Review Articles Flashcards
Contact of calves with _____ is the most important risk factor in Johne’s transmission?
Adult cow feces
Johne’s transmission routes are?
feco-oral, colostrum and milk, in utero
Age at which calf susceptibility to MAP exposure reduces development of lesions?
6 months
Improving _______ is more efficient to decrease MAP prevalence in a herd than ___________.
Calf management; test and cull
3 factors that increased the risk of being a MAP infected herd
contamination of udders with manure, group housing of periparturient cows, & presence of more than n 1 cow in the maternity pen
Calves exposed to a contaminated calving pen during ________ were more likely to become infected by MAP.
3 - 10 days
This provided a protective effect to calves from MAP
calving in an individual pen when cows are on grass
MAP positive culture was reduced by _______
attending calvings
Washing cows udders before parturition was associated with increased/decreased risk of infection with MAP
increased
Colostrum from ELISA positive cows increased/decreased risk of being a MAP infected herd
Increased
Calves fed pooled colostrum from multiple cows were at greater/lower risk o testing positive compared to fed from their own cow?
Greater
Which is better, foster cow milk or milk replacer when considering Johne’s
Milk replacer. Calves suckling foster cows had odds ration 2.012 to be ELISA positive compared to milk replacer fed
feeding waste milk decreases/increases MAP infection
increases both ELISA and clinical cases
Does group housing pre-weaned calves during winter decrease MAP in herd?
No, it increases ELISA positive cows in herd
Which bacteria of the URT of cattle is considered the most common bacterial pathogen of BRD?
Mannheimia haemolytica
Which bacteria can be a primary pathogen or a co-infection?
Mycoplasma bovis, potentially synergistic with M haem
For most BRD pathogens, clinical sign resolution occurs…
4 - 6 days after retail temperature returned to less than 40* C.
When does seroconversion occur for BVDV, BRSV, BHV-1, and M bovid?
9 - 21 days, peak b/w 23-40 days.
Clinical signs of BRD resolved up to ___ days after shedding ceased.
at cessation or shedding or up to 3
These APP’s increase as soon as 4 hours after insult
Serum Amyloid A and C reactive protein
These APP’s increase later (24 -48 hours) after insult
haptoglobin or Fibrinogen
Haptoglobin’s sensitivity to diagnose BRD =
61 - 100%
haptoglobin specificity to diagnose BRD =
80 - 100%
SAA Sen & Sp to diagnose BRD =
59-100; 43-94%
Fib Sen and Spec to diagnose BRD =
57-80; 89-95%
Which APP performed better, but not statistically significantly?
Hp > SAA & Fb
The optimal MODS SGI cut point was _____; with Sensitivity and specificity of _____.
8; 92 & 88%
Odds of nonsurvival were _____ when the MODS SGI score was greater than _____
86, 8
Which organ system was most affected in MODS SGI and which one in MODS EQ?
cardiovascular & hepatobiliary
MODS SGI does what?
Predicts 6 month survival from discharge in horses with acute surgical colic.
Definitiion of MODS = ?
the presence of altered organ function in an acutely ill patient such that the homeostasis cannot be maintained without intervention; common sequela to sepsis
MODS One hit model definition…
organ failure develops as the direct result of massive initial insult - sepsis/trauma
MODS Two hit model definition…
prming insult (1st hit) followed by a subsequent insult (2nd hit). Second insult may be small, but enhances inflammation and immune dysfunction
MODS Sustained hit model definition…
continuous insult (ventilator associated pneumonia which causes both the initial and sustains dysfunction
Proposed mechanisms of MODS:
- Cell or tissue hypoxia
- Induction of cellular apoptosis
- Translocation of microbes or components of microbes for GI tract
- Immune system dysregulation
- Mitochondrial dysfunction
MODS likely a complex combination of the above, evidence suggests that immune system dysregulation and subsequent mitochondrial dysfunction might be prevailing pathways.
What are PAMPs & DAMPs?
Pathogen/Danger Associated Molecular Pattern
Pathogen - alert organism to invading pathogen
Danger - markers of endogenous cell damage
What are CARS?
Compensatory anti-inflam response syndrome, limit damage caused by proinflam response while not interfering with pathogen elimination. Can be detrimental and lead to immune system dysregulation when exaggerated or poorly timed (immunoparalysis).
Regarding MODS, what is mitochondrial dysfunction?
Neutrophils activate mitochondrial dysfunction pathways; cytopathic hypoxia (disconnect between adequate oxygen delivery and poor oxygen utilization at tissue level). Results in cellular dysfunction +/- cell death. Can cause cellular hibernation-like state.
Renal dysfunction in MODS can occur in 2 ways:
- ) Regular AKI - renal epithelial necrosis, renal hypoperfusion and ischemia (least common, 22%).
- ) Apoptosis (not necrosis), caused by inflammation cytokines and endotoxin. Apoptosis is difficult to appreciate on routine histopath; blood flow typically adequate or increased during sepsis.
Adrenal dysfxn / Critial illness - related corticosteroid insufficiency (CIRCI) = ?
inadequate corticosteroid activity relative to illness severity; describes a reversible dysfxn of any aspect of HPA axis caused by proinflam mediators. Corticosteroid tissue resistance increases in acute inflammatory disease, adequate amounts of cortisol produced, but receptor binding is impaired. CONTROVERSIAL topic in human med.
True of False: HCAI’s (healthcare associated infections) exceeded the number of cases of every notifiable infectious disease in the US and deaths associted w/ HCAIs are among the top 10 dauses of death in US.
True
In VTH’s, which 2 pathogens were identified as common and associated w/ zoonotic infections?
Salmonella & MRSA
Perceived and actual HCAI control are discordant.
40% of hospitals believe to be in top 10% of most effective infection control (false sense of adequacy).
Qualify the evidence of efficacy of nutraceuticals for the alleviation of clinical signs of osteoarthritis.
Poor except for the use of omega - 3 fatty acids in dogs.
Other than Omega 3 Fatty Acids, which other nutraceutical had evidence of efficacy for OA?
Green lipped mussel powder in 3 of 4 studies.
What is the mechanism of action of O3FA?
Lower arachidonic acid concentrations and alter production of eicosanoids to less inflammatory forms.
In cats, which nutraceuticals was found to have beneficial effect?
O3FA, glucosamine, and green lipped muscle powder.
Green Lipped Muscle Powder mechanism of action?
Eicosatetracnoic acid (ETA) dual inhibitor of arachidonic acid oxygenation by both cyclooxygenase and liposygenase pathways
Where does Tritrichomonas foetus live in the bull?
Smegma of epithelial lining of the penis, prepuce, and distal urethra