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Clinical Conditions in Occupational Therapy > Review for Midterm > Flashcards

Review for Midterm Flashcards

1
Q

This is the most common neurobiological disorder that manifests in childhood, and it often continues into adolescence and adulthood.

A

ADHD

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2
Q

The average age of onset for this condition 7 y/o, and boys are 4x more likely than girls to have this condition.

A

ADHD

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3
Q

T/F: The DSM 6 has placed the condition characterized by inattention, hyperactivity, and impulsivity. within the section describing neurodevelopmental disorders. This is a change from previous versions of the DSM, which had placed it within the disruptive behavior disorders.

A

False

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4
Q

Define the acronym: DAMP

A

Deficits in attention, motor control, and perception.

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5
Q

This condition includes three subtypes: combined, predominantly inattentive, and predominately hyperactive-impulsive, which are referred to as clinical presentations.

A

ADHD

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6
Q

Sensory Modulation Disorder has what associated typologies?

A

SOR, SUR, SC

Sensory overreactivity, sensory underreactivity, sensory craving

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7
Q

Sensory Based Motor Disorder has what associated typologies?

A

Dyspraxia and Postural

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8
Q

Sensory Discrimination Disorder has what associated typologies?

A

Primary senses and Position/Movement senses

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9
Q

The necessary process to eliminate the overproduction of sensory neurons that are generated mostly in infancy through middle childhood and allows better efficiency in learning new information and explains neuroplasticity for brain development is _____________________________

A

neuronal pruning

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10
Q

T/F: In the late 1960s, the late Lorna Jean King, an OT and neuroscientist at the USC, reported a series of clinical studies that emphasized the connection between the important roles of sensory processing in learning and behavior. King described a theoretical model of sensory integration that included treatment guidelines which she initially identified as sensory integration dysfunction (SID).

A

False

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11
Q

Premature placental separation, massive hemorrhage from placenta previa, umbilical cord wrapped around the baby’s neck, and meconium aspiration are factors that cause perinatal ____________.

A

hypoxia

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12
Q

___________________________ is characterized by significant limitations both in intellectual functioning and in adaptive behavior as expressed in conceptual, social, and practical adaptive skills.

A

intellectual disability

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13
Q

This type of MD is caused by an absence, or deficiency, of dystrophin.

A

Duchenne

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14
Q

This type of MD first affects the muscles of the pelvis and shoulders and is often identified by a “waddling “ gait.

A

Limb-girdle

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15
Q

This type of MD shows the following signs: Muscle wasting/weakness begins in the face, lower legs, forearms, hands, and neck. Delayed relaxation after muscle contraction can be seen by “locking up” of the muscles, followed by a slowed relaxation.

A

Myotonic

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16
Q

This MD is the third most common type.

A

Facioscapulohumeral

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17
Q

This type of MD shows the following signs: Tightness of the heel cords may result in toe walking and an increased number of trips and /or falls. Elbows that are contracted to a 90* angle are the “ most important diagnostic clue”.

A

Emery-Dreifuss

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18
Q

T/F: Virtually all areas of occupational performances and many client factors can be affected by ID, depending on the cause and severity of the ID.

A

True

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19
Q

In ID, adaptive skills are divided into three categories. Which category is occupational skills?

A

Practical

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20
Q

In ID, adaptive skills are divided into three categories. Which category is following rules/obeying laws?

A

Social

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21
Q

In ID, adaptive skills are divided into three categories. Which category is money concepts?

A

Conceptual

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22
Q

In ID, adaptive skills are divided into three categories. Which category is self-esteem?

A

Social

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23
Q

Many occupational performances are impacted by the effects of MD, including client factors, performance skills and patterns, context, and environment. What were the five listed in chapter five of the book?

A

ADL, IADL, Education, Work, Play/Leisure, Psychosocial

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24
Q

[ ] is characterized by progressive muscle weakness, defects in muscles protein, and/or the death of muscle cells and tissues.

A

Muscular Dystrophy (MD)

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25
Q

This disease affects only males and is an X-linked recessive inherited condition.

A

Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy

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26
Q

__________________ is not one specific condition but rather a grouping of clinical syndromes that affect movement, muscle tone, and coordination as a result of an injury or lesion of the immature brain. It is permanent and nonprogressive.

A

Cerebral Palsy (CP)

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27
Q

The two strongest risk factors that results in damage to the developing brain is:

A

prematurity and low birth weight

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28
Q

What is the primary brain area of involvement in Spastic CP?

A

cerebral cortex

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29
Q

What is the primary brain area of involvement in Athetoid (dyskinetic) CP?

A

basal ganglia

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30
Q

What is the primary brain area of involvement in Ataxia CP?

A

cerebellum

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31
Q

___________________ is characterized by impairments in social interaction and social communication and by the presence of restricted and repetitive behaviors.

A

Autism Spectrum Disorder (ASD)

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32
Q

T/F: Neurons in the cerebrum known as Purkinje cells form a layer near the surface of the cerebrum and convey signals away from the cerebrum.

A

False

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33
Q

This kind of CP classification has the following signs: Deep tendon reflexes are present in affected limbs, and motor control is affected by hypertonicity.

A

Spastic

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34
Q

This kind of CP classification is characterized by involuntary and uncontrolled movements, which are typically slow and writhing.

A

Athetoid (dyskinetic)

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35
Q

This kind of CP classification has the following signs: Unsteadiness and difficulties with balance, particularly when ambulating.

A

Ataxia

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36
Q

There are three levels of severity (actually support, but I digress bc this is course-specific) within ASD. What level would the following fall under?:
Attempts to make friends may fail when social cues are missed

A

Mild to Moderate

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37
Q

There are three levels of severity (actually support, but I digress bc this is course-specific) within ASD. What level would the following fall under?: Even with intervention, this child’s autism very significantly interferes with participation in meaningful occupations.

A

Very Severe

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38
Q

There are three levels of severity (actually support, but I digress bc this is course-specific) within ASD. What level would the following fall under?: Insistence on sameness and inflexibility is noticeable to others outside of the child’s immediate social circle.

A

Moderate to Severe

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39
Q

There are three levels of severity (actually support, but I digress bc this is course-specific) within ASD. What level would the following fall under?: Does not seek engagement with others except occasionally to get needs met.

A

Very Severe

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40
Q

Demyelination of the neurons in the CNS results in scar formation or ____________ that reduce the axon’s ability to conduct impulses.

A

plaques

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41
Q

What condition matches the following description?: When a person’s own immune system attacks the myelin sheath that surrounds the brain, spinal cord, and optic nerve.

A

Multiple Sclerosis (MS)

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42
Q

What condition matches the following description?: death of dopaminergic neurons in the substantia nigra pars compacta

A

Parkinson’s Disease (PD)

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43
Q

What condition matches the following description?: a process in which proteins abnormally fold and form intracellular inclusions within the cell body and neurons.

A

Lewy body pathology

44
Q

What condition matches the following description?: scars form on the UMN in the corticospinal pathways and the functionally linked LMN in the motor nuclei of the brainstem and the anterior horn cells of the SC.

A

Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)

45
Q

The term for impaired quality of speech production is _________________

A

dysarthria

46
Q

List the 3 leading causes of SCI in the United States.

A

motor vehicle accidents (MVA), falls, acts of violence

47
Q

What SCI posttraumatic complication matches the following description?: The period of altered reflex activity immediately after the trauma.

A

Spinal Shock

48
Q

What SCI posttraumatic complication matches the following description?: An exaggerated response of the ANS: sudden, pounding HA, diaphoresis, flushing, goose bumps, and tachycardia followed by bradycardia.

A

Autonomic Dysreflexia

49
Q

What SCI posttraumatic complication matches the following description?: A drop in blood pressure with symptoms of light-headedness, dizziness, pallor, sudden weakness, and unresponsiveness.

A

Postural Hypotension

50
Q

What SCI posttraumatic complication matches the following description?: Occurs due to reduced circulation caused by decreased tone, frequency of direct trauma to legs, and prolonged bed rest. Symptoms include LE swelling, localized redness, and a low-grade fever.

A

Deep Vein Thrombosis (DVT)

51
Q

What SCI posttraumatic complication matches the following description?: The abnormal formation of bone deposits on muscles, joints, and tendons. Clinical signs may include heat, pain, swelling, and a decrease in AROM or PROM.

A

Heterotrophic Ossification

52
Q

Name the leading or most common sports-related cause of SCI

A

diving

53
Q

Which of the following sports-related injuries account for the 2nd most common cause of SCI?

A

bicycling

54
Q

In this condition, there is also evidence of serotonergic loss as well, which happens at a slower pace.

A

Parkinson’s Disease (PD)

55
Q

Damage to the brainstem between the vestibular nuclei and the red nucleus produces ______________________, defined as an extensor posture of all extremities and/or the trunk.

A

decerebrate rigidity

56
Q

The presence of aspiration is highly correlated with the development of ____________ .

A

pneumonia

57
Q

During this condition, there can be lucid intervals as well as periods of confusion and anxiety within the course of a day or even hours. It is not unusual for symptoms to worsen in the evening or at night, and this phenomenon is known as ___________________

A

sundowning

58
Q

The diagnostic criteria for ____________ are as follow:

disturbance in attention with dec. ability to focus, sustain, or shift attention.
an additional change in cognition or development of perceptual disturbance.
the disturbance quickly develops, usually within hours or days, and the severity of symptoms fluctuate throughout the course of a day.
the changes in attention and cognition cannot be explained by a preexisting or developing disorder.
there is medical evidence that the disturbance is either caused by a medical condition or developed during intoxication or w/d from a substance.

A

delirium

59
Q

T/F:
Aspiration, or pathologic inhalation of food or mucus into the respiratory tract, was found in one third of all persons with TBI.

A

True

60
Q

T/F: Motor vehicle accidents (MVA) typically results in both coup and contrecoup injuries. The cerebrum strikes the skull (contrecoup), and then reaccelerates in the opposite direction to strike the skull at an opposite location (coup). This continues until the force of impact has been absorbed.

A

False

61
Q

The acronym DSM-5 stands for:

A

Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders, 5th Edition

62
Q

A CVA or stroke results from an interruption in the blood flow to the brain from either a blocked or ruptured blood vessel.

What type of stroke is it when brain tissue dies from an obstruction to the circulation in that area of the brain?

It is the most common type; 88% of cases.

A

ischemic

63
Q

Define what the acronym FAST stands for:

A

F- Face drooping

A - Arm weakness

S - Speech difficulty

T - Time to call 911

64
Q

The definition of dysphagia:

A

Difficulty with swallowing

65
Q

A TIA is a temporary blockage of the blood supply to the brain. The symptoms occur rapidly and last <24 hours. What does the acronym stand for?

A

Transient Ischemic Attack

66
Q

Reduce motor planning is termed:

A

Apraxia

67
Q

If a person has a stroke with a lesion in their R optic tract, the person may be unable to respond to people, objects, or the environment on their affected side. This could be diagnosed as:

A

L homonymous hemianopsia

68
Q

T/F:
A cerebral thrombosis occurs when a blood clot forms in one of the arteries supplying the brain, causing vascular obstruction at the point of its formation.

A

True

69
Q

Sudden and extreme shifts in mood that may be a result of a release of inhibition is termed:

A

Lability

70
Q

After a person has a CVA, abnormal muscle tone may be termed either low or high.

When tone is floppy or flaccid, it is termed: [_____________].

A

hypotonus

71
Q

After a person has a CVA, abnormal muscle tone may be termed either low or high.
When there is too much resistance and the tone is spastic, it is termed: [____________].

A

hypertonus

72
Q

T/F: When a person has a CVA, an OT practitioner may provide intervention to facilitate normalization of muscle tone in order to regain functions for occupations. This recovery of the brain is known as neuroplasticity.

A

True

73
Q

The acronym CVA stands for:

A

cerebrovascular accident

74
Q

The acronym TBI stands for:

A

traumatic brain injury

75
Q

The acronym SCI stands for:

A

spinal cord injury

76
Q

The acronym MS stands for:

A

multiple sclerosis

77
Q

The acronym CP stands for:

A

cerebral palsy

78
Q

The acronym MD stands for:

A

muscular dystrophy

79
Q

The acronym ID stands for:

A

intellectual disability

80
Q

The acronym ADHD stands for:

A

Attention-Deficit / Hyperactivity Disorder

81
Q

The acronym OCD stands for:

A

Obsessive-compulsive disorder

82
Q

The acronym MDD stands for:

A

major depressive disorder

83
Q

The acronym NCD stands for:

A

neurocognitive disorders

84
Q

The acronym AD stands for:

A

Alzheimer’s disease

85
Q

This type of BPD involves history of an MDD and at least one hypomanic episode.

A

BPD II

86
Q

This type of BPD involves mood swings from mania to depression.

A

BPD I

87
Q

Chronic mood disturbance with both hypomania and depressive symptoms but less severe.

A

Cyclothymia

88
Q

A diagnosis of MDD requires the presence of a major depressive episode, which is a period of depressed or irritable mood, with additional symptoms lasting at least _______ weeks.

A

2

89
Q

Highly elevated or irritable mood lasting at least 1 week.

A

manic episode

90
Q

Less intense mood and energy elevation

A

hypomania

91
Q

Also known as unipolar depression

A

dysthymic disorder

92
Q

Inflated sense of self-esteem or importance.

A

grandiosity

93
Q

This lifelong brain disorder is characterized by periods of psychosis, disorganized thoughts/speech, abnormal motor behavior, and diminished volition and emotional expression.

A

schizophrenia

94
Q

T/F: Delusions are the experience of particular sensations that are not real to others and that are experienced while awake. Hallucinations are fixed beliefs that, even in the face of contradictory evidence, are typically due to a misinterpretation of an event or experience.

A

False

95
Q

This is the most common of all delusions, may have thought broadcasting and/or paranoia.

A

Persecutory

96
Q

An abnormal motor behavior characterized by a loss of responsiveness to environmental cues. In extreme cases, the individual appears to be completely unresponsive.

A

catatonia

97
Q

T/F: Rapidly changing, disconnected thoughts is known as Flight of Ideas.

A

true

98
Q

Apprehension of danger, and dread accompanied by restlessness, tension, tachycardia, and dyspnea unattached to a clearly identifiable stimulus.

A

anxiety

99
Q

Excessive worry, irritability, muscle tension, sleep difficulty, concentration difficulty which lasts at least 6 mo.

A

Generalized Anxiety Disorder

100
Q

Irrational fears which leads to avoiding certain objects and specific situations all together.

A

Phobia

101
Q

An abrupt surge of intense fear and discomfort with physiological symptoms.

A

Panic attack

102
Q

Experiences of fear in specific situations and these situations are avoided because thoughts may be very difficult to manage or help may not be available in the event of symptoms.

A

Agoraphobia

103
Q

An emotional wound or shock that creates substantial, lasting damage to the psychological development of a person, often leading to neurosis, and an event or situation that causes great distress and disruption. What is this a definition for?

A

trauma

104
Q

When a child experiences physical, sexual, or emotional abuse, and neglect from a caregiver’s actions that are based on his/her own previous parenting experiences is termed:

A

Transgenerational

105
Q

T/F: Human resiliency is when an individual responds to adverse or traumatic events in a manner that is maladaptive and pathologic.

A

False

106
Q

T/F: Complex trauma can be the result of polyvictimization beginning in early childhood or adolescent, occurring within the context of unpredictable, uncontrollable, and violent environments in conjunction with inconsistent or absent protective caregiving.

A

True

Clinical Conditions in Occupational Therapy (1 decks)

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