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T-38 Aero > Review Questions > Flashcards

Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Lift on a wing is generated by a __________ on the top surface than on the bottom surface.

A

lower static pressure

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2
Q

Decreasing the bank angle, __________ the level-flight stall speed.

A

decreases

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3
Q

Lowering the flaps on a symmetric wing __________ the camber, which in turn, __________ the stall AOA and airspeed.

A

increases; decreases

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4
Q

In general, if the AOA is constant, what effect does an increase in airspeed have on lift?

A

Lift increases.

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5
Q

For a constant airspeed, an increase in angle of attack has what effect on lift (until the stall angle of attack)?

A

Lift increases.

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6
Q

Generally, as calibrated airspeed increases, parasite drag __________ and level-flight induced drag __________.

A

increases, decreases

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7
Q

If an aircraft is established in a 60° bank, level turn at 300 knots, and rolls out to wings level while maintaining
300 KCAS, the level-flight induced drag

A

decreases

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8
Q

Which of the following conditions results in the greatest decrease in thrust available, assuming constant RPM?

a. Increase pressure altitude and decrease temperature.
b. Decrease pressure altitude and increase temperature.
c. Increase pressure altitude and temperature.
d. Decrease pressure altitude and temperature.

A

c. Increase pressure altitude and temperature.

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9
Q

In level, unaccelerated flight (select two)

a. thrust and drag must be equal.
b. thrust is greater than drag.
c. thrust is less than drag.
d. lift and weight must be equal.

A

a. thrust and drag must be equal.

d. lift and weight must be equal.

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10
Q

In general, on which type of wing does C drop off rapidly when stalling AOA is exceeded?

A

Cambered wing

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11
Q

Compared to a straight wing, a swept wing will

a. stall at a higher AOA.
b. have a higher CLmax
c. have a more abrupt stall.
4. Both a and c are correct.

A

a. stall at a higher AOA.

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12
Q

Compared to a straight wing, a swept wing will

a. have less parasite drag.
b. stall at a lower airspeed
c. have less induced drag.
d. Both a and b are correct.

A

a. have less parasite drag.

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13
Q

The key factor which determines the speed of sound in air is

A

temperature.

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14
Q

If airplane A flies at 500 KTAS at sea level and airplane B flies at 500 KTAS at 40,000 feet, then

a. B has the higher CAS.
b. A has the higher Mach number.
c. both have the same Mach number.
d. B has the higher Mach number.

A

d. B has the higher Mach number.

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15
Q

The lowest freestream speed at which some point in the flow around the aircraft reaches the Mach 1 is called

A

Critical Mach number (M ).

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16
Q 
If an aircraft maintained a constant TAS in a climb to altitude, would the following increase, decrease, or remain 
constant? 
a.  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_  CAS 
b.  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_  Mach number 
c.  \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_  Speed of sound
A

A. Decrease
B. Increase
C. Decrease

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17
Q

What type of flight regime is described?

Airflow is mixed — part subsonic, part supersonic

A

Transonic

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18
Q

What type of flight regime is described?

Speeds in excess of M = 5.0

A

Hypersonic

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19
Q

What type of flight regime is described?

Assumes incompressible flow; speeds up to M

A

Subsonic

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20
Q

What type of flight regime is described?

Flow is no longer mixed — bow wave attaches in this regime

A

Supersonic

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21
Q

Which statement(s) below is (are) correct concerning wave drag?

a. Wave drag is caused by shock waves.
b. The speed at which it occurs is called the critical number (Mcrit)
c. The speed at which it occurs is called the force divergence Mach number (FDMN).
d. Both a and c are correct.

A

d. Both a and c are correct.

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22
Q

Because the aerodynamic center (AC) of the aircraft moves rearward in supersonic flight, the T-38 is more stable, but less maneuverable in supersonic flight.

A

True

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23
Q

The lack of any airframe buffet while maneuvering at supersonic speeds is one of the characteristics of supersonic flight.

A

True

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24
Q

Assuming no winds, the angle of climb is the angle between the aircraft’s

A

flightpath and the horizontal plane.

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25
Q

The maximum angle of climb occurs at the airspeed and AOA that produce the

A

most excess thrust.

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26
Q

Flying at the maximum angle of climb also gives you the maximum rate of climb.

A

False

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27
Q

Rate of climb performance depends on excess

A

power.

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28
Q

An increase in aircraft weight __________ the rate of climb.

A

decreases

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29
Q

A decrease in altitude __________ the angle of climb and rate of climb.

A

increases

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30
Q

Wind has no effect on the climb rate.

A

True

31
Q

The normal T-38 glide airspeed (clean) with 2,000 pounds of fuel on board is __________ KCAS.

A

250

32
Q

Lowering the landing gear or speed brake in a power-off descent will __________ the total glide distance.

A

decrease

33
Q

Gliding into a headwind will decrease the total glide distance.

A

True

34
Q

A turbojet engine is most efficient when SFC is at a

A

Minimum

35
Q

With a constant RPM and altitude, flying into an area of colder temperature will

a. increase specific fuel consumption.
b. have no effect on specific fuel consumption.
c. decrease specific fuel consumption.

A

c. decrease specific fuel consumption.

36
Q

As an aircraft burns fuel and the gross weight decreases, the maximum range airspeed

A

decreases

37
Q

Since SFC and fuel flow generally __________ at higher altitudes, maximum endurance __________ as
altitude increases.

A

decrease; increases

38
Q

If you increase the bank angle (load factor) while maintaining a constant airspeed, level-flight turn, the aircraft
turn radius will __________ and the turn rate will __________.

A

decrease; increase

39
Q

If a T-38 and a C-17 are maintaining the same airspeed and bank angle in a stabilized, level turn at the same
altitude, both their turn radius and rate will be the same.

A

True

40
Q

The minimum velocity at which the aircraft attains maximum instantaneous turn performance and the maximum G is called the

A

maneuvering speed (or corner velocity).

41
Q

The aircraft’s stored energy which is a function of mass, gravity, and height is called __________ energy.

A

potential

42
Q

The aircraft’s specific energy (Es ) can be defined as the aircraft’s fuel on board which is burned by the engines and converted into potential or kinetic energy.

A

False.

43
Q

The rate of change in the aircraft’s total energy state is an EM concept known as

A

specific excess power.

44
Q

You have just completed an approach-to-stall exercise in the area at FL180 with 190 KCAS and you want to fly a barrel roll at 400 KCAS. Which of the following actions would be the most practical and efficient way to gain the airspeed?

a. Select MAX power and accelerate straight ahead in level flight.
b. Unload, select MAX power, and accelerate in a 45 – 60° dive.
c. Maintain 90 – 95% RPM for engine efficiency and accelerate in a steep descending spiral.
d. Unload, select MIL power, and descend in a shallow 10 – 20°, wings-level descent.

A

d. Unload, select MIL power, and descend in a shallow 10 – 20°, wings-level descent.

45
Q

You just completed the barrel roll at 14,000 feet with 410 knots and you need to descend to 8,000 feet and slow down to 300 KCAS to exit the area. In addition to reducing the power, which of the following actions would be the most efficient way to quickly decrease your altitude and airspeed?

a. Roll over and perform a split-S, increasing back pressure and G to the moderate buffet to attain 300 KCAS.
b. Extend the speed brake and slow down to 300 KCAS in level flight and begin a constant airspeed descent.
c. Extend the speed brake, descend in a spiral increasing back pressure to the moderate buffet and 300 KCAS.
d. Pull up in a zoom and when approaching 300 KCAS, perform a sliceback, maintaining moderate buffet.

A

c. Extend the speed brake, descend in a spiral increasing back pressure to the moderate buffet and 300 KCAS.

46
Q

If an aircraft’s initial response following a disturbance is to return to its original position, the aircraft has

A

positive static stability.

47
Q

If the aircraft has positive static stability and negative dynamic stability, the aircraft will __________ after it has been displaced from its original position.

A

continue to oscillate with greater amplitude

48
Q

Generally, the more stable the aircraft, the less maneuverable and controllable it tends to be.

A

True

49
Q

Which of the following components contribute to the overall pitch stability of the T-38? (Select all that contribute to stability)

a. Wing
b. Fuselage
c. Stabilator
d. Vertical stabilizer

A

A,c

50
Q

In general, moving the CG farther forward of the aerodynamic center of lift on an aircraft results in __________ pitch stability and __________ maneuverability and controllability.

A

increased; decreased

51
Q 
Which of the following aircraft components or design features reduce to the overall roll stability of an aircraft? 
(Select all that apply.) 
a.  Wing sweepback 
b.  Wing anhedral 
c.  Low-mounted wing 
d.  Vertical stabilizer
A

b. Wing anhedral

c. Low-mounted wing

52
Q

Which T-38 component or design feature is the primary source of directional stability that has the greatest positive influence?

A

Vertical stabilizer

53
Q

Which adverse control situation refers to pitch and yaw excursions induced by rolling the aircraft at high roll rates?

A

Roll coupling

54
Q

The aileron roll restriction in the flight manual states that continuous aileron rolls will be accomplished at only
__________ and __________ or less stick deflection.

A

1 G; ¾

55
Q

Because the T-38 has a hydraulically-powered flight control system with an artificial feel spring system and
bobweight that increases the stick force required, PIOs only occur around 0.9 Mach where the aircraft’s pitch
sensitivity is at a maximum.

A

False

56
Q

To recover from a PIO at very low altitude or close to another aircraft, you should

A

apply and rigidly hold back-pressure on the stick.

57
Q

To recover from __________, smoothly neutralize all flight controls.

a. a post-stall gyration
b. a pilot-induced oscillation
c. roll coupling excursions
d. an erect spin

A

a post-stall gyration

58
Q

Ejection from either an erect or inverted spin is to be accomplished if a spin recovery is not completed by __________ feet AGL, or if transverse G-loads preclude maintaining anti-spin controls, whichever occurs first.

A

5,000

59
Q

What is the primary anti-spin control in the T-38?

A

Aileron

60
Q

Which two characteristics below describe the primary hazards of approach to stall in the T-38?

a. Large decrease in lift with an abrupt pitchdown
b. Large increase in induced drag
c. Loss of rudder control
d. Degraded aileron effectiveness
e. Airframe buffet present over a small range of AOA

A

b. Large increase in induced drag

d. Degraded aileron effectiveness

61
Q

In the T-38, once airframe buffet begins, the approach to stall is imminent and the pilot should execute the stall recovery immediately.

A

False

62
Q

If the landing gear is fully extended, the stall tone and visual STALL warning displayed on the MFD/HUD occurs when the AOA is above

A

0.8.

63
Q

An illuminated “green donut” display on the AOA indexer always indicates that the aircraft is at computed final
turn or final approach airspeed.

A

False

64
Q

During a no-flap T-38 stall recovery in the traffic pattern, you should attempt to reposition the flaps to 60% as soon as practical.

A

False

65
Q

What is the T-38 stall recovery procedures?

A

Simultaneously
Advance throttles to max
Relax back pressure
Roll wings-level

66
Q

During a T-38 stall recovery in the traffic pattern, rudder can be used to initiate the roll to wings-level.

A

True

67
Q

What is the primary indication of an excessive sink rate?

A

VVI

68
Q

Which of the following steps aid in the recovery from a sink rate on final approach?

a. Lower the flaps to full down to increase lift.
b. Lower the speed brake to slow the descent.
c. Apply back pressure until a definite increase in buffet.
d. Advance the throttles to reduce thrust deficiency.

A

d. Advance the throttles to reduce thrust deficiency.

69
Q

As AOA increases, which of the following is true concerning rudder and aileron effectiveness?

a. Rudder and aileron effectiveness increase
b. Rudder and aileron effectiveness decrease
c. Rudder effectiveness increases, aileron effectiveness decreases
d. Rudder effectiveness decreases, aileron effectiveness increases

A

c. Rudder effectiveness increases, aileron effectiveness decreases

70
Q

Which of the following is not a condition to execute an immediate stall/sink recovery?

a. A definite increase in buffet intensity
b. An overshooting final turn
c. Activation of aural/visual stall warnings
d. 0.6 AOA with a descent rate of 3,600 fpm in the final turn

A

b. An overshooting final turn

71
Q

Wake turbulence will be worse behind a

a. heavy aircraft on final approach.
b. large aircraft in cruise flight.
c. heavy aircraft on takeoff roll.
d. T-38 on a no-flap final approach.

A

a. heavy aircraft on final approach.

72
Q

At final approach airspeed, the T-38 may not have enough aileron authority to maintain control if a strong wake vortex is encountered.

A

True

73
Q

Low-level wind shears are a hazard because

a. of the proximity of the aircraft to the ground.
b. of the sudden change in wind direction and/or speed.
c. they cannot be detected or predicted.
d. Both a and b

A

D

T-38 Aero (1 decks)

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