Review Questions Flashcards
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. The value of a CRAT where the decedent was the only non-charitable beneficiary is included in the gross estate of the decedent.
II. Gift taxes paid two years prior to the death of the decedent for gifts made four years ago are included in the gross estate of the decedent under the gross up rule.
I only
Only gift taxes paid on gifts made within three years are included under the gross up rule.
Your client, Simon Legree, has one child Donna (age 6). He has a rental property valued at $100,000. Simon has the following goals:
Get discretionary income to Donna, immediately
Avoid all gift taxes
Preserve his applicable estate credit
Allow access to all principal and interest at her age of 18 for college expenses
Remove the property from his gross estate
Which of the following will accomplish his goals?
A. Establish 2502(b) trust with Donna as income and remainder beneficiary, gifting $15,000 interest in the property per year to the trust.
B. Establish UTMA custodial account for Donna and fund with a $15k interest in the property each year
C. Establish UGMA custodial account and transfer entire property into the account
D. Establish a crummey trust with a %+% power for Donna’s benefit
B
A 2503(b) requires mandatory income distribution annually.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct about trusts?
A. A sprinkling provision allows the trustee to make payments of income or corpus to beneficiaries based upon specific needs
B. A discretionary provision allows trustees to distribute corpus or income, ,or not, as they determine is most prudent
C. A spendthrift provision prohibits a trust beneficiary from assigning interests in the trust corpus
D. The CRUT is subject to a test for remainder interest of 10% and the probability test
D.
The CRAT but not the CRUT is subject to the probability test
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of UGMA/UTMA custodial accounts?
A. The assets are owned by the student for financial aid purposes.
B. The custodian loses control of the asset at time of maturity
C. The assets are included int he donor’s gross estate until maturity
D. The assets are non-transferable
C
A- these account can severely reduce the child’s ability for financial aid
B - the custodian no longer has any control oer the assets upon maturity. The child may or may not choose to use the assets wisely
D - The assets placed in this account may not be transferred or revoked
Which of the following trusts can permit the trustee to invade the principal for HEMS support for all beneficiaries presuming each trust is structured the same way with the grantor the decedent, the spouse of the grantor the income beneficiary, and the children of the grantor the remainder beneficiaries?
- ILIT
- A bypass Trust
- A GPOA Trust
1 + 2
Statements 1 and 2 are the nonmarital trusts and therefore the trustee can have the power to invade for all beneficiaries.
The GPOA trust is a marital trust and the trustee would be redirected to invade for the spouse only or the trust would not qualify for the marital deduction
Jack and Jill have 6m in a bank titled as JTWROS and 20m in other assets. Which of the following planning techniques can Jack and Jill use to reduce total estate taxes for both spouses?
A. A corporate redemption (303)
B. A charitable bequest
C. A testamentary credit shelter trust
D. A power of appointment trust
B
While a credit shelter trust will provide an exclusion at the first death it does not reduce the tax of BOTH spouses.
An “A” or POA trust does not reduce estate taxes.
A testator-selected survivorship clause inserted ina Will is preferable to a state’s Uniform Simultaneous Death Act (USDA) because:
A. Most states don’t have a USDA
B. The USDA always creates the presumption that the husband died first
C. The USDA presumption will not apply if the order of deaths can be determined
D. The USDA presumption, when applicable, almost always results in higher estate taxes
C - The presumption under USDA applies only when the order of death is not known
Which of the following accurately describe a Charitable Lead Trust?
A. At the end of the trust term, the remainder interest must be returned to the grantor
B. The grantor can be any form of entity, e.g corporation, LLC, etc.
C. If a unitrust, additions to corpus may be placed in the trust.
D. The grantor will always get an immediate charitable income tax deduction
C.
A corporation cannot be the grantor.
the grantor will only get a charitable deduction if the grantor elects trust status.
Dawson recently prepared a last will and testament in which he left all of his assets to his girlfriend, Jen. Dawson and Jen broke up last night and now Dawson wants to leave all of his worldly possessions to his best friend Joey. What can Dawson do to prevent Jen from receiving any of his assets?
A. Dawson can shred the will under which Jen receives all of his assets
B. Dawson can send Jen an email telling her that he has revoked the will
C. Dawson can simply handwrite a new will, sign and date it.
D. Dawson can give the old will to Joey with a codicil changing the universal legatee to Joey.
D. Any of the above
A
The handwritten will may or may not be effective and may not be found
An installment sale has which of the following characteristics?
I. Allows pro-rata recognition of profits in the year payments are received
II. Multiple Payments received in the same calendar year qualify for installment sale treatment
III. Has a fixed selling price contractually agreed to by both parties
IV. Installment sale tax treatment is optional under the IRC
I and III only
Installment sale treatment is mandatory but need not be a sum certain at time of sale.
George Beatty wants to establish a single trust with the following characteristics and provisions:
- the income will be distributed to his grandchild at the discretion of the trustee until the grandchild reaches age 21
- the remaining trust assets will then be distributed equally between his children and grandchildren
- George would be entitled to the maximum annual exclusion for any assets placed in the trust.
Which one of the following trusts can have all these characteristics or provisions?
A. A Crummey Trust
B. Section 2503b
C. Section 2503c
D. An unfunded ILIT
A
b - it requires annual income distributions
c - it permits accumulation of income and then distribution of assets to the beneficiary
Which of the following are elements required in a valid trust?
I. Grantor having an intent to create it
II. Trustee who holds legal title to all assets in the trust
III. Beneficiary who holds equitable title to the assets
IV. property in the trust
V. Fiduciary relationship between the trustee and the beneficiary
All of them
Your client, Zoe, has established a revocable grantor trust, naming a bank as the trustee. Pursuant to the terms of the trust document, your client receives all the income annually generated by the trust assets during her life. the assets placed into the trust consist of Zoe’s mutual fund, her personal presidence, a rental property located in another state, and two installment notes held by Zoe. Upon your client’s death, all of the assets remaining in the trust are to be distributed to Zoe’s two children. Upon Zoe’s death, the assets remaining in the trust will:
I. be included in Zoe’s gross estate
II. Be subject to the probate process
III. Receive a new income tax basis equal to the FMV or AVD
IV. Be distributed as directed by Zoe’s will
I only
Installment notes are IRD and do not get a step up to FMV
Your client, Zoe, has established a trust, naming a bank as the trustee. Pursuant to the terms of the trust document, your client receives all the income annually generated by the trust assets during her life. the assets placed into the trust consist of Zoe’s mutual fund, her personal presidence, a rental property located in another state, and two installment notes held by Zoe. Upon your client’s death, all of the assets remaining in the trust are to be distributed to Zoe’s two children. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
I. Upon the transfer of the installment notes to the trust, any deferred gain will be recognized as taxable income
II. After the transfer to the trust, the income from the mutual funds will continue to be reported on Zoe’s tax return
III. Upon the transfer of the rental property to the trust, all the excess prior year’s depreciation will be recaptured as ordinary income
IV. After the transfer, the $250,000 exclusion from capital gains remains available for the personal residence
II and IV
I - deferred gain is not recognized as taxable income until such time as it is received.
III - would be ordinarily true except that this is a grantor trust with control remaining with the grantor and all rental income taxable to the grantor. Thus no true transfer which would cause deprecation recapture has taken place
Which of the following is not necessary to carry out a Section 303 stock redemption?
A. The value of the stock must be greater than 35% of the decedent’s AGE, including fits made in the last 3 years
B. The 303 redemption can only be used if the corporation has the cash to redeem the shares
C. The 303 redemption can be made even without a positive earnings and profits account
D. The section 303 redemption is limited to an amount that cannot exceed the death taxes of the estate, plus funeral and administrative expenses for which the decedent is liable
C
The closely-held stock must make up 35% of the decedents adjusted gross estate value and must be the stock of a closely-held firm. The E and P account must be positive or there is no need for a 303 redemption
John was married to Holly. All of their jointly held assets were community property. Recently Holly died. John was Holly’s only legatee. They had 2 children, Patrick (deceased) and Mary, Age 44. John wrote a will some years ago and included was a testamentary trust. Which of the following assets of Johns will be included in the testamentary trust as of John’s death?
A. An IRA with Holly named as the beneficiary and Mary the contingent beneficiary
B. One half of a Qualified Plan that named Holly as the beneficiary with no contingent beneficiary
C. All of the assets included in an intervivos trust created by Holly for her separate property with John as the only income beneficiary and the children living as remainder beneficiaries
D. None of the above choices
D
The IRA will pass via contract law.
All, not half of the qualified plan will be inclued in the testamentary trust
Of the following, which property transfers at death by contract?
A. A Roth IRA
B. JTWROS
C. An irrevocable living trust
D. A GRAT
A
Only the Roth IRA transfers property at death by contract.
Which of the following would not be an allowable distribution under the ascertainable standard of a trust?
A. Medical expenses due to a car accident
B. Credit card payment for the purchase of a computer for school
C. Tuition payment to finish a course for a bachelor’s degree
D. Rent payment on the apartment the holder lived in for the past 10 years
B
Jenny gave her $750,000 whole life insurance policy on her life to her older sister as a gift. The gift tax value of the policy is the:
A. Surrender Value of the Policy
B. Cash Value of the policy
C. Interpolated terminal reserve, plus the unearned premium
D. Death benefit less any outstanding loans
C
Prairie Dog Corporation (PDC) has “key person insurance” variable universal life policy on Digger, who’s the VP of drilling operations. The owner and beneficiary of the policy are the corporation. Which of the following is correct?
A. Premiums paid by PDC are taxable income to Digger
B. Premiums paid by PDC are considered gifts to Digger
C. Premiums paid by PDC are tax deductible as a business expense
D. Any DB paid will be nontaxable to PDC
D
PDC is the owner and beneficiary, and “key Person” life insurance premiums are not deductible as a business expense.
Eric and Tawny gift $120,000 to an ILIT with Crummey provisions. The trust has, as beneficiaries, their three children. A few weeks later, Eric Dies in an auto accident. Tawny is calculating Eric’s gross estate. How much of the gift will be brought back into Eric’s gross estate?
A. 0
B. 21000
C. 42000
D. 102000
A
The gift was of cash. Therefore non of it will be included in Eric’s gross estate as the trust is irrevocable.
When a question says the client wants to “provide for some control over assets”, what does that eliminate?
CRATs
Which of the following are parties to a power of attorney?
A. The principal and the principal’s agent.
B. The Guardian ad litem who is the agent.
C. The principal
D. the attorney who prepares the POA
E. All of the above
A
Which of the following tasks are the primary responsibility of the PR?
I. Inventory of the estate
II. File income tax returns for all beneficiaries
III. Contest payment of all debts of the estate
IV. Probate the will
I and IV
The beneficiaries file their own returns and all legitimate debts are paid without contest.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a testamentary trust?
A. Is created under a last will and testament
B. It shifts the income tax burden to a lower-bracket taxpayer
C. The assets are included in the gross estate
D. It is included in probate
B
All of the other answers are characteristics of a testamentary trust
Which of the following is false regarding a bargain sale?
A. The difference between the FMV of the asset and the consideration received in exchange for the asset is considered a gift
B. The gift portion of a bargain sale will qualify for the annual exclusion
C. A bargain sale is generally not advisable if the buyer of the property is a family member
D. If the property is sold for more than the seller’s basis in the property, taxable income will result.
C
Bargain sales usually occur among related parties.
Dirk Houston is a 60-year old widower in good health. dirk owns rental properties that generate income in excess of $150,000 per year. Dirk needs only a portion of the rental income to maintain his lifestyle. In order to transfer a portion of his assets and income to his only son, Travis, while maintaining complete control over the assets during his lifetime, which of the following transfer devices is most appropriate.
A. A Gift-Leaseback to Travis
B. A private annuity with travis
C. A FLP with Travis
D. An installment sale with travis
C
Dirk wants Travis to have income, not ownership
Dirk would like to maintain complete control over the assets during his lifetime, this would exclude answers A, B and D
Which of the following are characteristics of a Private Annuity?
I. Title to the property is conveyed to the individual responsible for making annuity payments at the time of the transaction
II. It involves a promise on the part of the individual receiving the property to make an annuity payment to the transferor, usually secured by the transferred property
III. The individual responsible for making annuity payments can deduct the interest portion of those payments
IV. Each payment received by the annuitant is divided into gain, interest income, and non-taxable recovery of basis
I and IV
The private annuity interest portion of payments to the annuitant cannot be deducted by the transferee
Devon Wright asked if you could help him structure an irrevocable trust. His ultimate goal is to remove the trust corpus from his gross estate while still reporting income taxes on any income generated by the trust during his life. His best choice of trust to accomplish this is?
A. A chapter 14 trust
B. A Defective Grantor Trust
C. A crummey trust
D. A Bypass Trust
E. A GRAT
B.
A grantor trust is treated as a grantor trust for income tax purposes but as a completed gift for gift and estate tax purposes
Tenancy by entirety may be terminated in which of the following ways?
I. Death, whereby the survivor takes the entire tenancy
II. Mutual Agreement
III. Divorce, which converts the tenancy into a tenancy in common or joint tenancy
IV. Severance, whereby one tenant transfers his or her interest to a third party with or without the consent of the other tenant
I, II, III
The interest of one spouse cannot be terminated or severed without the consent of the other spouse.
Which of the following is a way to transfer assets out of the gross estate during a client’s lifetime?
A. The creation of JTWROS with the creators spouse
B. A Testamentory Trust
C. A GRAT with the children as beneficiaries
D. A client-owned life insurance policy recently transferred to an ILIT
A
1/2 of the asset is removed from the gross estate of decedent due to the deemed contribution rule.
C - because it is an incomplete gift until the grantor survives the trust term, it works, but A is a better answer
Jack is a dentist who never married. Three years before his death, he made the following gift: $300k (DB) life insurance policy on his life to his wife Molly. (The policy was worth 5k at the time of the transfer). - The only gift he made this year was: Stock worth 40k, which increased to 70k at his death and the gift of the LI to Molly. What amount will be added back to determine the estate tax base?
A. 0
B. 25000
C. 40000
D. 370000
B
Adjusted taxable gifts are added back to the TAXABLE ESTATE in determining the estate tax base at the dat eof gift value minus the annual gift exclusion to arrive at 25k. The gift to molly is included as a gift of the 5k transfer value, but the application of the annual gift exclusion fully offsets the gift.
All of the following are included in the gross estate except:
A. Proceeds from a LI policy owner by the decedent insured that was assigned to an ILIT two years before death of the insured
B. A CRAT where the income beneficiary was a decedent
C. Property where the decedent had reversionary interest of less than 10% of the value
D. Gift taxes paid two year prior to the decedents date of death for gifts made four years earlier
D
Mrs. Bailey dies in 2021 leaving her entire 17.2m estate through her will to her penniless husband, George. His estate goes to their children at his death. He has terminal cancer with a life expectancy of 1 to 2 years. The ADV of Mrs. Bailey’s entire estate is 17m. Select the post mortem technique George should utilize to reduce the overall estate tax liability of both estates:
A. Elect portability
B. Elect the use of the ADV
C. Disclaim 7m and elect to use the ADV
D. Do nothing
A
You can only use the ADV if it reduces the gross estate (yes) and reduces the estate tax due (no, because it was all left to a spouse, so no estate tax is due)
An estate planning tool which permits (but does not require) invasion of principal to meet income payout requirements is known as:
A. A CRUT
B. A charitable annuity
C. A CRAT
D. A CLT
A
The CRUT permits it, the CRAT requires it
A charitable trust that provides the grantor with income tax advantages and with a life income is known as:
A. CRAT
B. CRUT
C. A and B
D. A or B
C
Jamie, a wealthy doctor, wrote a will many years ago after his first child was born. His will leaves his home on Drury Lane to his daughter, Taylor. Jaime sold the home and purchased a new home. The extinction of Taylor’s legacy is called a what?
A. Abatement
B. Ademption
C. Extinction Parabis
D. In terrorem
B
Abatement is the reduction in an estate when there is insufficient assets to satisfy all legatee provisions
Which of the following statements concerning a durable power of attorney is false?
A. it becomes effective only upon determination of incompetency of the principal
B. The attorney-in-fact is not obligated to utilize the DPOA
C. It must be in writing
D. It ceases at the death of the principal
A
That is a springing DPOA
Martha and her daughter Lacy recently visited Sharon, a CFP professional, to review her estate planning documents. Martha informed Sharon that her friend Betty holds a non-durable POA over Martha’s assets. A few weeks later, Martha was involved in an auto accident and was left mentally incapacitated. Sharon needs authorization to make a few transactions in Martha’s portfolio. Who should Sharron contact to get the necessary approval?
A. She should get approval from Martha’s daughter
B. She should get approval from Betty who holds a non-durable POA over Martha’s assets
C. A+B
D. None of the choices
D
NON DURABLE POA
What is a TPPT?
Tangible Personal Property Trust which is funded with personal property and the grantor retains the right to use the property that has been transferred to the trust
Which of the following statements concerning Crummey powers is/are correct?
I. It permits a donor to contribute 15,000 each year to a trust and utilize the annual exclusion
II. Gifts must be of a present interest to qualify for the annual exclusion and utilizing the Crummey power can create a present interest
III. For withdrawal purposes, Crummey Powers are commonly used within an ILIT
I, II, III
Which of the following accurately describes a testamentary trust?
A. it is created as part of a will package and takes effect when the will is executed
B. Generally the assets included in a testamentary trust are subject to probate.
C. It is a grantor revocable trust until death and then becomes irrevocable
D. It is an irrevocable intervivos trust
B
A testamentary trust does not take effect until the will is administered, not executed
Ben is interested in using a QPRT as a part of his estate plan. Which of the following is false regarding QPRTs?
A. At the end of the trust term, the house will revert back to the grantor
B. With a QPRT, the grantor must survive the trust term to realize any estate tax savings
C. a QPRT can be used either primary residences or vacation homes
D. The grantor will have a taxable gift upon creation of the QPRT
A
Delores establishes a RLT and funds it with several apartment complexes. The trust requires that the trustee is to make annual distributions of all trust income to Delores’ two nieces. Delores’ sister, Hazel, is the trustee. Which of the following statements accurately reflect the tax treatment of this trust?
A. Delores will owe gift taxes on the apartments placed into the trust
B. Delores gross estate will be reduced by the value in the trust at her death
C. Income distributed will not be subject to gift tax as long as it qualifies under the annual exemption or unified credit
D. The income will be reported on the niece’s tax return
C
This is a grantor trust, so the income will be reported on Delores tax return