

477
Q

Phenylephrine

a) used in nasal decongestant
b) in high doses stimulate b adrenergic receptor
c) not substrate for catecholamine or methyltransferase
d) all of the above
e) both a and c

A

both a and c
used in nasal decongestant
not substrate for catecholamine or methyltransferase

478
Q

Enzyme kinetics law

A

Michaelis-menten law

479
Q

Amphetamine pharmacological action

A

indirect acting adrenergic agonist

480
Q

most described dosage solid form

A

tablet

481
Q

has 5-HT antagonist and H1 antihistamine effects

A

Cyproheptadine

482
Q

Dobutamine is used as

A

in cardiac surgery

483
Q

Controlled released drug delivery depends on:

A

ready programmed & no influence of the body fluid

484
Q

All of these are anticholinergic except:

a) atropine sulphate
b) hydrotropine
c) mebeverine
d) ipratropium bromide
e) tiotropium bromide

A

mebeverine

485
Q
all these drugs used in amoebic dysentery except:
metronidazole
diloxanide
gentamycin
tetracycline
A

gentamycin

486
Q

Terbutaline is used as

A

Antiasthmatic

487
Q

Freeze drying is done by

A

Sublimation

488
Q

Converting big fragments into small fragments is

A

Reduction

489
Q

p.r.

A

for the rectum (per rectum)

490
Q

qqh means

A

quatra quaque hora

491
Q

Bretylium class 3 anti arrhythmic is

A

adrenergic neuronal blocking agent

K channel blocker

492
Q

Amantadine

A

increases dopamine release and blocks dopamine reuptake

493
Q

Diphtheria is an upper respiratory tract illness caused by

A

Corynebacterium diphtheria

494
Q

Indamide use

A

Sulfonyl urea

495
Q

Drug used in absence seizure

A

Ethosuximide

496
Q

Angiotec is the trade name of

A

Enalapril

497
Q

The parameter describing dissociation in solution

A

pka

498
Q

reserpine mechanism

A

deplete catecholamines from sympathetic nerve endings

499
Q

MAOi work through

A

increase availability of monoamine neurotransmitter

500
Q

main side effect of nitrites

A

headache

501
Q

volatile liquid drug given as inhaler

A

amyl nitrite

502
Q

phentolamine (regitine)

A

reversible nonselective alpha-adrenergic antagonist

503
Q

ACE mechanism is

A

converting Ag1 to vasoconstrictor Ag2

504
Q

Differences between captopril and other ACE inhibitors

A

differ in potency (captopril is more potent)

505
Q

diuretic which is used with Captopril

A

Thiazide

506
Q

Effects of Captopril

A

inhibits the conversion of Ag1 to Ag2
effective hypotensive when others are contraindicated
has a valuable role in heart failure

507
Q

ACE inhibitors are used in the treatment of

A

Hypertension

508
Q

B-blocker is used for

A

Essential Hypertension

509
Q

Which of the ff is not cardio specific B-blocker

A

Labetalol

510
Q

One of these is not like the others:

a) timolol : non-selective B-blocker
b) acebutolol : selective B-blocker
c) labetalol : non-selective B-blocker
d) betaxolol : non-selective B-blocker

A

Betaxolol is a selective B1 receptor blocker

511
Q

All of the ff are B2 antagonists except:

a) salbutamol
b) metoprolol
c) nadolol
d) atenolol

A

Salbutamol - B2 agonist

512
Q

B1 agonist cause

A

increase in oxygen consumption
increasing ectopic effect
increasing inotropic effect

513
Q

Quinidine sulphate is

A

anti-arrhythmic agent

514
Q

Procainamide is like

A

Quinidine

515
Q

Which one is not Ca channel blocker?

a) Verapamil
b) Diltiazem
c) Amlodipine
d) Cinnarizine

A

Cinnarizine

516
Q

Thiabendazole is one of the Thiazide diuretics

A

False

517
Q

Potassium supplement therapy must not be given with

A

Triamterene

518
Q

Nitroprusside Na is

A

Potent Vasodilator

519
Q

All these drugs are anti-cholinergic except:

a) ipratropium
b) atropine sulphate
c) benztropine mesylate
d) dobutamine

A

Dobutamine - sympathomimetic drug

520
Q

Epinephrine has alpha and beta agonist activity so it causes

A

Increasing in heart rate and increasing in blood pressure

521
Q

Dobutamine is given IV because

A

it is not stable in gastric acid of stomach

522
Q

Hydralazine is used as antihypertensive through

A

Vasodilation

523
Q

Which of these has no vasodilator effect?

a) methyldopa
b) hydralazine
c) enalapril
d) prazosin

A

Methyldopa

524
Q

Which one has vasodilator effect?

a) nicotinic acid
b) nalidixic acid
c) vitamin a
d) urokinase

A

nicotinic acid

525
Q

Zinnat contains

A

Cefuroxime

526
Q

Nitrofurantoin is indicated for

A

Urinary Tract Infection (UTI)

527
Q

Ipeca is emetic agent which induces emesis through

A

Stimulation of the stomach

Stimulation of the CTZ (Chemoreceptor Trigger Zone)

528
Q

Theophylline is a

A

Bronchodilator

529
Q

Theophylline dose in children

A

increased metabolism and dose must be increased

530
Q

modern method in treating asthma

A

long acting bronchodilator + corticosteroid

531
Q

Tx of anaphylactic reaction is indicated in the ff except:

a) hydrocortisone
b) cimetidine
c) human albumin
d) epinephrine

A

cimetidine

532
Q

introduction of emesis is not indicated in the ff except:

a) caustic substance ingestion
b) CNS
c) seizures
d) paracetamol poisoning

A

paracetamol poisoning

533
Q

All of these are anions except:

a) phosphate
b) acetate
c) sodium
d) chloride

A

Sodium

534
Q

Triazole is a

A

antifungal

535
Q

With minoxidil, all these parameters should be monitored except:

a) urine flow rate
b) blood pressure
c) pulse rate
d) body weight

A

body weight

536
Q

Allopurinol indications

A

prophylaxis from gout

treatment of high uric acid and calcium oxalate renal stones

537
Q

famotidine is H2 antagonist used for

A

treatment of gastric and duodenal ulcers

538
Q

type 1 diabetes advises to use

A

insulin

539
Q

type 2 diabetes advises to use

A

sulphonylurea

540
Q

Vasopressin is used in the treatment of

A

diabetes insipidus

541
Q

enalapril is the prodrug of

A

enalaprilate

542
Q

which one is prodrug:

a) pivampicillin
b) erythromycin
c) ampicillin

A

pivampicillin

543
Q

Cytotec is

A

used for gastric and duodenal ulcer

contraindicated in pregnancy

544
Q

Simvastatin is used for

A

hypolipidemic action

545
Q

acetohexamide is

A

hypoglycemic

546
Q

Which of the ff is contraindicated in pregnancy?

a) ciprofloxacin
b) ethambutol
c) chlorpheniramine
d) sucralfate

A

ciprofloxacin

547
Q

Which one of the ff is not contraindicated in pregnancy?

a) methyldopa
b) enalapril
c) lisinopril
d) captopril

A

methyldopa

548
Q

All these medications are used in the treatment of T.B. except:

a) INH
b) Rifampicin
c) Cycloserine
d) Cyclosporine

A

Cyclosporine

549
Q

INH means

A

isoniazid

isonicotinic acid hydrazide

550
Q

Duration of treatment of TB by CTC

A

Six month and over

551
Q

Amantadine is used for all of the ff except:

a) antiviral
b) for influenza A
c) anti-parkinsonism
d) for influenza B

A

for influenza B

552
Q

All these drugs are antiviral except:

a) amantadine
b) zidovudine
c) acyclovir
d) aluerin

A

aluerin (anti spasmodic)

553
Q

All are viral infection except:

a) hepatitis B
b) influenza
c) herpes zoster
d) rickettsia

A

rickettsia (bacteria)

554
Q

Drugs to pass BBB should be

A

unionized lipophilic

555
Q

Chloramphenicol affects liver inhibitory enzyme, so:

A

decrease metabolism and increases response

556
Q

Which one is an OTC drug?

a) simple analgesic
b) warfarin
c) ciprofloxacin

A

simple analgesic

557
Q

What is the most drug can cause damage if it is given OTC?

A

warfarin

558
Q

Morphine and morpin are similar in

A

addiction
miosis
analgesic

559
Q

Oxytocin is one of the

A

posterior pituitary hormones

560
Q

Phenylephrine is used for:

a) decongestant
b) for runny nose
c) sympathomimetics
d) vasoconstrictor and pressor
e) all of the above

A

all of the above

561
Q

Oxytocin produces all the ff except:

a) mammalian glands stimulation
b) uterine stimulation
c) labor induction
d) progesterone release

A

progesterone release

562
Q

binding to plasma protein

A

increases half-life

563
Q

new and best therapy for peptic ulcer is

A

four medicines including antibiotic

564
Q

in case of osteoarthritis and peptic ulcer of elderly patients use

A

paracetamol

565
Q

Suprax is

A

Cefixime

566
Q

Which one is Sporanox?

A

Itraconazole

567
Q

All these can be used in leprosy except:

a) dapsone
b) rifampicin
c) clofazimine
d) INH

A

INH

568
Q

Betahistine dihydrochloride is used

A

antihistaminic

Meniere’s disease

569
Q

Maximum use of paracetamol

A

4gm in 24 hours

570
Q

Metoclopramide is a dopamine antagonist

A

acts centrally by blocking chemoreceptor trigger zone
acts peripherally
has an anti-emetic effect

571
Q

Cyproteron (Androcur) is used for

A

antiandrogen: decreased sexual ability

572
Q

Immunocompetent means

A

low resistant to infections

573
Q

Voltaren emulgel is

A

diclofenac diethylamine

574
Q

Pneumocystis Carini Pneumonia (PCP) is

A

parasite

575
Q

Which one of the ff is not antibiotic?

a) erythromycin
b) cefprozil
c) cefpodoxime
d) finasteride

A

finasteride

576
Q

Used in Benign prostatic hyperplasia

A

Finasteride

577
Q

Otrivin is

A

Xylometazoline

578
Q

Which one of the ff is not mucolytic?

a) bromhexine
b) carbocisteine
c) ambroxol
d) guaifenesin
e) dextromethorphan

A

dextromethorphan

579
Q

All these are anti-platelets except:

a) aspirin
b) dipyridamole
c) presentin
d) ticlopidine
e) streptokinase

A

streptokinase

580
Q

All these are anti-coagulant except:

a) warfarin
b) ancord
c) heparin
d) dipyridamole

A

dipyridamole - antiplatelet

581
Q

Anticoagulant effect of warfarin is decreased by

A

Vitamin K

582
Q

Aspirin is recommended with one of the ff:

a) anticoagulant
b) chicken pox
c) influenza symptoms
d) dysmenorrhea

A

anticoagulant

583
Q

Which one is not oral anticoagulant?

a) warfarin
b) nicoumalone
c) phenindione
d) enoxaparin

A

enoxaparin (DVT)

584
Q

Phenobarbitone induces liver microsomal enzymes, when taken with warfarin leads to

A

increasing the activity of liver enzymes, so decreases the activity of warfarin

585
Q

Drug which increases the action of warfarin:

a) carbimazole
b) oral contraceptive
c) phenobarbitone
d) none of the above

A

none of the above

586
Q

Drug which decreases the action of warfarin - its antidote

A

vitamin K

587
Q

Enzyme inducer

A

Rifampicin

588
Q

Which one reduces the metabolism of other drugs in the liver?

A

Cimetidine

589
Q

Heparin antidote

A

Protamine sulfate

590
Q

Paracetamol antidote

A

acetylcysteine

591
Q

warfarin antidote

A

vitamin K

592
Q

Iron antidote

A

deferoxamine (chelating agent)

593
Q

cyanide antidote

A

Na thiosulphate

594
Q

Copper and Lead antidote

A

Penicillamine

595
Q

Heavy metals antidote

A

dimercaprol (organic compound)

596
Q

insulin and oral hypoglycemic antidote

A

dextrose

597
Q

digoxin antidote

A

digoxin immune fab

protamine sulfate?

598
Q

opioid antidote

A

naloxone

599
Q

morphine antidote

A

naloxone

600
Q

Hepatotoxicity is induced due to these drugs except:

a) rifampicin
b) ketoconazole
c) quinolones
d) dipyridamole

A

dipyridamole

601
Q

Cause of death in morphine toxicity is

A

respiratory failure

602
Q

to prevent more absorption of the toxic drug we use

A

charcoal

603
Q

common side effect of sulphonylurea is

A

hypoglycemia

604
Q

side effect of insulin are

A

local reaction (urticaria)
hypoglycemia
fat dystrophy at the side of injection

605
Q

main side effect of insulin

A

hypoglycemia

606
Q

pseudomembranous colitis is a side effect of

A

clindamycin

607
Q

all of these are corticosteroids except:

a) methyl prednisolone
b) prednisolone
c) triamcinolone
d) beclomethasone
e) dexamethasone
f) ondansetron

A

ondansetron (5ht3 receptor antagonist, anti emetic)

608
Q

all of these are anti-neoplastics, except:

a) aldesleukin
b) teniposide
c) pentostatin
d) amlodipine

A

amlodipine

609
Q

levodopa is used with carbidopa for the treatment of

A

Parkinsonism

610
Q

All of these are true for levodopa except:

a) precursor of dopamine
b) stimulates dopamine
c) effective in parkinsonism
d) does not pass BBB

A

does not pass BBB

611
Q

Specific Serotonin reuptake inhibitors are used as

A

Antidepressant

612
Q

Fluoxatine (Prozac) is

A

SSRI antidepressant

selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor

613
Q

ondansetron hcl is used for

A

emesis

614
Q

Which one is not 5HT3 antagonists?

a) tropisetron
b) ondansetron
c) granisetron
d) domperidone

A

domperidone - peripheral dopamine receptor antagonist

615
Q

drug of choice for febrile convulsion in children is

A

dizepam 250mcg/kg

616
Q

Which one is correct?

a) diazepam is not used for long time
b) diazepam is taken IM only
c) diazepam is derived from morphine
d) diazepam can cause muscle spasm

A

Diazepam is not used for long time

617
Q

drug of choice in status epilepticus is

A

Diazepam

618
Q

the ff are indications of Diazepam, except:

a) antipsychotic
b) epilepsy
c) hypnotic
d) headache

A

Headache

619
Q

All of the ff used in treatment of anxiety except:

a) propranolol
b) diazepam
b) mebrobamate
d) homotropine

A

homotropine

620
Q

All of these are anti-parkinsonism except:

a) amantadine
b) bromocriptine
c) selegiline hcl
d) lysuride
e) pergolide
f) levodopa
g) primidone

A

Primidone

621
Q

All these drugs can be used for Parkinsonism except:

a) selegiline hcl
b) carbidopa
c) pergolide
d) nedocromil sodium

A

nedocromil sodium

622
Q

One of the ff is not used for epilepsy:

a) clonazepam
b) phenytoin
c) primidone
d) imipramine

A

imipramine

623
Q

All of the ff are used in epilepsy except:

a) sodium valproate
b) carbamazepine
c) phenytoin
d) nedocromil sodium

A

nedocromil sodium

624
Q

All of the ff are controlled drugs except:

a) rivotril
b) stesolid
c) carbamazepine
d) barbiturates
e) diazepam
f) primidone
g) epanutin
h) imipenem
i) G and H

A

Epanutin

Imipenem

625
Q

Controlled drugs present in pharmacy are

A

in tightly closed shelves

626
Q

Vitamin B1

A

Thiamine HCl

627
Q

Vitamin B2

A

Riboflavin

628
Q

Vitamin B3

A

Niacine

629
Q

Vitamin B5

A

Panthothenic acid

630
Q

Vitamin B6

A

Pyridoxine HCl

631
Q

Vitamin B9

A

Folic acid

632
Q

Vitamin B12

A

Cyanocobalamine

633
Q

Zidovudine is used for

A

HIV

AIDS

634
Q

Drug used for HIV

A

Zalcitabine

635
Q

Omeprazole actions

A

Proton pump inhibitor

blocks the hydrogen-potassium ATP enzyme system

636
Q

MMR vaccine is

A

measles-mumps-rubella vaccine

637
Q

maximum dose of captopril

A

150mg/day

638
Q

schedule of immunization of HBV is

A

three dose

639
Q

maximum recommended dose of ibuprofen is

A

3000

640
Q

Child weighs 10kg, paracetamol dose for him is

A

100-150mg 4-6hrs

641
Q

Maximum dose of diclofenac sodium is:

a) 50 mg
b) 75 mg
c) 100 mg
d) none of the above

A

none of the above

150mg ?

642
Q

Source of human insulin is e-coli by:

A

biosynthetically by recombinant DNA technology using e-coli

semi synthetically by enzymatic modification of protein material

643
Q

When you store drug at low temperature you must consider the ff

A

storage of dusting powder below 0C causes accumulation of granules
storage of cream and ointment below 5C causes cracking
storage of insulin below 0C causes aggregation of insulin

644
Q

insulin is preserved at

A

2-8C

645
Q

All these drugs are antibacterial except:

a) cefoperazone
b) lomifloxacin
c) zalcitabine

A

zalcitabine

646
Q

Estrogen action

A

reduces the incidence of coronary diseases in postmenopausal women

647
Q

Co-trimethoxazole contains

A

trimethoprim + sulphamethoxazole

1:5

648
Q

Which is not from quinolone group?

a) nalidixic acid
b) eoxacin
c) nofloxacin
d) ciprofloxacin
e) ofloxacin
g) sparfloxacin
h) aminosidine
i) quinine

A

Quinine

aminosidine

649
Q

Quinolone are contraindicated in children because

A

affect joints

650
Q

sumatriptan is used for

A

treatment of migraine and headache

651
Q

Benzyl peroxide is a local treatment for

A

acne vulgaris

652
Q

drug of choice for treatment of amoebae

A

metronidazole

653
Q

The steady state concentration of the drug in the plasma depends on

A

direct proportion to the rate of elimination

654
Q

Mechanism of action of vitamin K

A

synthesis of coagulation factors by hepatic cells and increases formation of clotting factors

655
Q

elimination of digoxin is mainly by

A

kidney

656
Q

Drug physical dependence is as same as drug abuse

A

True

657
Q

Terbinafine dosage form

A

local and systemic

658
Q

Miconazole dosage form

A

local and systemic

659
Q

Amphotericin dosage form

A

parenteral only

660
Q

Griseofulvin dosage form

A

oral

661
Q

Terbinafine is used topically for

A

fungal infection

662
Q

Amiloride as a treatment causes

A

hyperkalemia

663
Q

Moduretic is a combination between

A

amiloride + hydrochlorothiazide

664
Q

Gemfibrozil indication

A

hyperlipidemia

665
Q

Cisapride indication

A

gastro-oesophageal reflux

666
Q

Fluoxetine indication

A

SSRI as sedative serotonin reuptake inhibitor

667
Q

Carbimazole indication

A

hyperthyroidism

668
Q

Imipramine indication

A

tricyclic antidepressant

669
Q

Teicoplanin antibiotic has similar effect on gram positive bacteria as

A

vancomycin

670
Q

Which one is not tetracycline?

a) minocycline
b) demeclocycline
c) doxicycline
d) clindamycin

A

clindamycin

671
Q

Tetracycline taken with Ca and Mg

A

poorly absorbed compound from GIT

672
Q

Use of tetracycline in its expiry date

A

Fanconi syndrome

673
Q

Tetracycline when taken with minerals such as calcium, iron, and aluminium forms a chelate which is

A

inactive and poorly absorbed

674
Q

Which is not true with tetracycline?

a) broad spectrum bacteriostatic
b) used for acne
c) inhibits protein synthesis
d) broad spectrum bactericidal

A

broad spectrum bactericidal

675
Q

Mesalazine is used for

A

treatment and maintenance of remission of ulcerative colitis

676
Q

four lipid soluble vitamins

A

vitamin A, D, E, and K

677
Q

Imipenem (carbapenem)

A

the first thienamycin B-lactam antibiotic

678
Q

Bioavailability of the drug is:

A

rate of absorption

extent of absorption

679
Q

Biotransformation is

A

less lipid soluble

680
Q

Diseases causeing edema

A

renal failure

congestive heart failure

681
Q

All of these are third generation cephalosporin except:

a) cefixime
b) cefpodoxime
c) ceftriaxone
d) cefotaxime
e) none of the above

A

none of the above

682
Q

Which one is not a benzodiazepine?

a) temazepam
b) nitrozepam
c) loprazolam
d) clozapine

A

clozapine

683
Q

Oral rehydrate solution

A

NaCl + K citrate + Na citrate + glucose

684
Q

Gemfibrozile moa

A

increases HDL and decreases triglycerides

685
Q

Drugs that need monitoring for their serum level

A

amikacin
warfarin
theophylline
digoxin

686
Q

For flucloxacillin, all these statements are wrong except:

a) it is better absorbed than cloxacillin
b) it is taken by oral route only
c) it is activated by penicillinase enzyme
d) it is base stable

A

it is better absorbed than cloxacillin

687
Q

What are the instruction for the patient take Metamucil or any other bulk foaming laxative as Bran, methyl cellulose and psyllum?

A

adequate fluid intake should be maintained to avoid intestinal obstruction

688
Q

Drugs from HMC CoA reductase inhibitor

A

simvastatin
provastatin
fluvastatin

689
Q

HMGCoA reductase inhibitor is

A

3 hydroxy, 3 Methyl Glutoryl CoA reductase inhibitor

690
Q

Calciferol is

A

1.25 dihydroxy calciferol

691
Q

Pharmacodynamic means

A

physiological and biochemical effect of the drug on the body

692
Q

Pharmacokinetic means

A

physiological and biochemical effect of the body on the drug

693
Q

Sympathomimetic drugs

A

increase blood pressure
increase coronary flow
increase heart rate

694
Q

most common chemical structure of iron in drug is

A

ferrograd (ferrous sulphate)

695
Q

Ferrograd is

A

ferrous sulphate

696
Q

isomack 20mg tablets taken twice daily at time interval between

A

8am - 11pm

697
Q

Valtrex is

A

acyclovir

698
Q

Keflex is

A

1st generation cephalosporin

Keflex is Cephalexin

699
Q

Micromedex is a

A

computer system

700
Q

How much lidocaine for solution of 1/1000 to obtain 30cc

A

30

701
Q

When drug is used for UTI it should be

A

G-ve

702
Q

One of the ff is not NSAID

a) xefo
b) voltic
c) parafon
d) none of the above

A

Parafon

703
Q

Intrathecal means

A

interjoint

704
Q

Patient having constipation not to take

A

morphine

705
Q

natural emulsifying agent

A

gum acacia

706
Q

olive oil + water + asq gives

A

emulsion

707
Q

isoptin is present in market in concentration

A

240 and 80 mg

708
Q

Isoptin is used in treatment of

A

supraventricular arrhythmia

709
Q

all of these are precaustions of becotide except

A

used only at the attack of asthma

710
Q

alcohol present in pharmacy as antiseptic is in concentration

A

70%

711
Q

Klaci is used every

A

12 hours

712
Q

Intralipids are

A

o/w emulsion

713
Q

Zantac contains

A

ranitidine

714
Q

Which is present in balms or liniments and not used in burns?

A

methyl salicylate

715
Q

drug of choice for head lice

A

pyrethrins

716
Q

preparation used as otic drops for dewaxing

A

5% glycerin bicarbonate

717
Q

Disulfiram is used for

A

chronic alcohol dependence
liver cells protection
prevention of conversion of acetaldehyde to acetic acid

718
Q

drug metabolism in the body occurs in

A

liver, kidney and bowel mucosa

719
Q

protein binds to drug forming a compound which is

A

inactive while the free part is active

720
Q

drug transfers through cell membrane by

A

lipid dissolves

721
Q

clonidine is used as

A

antihypertensive

migraine

722
Q

New non-selective antihistamines act through

A

H1 antagonist

723
Q

Non-sedating anti-histamines

A

Loratidine
Cetirizine
Terfenadine

724
Q

What is astemizole

A

long acting non-sedating anti-histamine

725
Q

Atropine is used as pre-anaesthetic to

A

decrease saliva

726
Q

Metoclopramide gives anti-emetic effect through

A

peripheral action
dopaminergic receptor
muscarinic receptors

727
Q

All of the ff are macrolides except:

a) clarithromycin
b) roxithromycin
c) erythromycin
d) apiramycin
e) azithromycin
f) sisomicin
g) clindamycin
h) f and g

A

sisomicin

clindamycin

728
Q

Tilade inhaler generic name

A

Nedocromil sodium

729
Q

Main use of metronidazole

A

anti amoebiasis

730
Q

Benzyl peroxide is alcohol treatment for

A

acne vulgaris

731
Q

Teicoplanin antibiotic affect on G+ve bacteria similar to

A

vancomycin

732
Q

All these are broad spectrum cephalosporin except:

a) cefexime
b) cefuroxime
c) cefotaxime
d) cefopodoxime

A

cefuroxime

733
Q

Which aminoglycoside antibiotic can be taken orally?

A

neomycin sulphate

734
Q

NOT an aminoglycoside

A

Lymecycline

735
Q

Side effects of aminoglycosides

A

nephrotoxicity

ototoxicity

736
Q

example of drug inducing nephrotoxicity

A

aminoglycosides as gentamycin

737
Q

baclofen is used for

A

natispasticity with spinal site of attack

738
Q

Praziquantel used for Bilharziasis

A

causes loss of intercellular calcium of the worm

trade name biltricide

739
Q

acitretin is used for

A

oral treatment of severe forms of psoriasis and disorders of keratinization

740
Q

Which of the ff has no vasodilating effect?

a) methyldopa
b) hydralazine
c) prazosin
d) enalapril

A

methyldopa

741
Q

Patient with G6PD deficiency, the drug may cause hemolysis

A

sulphonamide

742
Q

G6PD deficient patients must not take

A

Co-trimoxazole (sulphonamide)

743
Q

pentobarbital idffers from phenobarbital in

A

faster action

744
Q

Glucocorticosteroids used in

A

bronchial asthma

addison disease

745
Q

use of calcitonin

A

To lower plasma Ca concentration in some patients with hypercalcemia
relieving neurological complications
treatment of Paget disease

746
Q

Diabinese generic

A

chlorpropamide

747
Q

Daonil and Euglocon generic

A

glibenclamide

748
Q

Diamicron generic

A

glicazide

749
Q

Minidiab generic

A

glipizide

750
Q

Rastinon generic

A

tolbutamide

751
Q

Dimilor generic

A

acetohexamide

752
Q

amaryl generic

A

glimipiride

753
Q

Hyoscine N butyl bromide brand

A

Buscopan & Scopinal

754
Q

Propantheline bromide brand

A

Probanthine

755
Q

Oxyphenonium brand

A

Anternyl

756
Q

Mebeverine HCl brand

A

Duspatalin

757
Q

Alverine brand

A

Spamonal

758
Q

Diclofenac sodium brand

A

Voltaren

759
Q

Fenbufen brand

A

Cinopal

760
Q

Diflunisal brand

A

Dolobid

761
Q

Indomethacin brand

A

Indocid, indogesic and Rothacin

762
Q

Ketoprofen brand

A

Profenid

763
Q

Naproxen brand

A

Naprosyn

764
Q

Cloroquine brand

A

Malarex & resochin

765
Q

Pyremethamine + Sulfadoxine brand

A

Pansidar

766
Q

Pindolol brand

A

Visken

767
Q

Baclofen brand

A

Lioresal

768
Q

Isotretinoin brand

A

Roaccutane

769
Q

Hexoprenaline brand

A

Ipradol

770
Q

Khellin brand

A

Lynamine

771
Q

Pivampicillin brand

A

pondocillin

772
Q

Bufexamac brand

A

Droxaryl

773
Q

Codergocrin brand

A

hydergine

774
Q

Acarbose brand

A

Glucobay

775
Q

Use of gentian violet

A

antiseptic

skin disinfectant

776
Q

The concentration of crystal violet paint is

A

2.5% according to B.P. 1980

1% according to U.S.P. 1985

777
Q

What is the concentration of mercurochrome solution?

A

2%

778
Q

Sustained release tablets depend on

A

pH of stomach

779
Q

When newly married don’t want children, how to arrange

A

Send the wife to the family doctor

780
Q

Pharmacy of central hospital is

A

central pharmacy only

contains store

781
Q

a patient takes phenytoin and his hair has less growth. You advise him

A

go to doctor

782
Q

Roaccutan is prescribed to patient who is women 22 years old, you ask?

A

If she is pregnant

783
Q

If you have prescription containing Inderal & the patient is wheezing, what is your advice?

A

Call the doctor

784
Q

Patient has hepatic disease & type II diabetics take

A

rosiglitazone or piaglitazone (Avandia, Glustin)

785
Q

A patient has a prescription of Enalapril + KCL, what do you ask him?

A

none of the above

786
Q

Reserpine not used with parkinsonis patient take

A

levodopa

787
Q

controlled drug for ophthalmic prep due to

A

increase half life

788
Q

CCB not used in

A

AV node heart block

789
Q

All are alkylating except

A

flurouracil

790
Q

drug make Na/water retention

A

minoxidil

791
Q

Phenylephrine is a

A

alpha 1 agonist only

792
Q

gas to solid

A

deposition

793
Q

azelastine is

A

antihistaminic

794
Q

hormone secreted from adrenal cortex

A

aldosterone

795
Q

digoxin effect all except

A

decrease vagal tone to heart

796
Q

zidovudine side effect

A

anemia

797
Q

baclofen used as

A

muscle relaxant

798
Q

zonisamide is broad spectrum

A

anti epileptic

799
Q

Propantheline is contraindicated in

A

glaucoma
myesthenia gravis
obstructive disease GIT
ulcerative colitis

800
Q

low molecular weight heparin

A

tinazaprin
enoxaparin
deltaprin

801
Q

NSAID in parenteral form

A

ketorolac

802
Q

not effect of prednisolone or betamethasone

A

arthritis

hypoglycemia

803
Q

acetylcysteine is a

A

mucolytic

804
Q

alpha 2 receptor activation cause

A

decrease BP

805
Q

isoproterenol moa

A

non selective b1 and b2 agonist

806
Q

all effect of digoxin except

A

increase conduction of AV node

807
Q

domperidone used in

A

nausea and vomiting

808
Q

not related to heparin

A

lyse the existing clot

809
Q

diuretics used to

A

increase urine formation

810
Q

not ACEis

A

isopten

811
Q

diltiazem role in angina

A

decrease o2 demand by blocking ca influx

812
Q

all drug treat parkinsonism except

A

tofanil

813
Q

rate of reaction increase with

A

increase temperature

814
Q

antimetabolite drug

A

gemcitabine

815
Q

side effect of atropine

A

urine retention

816
Q

partition coefficient is used to determine

A

dissolution rate constant

drug storage in fat

817
Q

Sodium nitroprusside is a

A

vasodilator

818
Q

phase 1 arrhythmia

A

initial depolarization is due to k efflux

819
Q

multidrug resistance occurs due to the function of

A

p-glycoprotein

820
Q

loop diuretics does NOT cause

A

hypernatremia

821
Q

angina present with

A

chest pain

822
Q

verapamil can increase action/synergism of

A

digoxin

823
Q

rate of absorption depend on

A

ph

824
Q

hyoscine and propantheline SE all except

A

difficulty breathing

825
Q

quinidine class 1a

A

slow phase 0

826
Q

thiazide SE except

A

hyperkalemia

827
Q

cephalosporin act by

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis

828
Q

NSAID moa

A

inhibit pg synthesis

829
Q

omeprazole moa

A

ppi h/k atpase inhibitor

830
Q

drug changes color of teeth

A

tetracycline

831
Q

active part of primidone

A

phenobarbital

832
Q

reserpine all except

a) inhibit dopamine decarboxylase
b) bbb
c) orally effect

A

inhibit dopamine decarboxylase

833
Q

ACEi SE all except

a) glucose tolerance
b) hyperkalemia
c) hypotension
d) dry cough

A

glucose tolerance

834
Q

all are effects of digitalis except:

a) +ve chronotropic
b) decrease heart size
c) +ve inotropic
d) slow conduction av node

A

+ve chronotropic

835
Q

controlled drug delivery for eye preparation is used due to

A

drug needed for long duration of action

836
Q

not effect of reserpine

A

weight loss

protein urea

837
Q

prazosin act through

A

post synaptic alpha blocker

838
Q

clonidine is a

A

alpha 2 agonist

839
Q

cyclovir ttt keratitis caused by

A

herpes simplex

840
Q

not side effect of marijuana

A

anorexia

841
Q

phenytoin + digoxin

A

increase microsomal enzyme

842
Q

MOA of diazepine

A

GABA agonist

843
Q

substance reduce release of catecholamine from vesicles

A

reserpine

844
Q

use of phenytoin other than epilepsy

A

antiarrhythmic class Ib

845
Q

exaggerate glucose levels

A

thiazide

846
Q

lacidipine is a

A

calcium channel blocker

847
Q

phospholine iodide

A

ecothiopate

forms stable complex with cholinesterase

848
Q

absorption of drug from small intestine to liver through

A

mesenteric vein to portal vein

849
Q

colestipol moa

A

increases lipoprotein excretion

850
Q

solid to vapour

A

sublimation

851
Q

parkinsonism associated with

A

muscle rigidity

852
Q

nitric oxide disadvantage

A

not fully produce surgical anesthesia

853
Q

2ppm =

A

2mg

854
Q

dantrolene moa

A

blocks Ca

855
Q

agranulocytosis caused by

A

thiouracil

856
Q

folic acid dose

A

400-500

857
Q

ibuprofen dose

A

450

858
Q

bacitracin is used

A

topically

859
Q

disturbed and aggressive patient use

A

haloperidol

860
Q

kapsi sarcoma

A

alpha-interferon

861
Q

warts treatment

A

gluteraldehyde

862
Q

phenytoin decrease action of digoxin by

A

increase microsomal metabolism

863
Q

drug causes dependence

A

amphetamine

864
Q

pancuronium is a

A

skeletal muscle relaxant

865
Q

perphenazine is used in

A

antipsychotic and nausea and vomiting

866
Q

colestyramine is used for

A

lower high levels of cholesterol

867
Q

captopril brand name

A

capoten

868
Q

diclofenac in arthritis

A

analgesic and anti inflammatory only

869
Q

main mechanis of nitroglycerin

A

relaxation of vascular muscle

870
Q

transient pressor effect associated with

A

clonidine

guanethidine

871
Q

side effect of digoxin treatment

A

arrhythmia

872
Q

drug need monitoring when taken with verapamil

A

digoxin

873
Q

all about epinephrine is true except

A

cause chest pain

874
Q

cause of angina

A

increase o2 demand more than o2 supply

875
Q

hyperthyroidism initiated by

A

KI

876
Q

increases action of warfarin

A

amiodarone

877
Q

class 1b anti arrhythmia

A

lidocaine

878
Q

phase 3 muscle contraction due to

A

repolarization due to ca influx

879
Q

cause of bronchospasm:

a) pindolol
b) isoprenaline

A

pindolol