Review Flashcards

1
Q

Normal pH

A

7.35-7.45

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2
Q

Normal CO2

A

35-45

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3
Q

Normal HCO3

A

22-26

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4
Q

pH ↓

PaCO2 ↑

A

Respiratory acidosis

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5
Q

pH ↓

PaCO2 ↓

A

metabolic acidosis

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6
Q

pH ↑

PaCO2 ↓

A

respiratory alkalosis

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7
Q

pH ↑

PaCO2 ↑

A

metabolic alkalosis

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8
Q

etiologies for respiratory acidosis

A
Airway obstruction
- Upper
- Lower
COPD
asthma
other obstructive lung disease
CNS depression
Sleep disordered breathing  (OSA or OHS)
Neuromuscular impairment
Ventilatory restriction
Increased CO2  production: shivering, rigors, seizures, malignant hyperthermia, hypermetabolism, increased intake of carbohydrates
Incorrect mechanical ventilation settings
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9
Q

etiologies for respiratory alkalosis

A

CNS stimulation: fever, pain, fear, anxiety, CVA, cerebral edema, brain trauma, brain tumor, CNS infection
Hypoxemia or hypoxia: lung disease, profound anemia, low FiO2
Stimulation of chest receptors: pulmonary edema, pleural effusion, pneumonia, pneumothorax, pulmonary embolus
Drugs, hormones: salicylates, catecholamines, medroxyprogesterone, progestins
Pregnancy, liver disease, sepsis, hyperthyroidism
Incorrect mechanical ventilation settings

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10
Q

etiologies for metabolic alkalosis

A

Hypovolemia with Cl- depletion
GI loss of H+ - Vomiting, gastric suction, villous adenoma, diarrhea with chloride-rich fluid
Renal loss H+
Loop and thiazide diuretics,
Renal loss of H+: edematous states (heart failure, cirrhosis, nephrotic syndrome), hyperaldosteronism, hypercortisolism, excess ACTH, exogenous steroids, hyperreninemia, severe hypokalemia, renal artery stenosis, bicarbonate administration

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11
Q

base excess

A

This is the amount of strong base which would need to be added or subtracted from a substance in order to return the pH to normal (7.40).

A value outside of the normal range (-2 to +2 mEq/L) suggests a metabolic cause for the acidosis or alkalosis.

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12
Q

base excess more than +2 mEq

A

metabolic alkalosis.

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13
Q

A base excess less than -2 mEq/L

A

indicates a metabolic acidosis.

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14
Q

Lateral positioning CO2 arterial alveolar gradient

A

> 5 mmHg

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15
Q

Lung Zone 1

upright and awake

A

alveolar pressure > arterial pressure so the collapsible vessels are held closed and there is no flow

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16
Q

Lung Zone 2

upright and awake

A

arterial pressure > alveolar pressure but alveolar > venous pressure. A constriction occurs at the end of each collapsible vessel, and the pressure inside the vessel is equal to alveolar pressure, so the pressure gradient causing flow is arterial-alveolar. This gradient increases linearly with distance down the lung, and so does blood flow

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17
Q

Lung Zone 3

upright and awake

A

venous > alveolar
the collapsible vessels are held open.
The pressure gradient causing flow is arteriovenous and there is constant perfusion of alveoli

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18
Q

In the upright and awake patient, perfusion is greatest . . .
Ventilation is greatest . . .

A

in the base and decreases as you move towards the apex (head)
Ventilation is also greatest in the base and decreases towards the apex
Alveolar compliance is greatest in the base - when a breath occurs, most alveoli in the base receive this volume as they can distend down

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19
Q

Pleural pressure in the apex is more

A

negative and the alveoli are most distended

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20
Q

Base alveoli are

A

less distended and more compliant

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21
Q

Awake lateral pulmonary ventilation and perfusion

A

blood flow in zones 2 and 3 is less

pulmonary blood flow is greater in the dependent lung than non-dependent

no V/Q mismatch

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22
Q

Anesthesia induction and lung ventilation/perfusion
Lateral patient
spontaneous breathing

A

Induction causes a loss of lung volume in both lungs (reduced FRC)

Less Zone 3 available
Lung volumes reduce and change compliance where more pressure is required to generate volume changes
Non-dependent lung moves to a more favorable compliance

Perfusion is greater in dependent lung, but ventilation is better in the nondependent lung - creating V/Q mismatch

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23
Q

Anesthesia induction and lung ventilation/perfusion
supine, paralyzed
mechanical ventilation

A

FRC decreases further with loss of diaphragm contraction

V/Q mismatch worsens - PEEP can help restore

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24
Q

Open chest ventilation/perfusion

A

resistance to gas flow drops and large ventilator preferences goes to the nondependent lung

mediastinum shifts downward

The dependent lung is better fused but in it’s highest shunt state with lots of atelectasis, while the operative lung is in dead space

great vessel compression from the mediastinal weight can cause CO falls

Spontaneous ventilation would produce paradoxical chest wall movement

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25
Q

One lung ventilation

A

the nondependent lung TV can be diverted away to the well-perfused shunt dependent lung.

Ventilation to the operative lung is now the shunt lung, but HPV reduces this by 50% to divert lung back to the dependent lung

PaO2 is higher in the lateral position with OLV than when supine

Any blood to the deflated lung is shunt flow and causes PaO2 to decrease

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26
Q

Hypoxic Pulmonary Vasoconstriction

A

Reflex where the pulmonary vasculature constricts in response to alveolar hypoxia

Reduces flow to the shunt lung in OLV
Can increase PVR up to 300% and become chronic
PA remodeling occurs (cor pulmonale and PHTN)

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27
Q

HPV inhibitors

A
NTG
SNP
Dobutamine
CCB
Isoproterenol
Alkalosis
Excessive Vt
Excessive PEEP
Hemodilution
Hypervolemia
Hypocapnea
Hypothermia
Shunt fraction <20 or > 80
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28
Q

Drugs that cause HPV

A
Dopamine
Norepi
Serotonin
histamine
hypoxia
endothelin
leukotriene
thromboxane
prostaglandin
epinephrine
phenylephrine
*Vasopressin does NOT
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29
Q

OLV

key points

A
Lower lung volume - 6-8 ml/kg if pt not auto-peeing
pressure limit is 25 cm H2O
Permissive hypocapnia - 60-70 PaCO2
Volatile agents <1 1.5 MAC
N2O avoided b/c increase PVR

transcutaneous CO2 monitoring
Central line

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30
Q

Regional anesthesia and OLV

A

can reduce opiate use, reduce atelectasis, resp failure

Cannot be sole technique

Does NOT inhibit HPV as this is a local autoregulated event

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31
Q

End of surgery OLV

A

Lungs are reinflated with slow breaths
holding peak pressures to 30-40 cm H2O
Deflate the bronchial cuff as soon as possible

The effects of OLV are not immediately reversed and hypoxemia is common

*some places uses prostacyclin, NO and phenylephrine to constrict the operative lung

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32
Q

correct position of left DLT

ventilation through the bronchial lumen produces breath sounds

A

left lung

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33
Q

correct position of right DLT

ventilation through the bronchial lumen produces breath sounds

A

Right lung

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34
Q

DLT too shallow

ventilation through the bronchial lumen produces breath sounds

A

both lungs

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35
Q

DLT too deep in the right bronchus

ventilation through the bronchial lumen produces breath sounds

A

Right middle and lower lobes

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36
Q

DLT too deep in the left bronchus

ventilation through the bronchial lumen produces breath sounds

A

Left lung

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37
Q

correct position of left DLT

Ventilating through the tracheal lumen produces breath sounds

A

Right lung

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38
Q

correct position of right DLT

Ventilating through the tracheal lumen produces breath sounds

A

Left lung

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39
Q

DLT too shallow

Ventilating through the tracheal lumen produces breath sounds

A

diminished or absent if bronchial cuff obstructs trachea; or both lungs

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40
Q

DLT too deep in right bronchus

Ventilating through the tracheal lumen produces breath sounds

A

Left lung or right upper lobe

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41
Q

DLT too deep in left bronchus

Ventilating through the tracheal lumen produces breath sounds

A

Left lung

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42
Q

Mediastinal masses

appraoch

A

scope passes in front of trachea but hehind the thoracic aorta

close to left common arotid, left subclavian, innominate artery, innominate veins, vagus nerve, LRNL, superior vena cava, aortic arch

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43
Q

Mediastinal masses

prep

A

Large bore IVs
Blood readily available T & S
External defib pads due to the risk of arrhythmias
Art line on the right side and/or SPO2 monitor
NIBP on right arm

Check PFTS
Flow volume loops
evidence of tracheal/bronchial compression
CT scan

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44
Q

mediastinal mass

complications

A

arrhythmias - stop manipulation

Innominate artery occlusion - stops blood flow to the right common carotid artery and right vertebral artery - change in art line waveform is clue. Reposition scope

Asymptomatic pts can crash under anesthesia
Turn pt lateral or prone

Avoid N2O - cysts can be air filled and grow and encroach on airway.

45
Q

symptoms of mediastinal tumors

A

symptoms may develop due to pressure on the spinal cord, heart or heart lining (pericardium) and may include:
Coughing with or without blood, shortness of breath and hoarseness.
Night sweats, chills or fever.
Wheezing or a high-pitched breathing noise.
Unexplained weight loss and anemia.
Swollen or tender lymph nodes.

46
Q

mediastinal dx

A

Chest x-ray
CT
MRI

Mediastinoscopy, a surgical procedure, with a biopsy of the tissue. A mediastinalscope is inserted into the mediastinum through a small incision in the chest. The scope has a camera on the end to give your doctor a clear view of the area. Tissue may be removed to perform a biopsy to test the cells for signs of cancer.

Under local while sitting up and spontaneously breathing is advisable

Awake FOB recommended

Helium-O2 mix can reduce turbulent airflow and improve oxygenation past the lesion

47
Q

Mild ARDS

A

PaO2/FiO2 ratio (ratio calculated with CPAP or PEEP of >5 cm H2O)

201-300

48
Q

ARDS treatment

A
Corticosteroids
inhaled NO
surfactant use
ECMO
Abx
VTE prophylaxis
early enteral feeding
prone positioning

Avoid volume overload - fluid restriction 20 cc/kg
vent settings - high PEEP and high PIP

want to recruit alveoli and avoid right heart strain

Permissive hypercapnia - indicated by rising CVP

6-8 cc/kg

Plateau pressure <30 cm H2O

49
Q

Moderate ARDS

A

ratio 101-200

50
Q

Severe ARDS

A

ratio < 101

51
Q

Stent management

A

Dual antiplatelet therapy for 6 weeks regardless of stent type after PCI

DES withhold elective surgery for 6 months

DES typically require 1 year before stopping dual antiplatelet therapy

BMS - 6 weeks after PCI or 12 weeks if was placed for ACS

52
Q

Dual antiplatelet therapy

A

Aspirin AND
P2Y12 platelet inhibitor (clopidogrel, prasugrel, ticagrelor)

continued for 6 weeks after PCI

53
Q

Causes of severe hypotension perioperatively

A
Sudden BLOOD LOSS (surgical)
Impaired VENOUS RETURN (surgery / posture / high airway pressures / pneumothorax)
VASODILATION (neuraxial block - assess block height, anaesthetic agents, drug reactions including ANAPHYLAXIS)
EMBOLISM (Air / CO2 / orthopaedic / venous thromboembolism)
CARDIAC DYSRHYTHMIA
CARDIAC Dysfunction
Ischaemia / Infarction
Depressants (anaesthetic agents etc)
Insufflating belly
Cardiac tamponade
Induction
Carcinoid tumor will crash at induction
54
Q

chronic bronchitis

A

COPD

constriction and resistance to flow with mucous production

Makes alveoli prone to atelectasis from plugging

Hypoventilation with little respiratory effort
Cyanosis
CO2 retention
Cor pulmonale

Normal lung volumes

55
Q

HCT elevated in person with COPD. Why?

A

RBCs hypertrophy and produce more when exposed to chronic hypoxia

56
Q

Treatment of COPD/Chronic bronchitis

A

Smoking cessation (> 8 weeks)
Long-acting B2 agonists
corticosteroids
anticholinergics

57
Q

Anesthesia risks for COPD

A
Bronchospasm
Auscultate lung for wheezes in pre-op
Assess for RH failure
Bronchodilators
Antichlinergics to be inhaled before surgery
stress dose steroids if oral use

PFTs are NOT required bc not a rik predictor

ALbumin and BUN can be part of risk predictor

ECHO for PHTN and RHF

58
Q

When is pulm consult in COPD pt warranted?

A

hypoxemia on room air, HCO3 > 33 or PCO2 > 50, PHTN

59
Q

Regional and COPD

A

preferred over GA as it reduces laryngospasm, bronchospasm, barotrauma, hypoxemia

60
Q

What blocks to be avoided in COPD?

A

Interscalene bc hit the phrenic nerve and can be detrimental

supraclavicular can also cause same effect

Thoracic epidurals and central brachial plexus blocks can affect the intercoastal muscles

61
Q

When is GA required in COPD?

A

upper abdominal and intrathoracic surgeries

62
Q

If a COPD pt becomes unstable under GA, consider what?

A

Pneumothorax
Bronchopleural fistula

Tendency to auto peep can increase intrathoracic pressure, impede preload, and compress the pulmanry vasculature of the heart

63
Q

GA and COPD considerations

A

Use Sevo, des but Des can cause irritation of the J receptors of the bronchi and increase airway resistance

No N2O bc can cause tension pneumothorax and worsen PVR

Humidified air

Low TV with peak pressures < 30

Avoid high O2

If auto-peep, increase I:E ratio

Consider TIVA to circumvent concerns of prolonged emergence due to air trapping of inhalation agents

64
Q

VSD with normal (low) PVR

A

Left to right shunt
magnitude depends on PVR
No cyanosis

most close spontaneously

65
Q

VSD with high PVR

A

PVR increases due to chronic high flow leading to remodeling of the pulmonary vasculature

PVR exceeds SVR and a right to left shunt occurs

Cyanosis

Eisenmenger’s syndrome
non-surgical at this pt

66
Q

Fallot’s tetralogy

A
  1. VSD
  2. RV hypertrophy
  3. Pulmonary stenosis
  4. Overridng aorta

Right to left shunt
Cyanosis

Increasing SVR reduces the shunt and improves oxygenation
Hypotension worsens the shunt

67
Q

Acyanotic lesions

A

left to right shunt

shunting causes increased PVR and remodeling

PHT, RVH, CHF

68
Q

ASD

A

PHTN- which can reverse flow of shunt to right to left and cause cyanosis

ASD with sig L to R need to be repaired before PHTN develops. Once developed, surgery not indicated

atrial arrhythmias - afib
LVH
systolic murmur with split S2 (delayed PV closure)

PM

69
Q

ASD shunt calculation

A

Pulmonary to systemic flow < 1.5:1, asymptomatic

70
Q

VSD shunt calculation

A

Pulmonary to systemic flow < 1.4:1

71
Q

VSD Anesthesia

A

treat like CHF with PHTN

72
Q

PDA

A

connects the left pulmonary artery to descending aorta

allows blood to shunt right to left intrautero to bypass the lungs

After delivery, the PDA should close and seal within one month

When open, causes left to right shunting

Heart failure and endocarditis

Ligation performed before age 5

Ventilation difficult due to prematurity and HTN

RLN damage
Phrenic nerve injury

COX inhibitors reduce PGE1 to help promote closure

73
Q

Transposition of the great vessels

A

LV empties into the Pulmonary artery and RV empties into the aorta

74
Q

L-transposition

A

RA-MV-LV-PV -pulmonary circulation - LA - RV - aortic valve

75
Q

Anesthesia and shunting disorders

A

elminminate bubbles

when PVR:SVR is > 1.5:1, then limit pulmonary blood flows.
Maintain CO

Ketamine preferred at induction bc increase PVR, contractility

Minimize drugs that increase SVR and lower PVR for L to R

76
Q

Cor pulmonale

A

complication from PHTN

Causes RHF - the right ventricle to enlarge and pump blood less effectively than it should.

77
Q

Cor pulmonale anesthesia

A

avoid increasing PVR (precipitants include hypoxemia, hypercarbia, acidosis, nitrous oxide

In severe cases, beta-agonists may be required to overcome PVH, but with the concomitant risk of myocardial ischemia.

Phosphodiesterase inhibitors (amrinone, milrinone) may be needed as they can both improve ventricular function and induce vasodilation (thus reducing afterload).

78
Q

CPP

A

Diastolic Arterial Pressure - LV End Diastolic Pressure

or

MAP - ICP

If LVEDP increase or DAP pressure decreases, then subendocardial tissue becomes at risk during diastole

Brain gets 20% of cardiac output from ICA and vertebral arteries

79
Q

CBF

A

remains constant due to autoregulation (60-160 mmHg) and collateral circulation through the Circle of Willis

HTN shifts autoregulation to the right

normal CBF can be cut in half before ischemia occurs (50 ml/100g/min)

80
Q

CVP

a wave

A

end diastole

atrial contraction

81
Q

CVP

c wave

A

early systole

Tricuspid bulging

82
Q

CVP

v wave

A

Late systole

Systolic filling of the atrium

83
Q

CVP

x descent

A

Mid systole

Atrial relaxation

84
Q

CVP

y descent

A

Early diastole

Early ventricular filling

85
Q

Calculating oxygen content of arterial blood

A

CaO2 = ( Hgb * 13.4 * O2Sat / 100 ) + ( PaO2 * 0.031 )

86
Q

Greater radicular artery

A

Spinal cord blood supply

1 anterior spinal artery - Motor - from GRA

2 posterior spinal arteries - Sensory

87
Q

Artery of Adamkiewicz/GRA

A

comes from intercostal branch of T8-L2 and provides 2/3 blood flow to the anterior spinal cord

injury can be complication from lung resection or aortic cross clamp/dissection

88
Q

CRT

cardiac resynchronization therapy

A

Used for CHF pts caused from asynchrony and conduction blocks

3 pacing leads in RA, RV and coronary sinus

When:
1. LVEF < 35%
2. QRS prolongation
NYHA 3-4

89
Q

Heart transplant medications

A

HR dependent and cannot take preload/afterload changes

Etomidate induction with narcotics

RSI with succ or roc

Glucocorticoids perioperatively

Separation from CPB with isoproterenol or epi (Direct acting agents)

Epicardial pacing

Volume status essential coming off pump

Pulmonary vasodilation with NO, prostaglandin, milrinone (and reduce PVR)

Vasopressin

90
Q

Drugs to avoid with heart transplant

A

Indirect agents (ephedrine, anticholinergic drugs) ineffective

N2O bc of PHTN

Avoid histamine releasing drugs (morphine, atracurium)

91
Q

Creatinine increase with heart transplant pt

A

cyclosporine or tacrolimus induced nephrotoxicity

92
Q

Hemodynamic goals with CPB

A

Before cannulation SBP 90-100 mmHg or MAP < 70

After cannulation, SBP can be raised if needed

Hypotension common when bypass is initiated due to hemodilution reducing SVR

If MAP cannot be raised > 30 mmHg, aortic dissection considered

CPB flow is 50-60 ml/kg/min with pressure of 50-70 mmHg. Hypertension means more anesthetic needed

Coming off bypass - mg to prevent arrhythmias. Pressors needed including positive inotropes

BP is lowered to MAP of 70 or systolic of 90 mmHg before the venous cannula is removed

93
Q

Aortic dissection management

A

Vascular access - transfuse
Art line to still perfused limb away from CPB site

Goal: no HTN or worsen dissection

HR 60

Vasodilation to SBP < 120

94
Q

Heparin dose

A

300-400 units/kg body weight prior to circuit

Confirm with ACT 3-5 minutes

ACT must be >400 or 450

95
Q

Protamine dose

A

1 mg for each 100 units of heparin

96
Q

Ischemia detection

A

Nuclear Imaging/MRI (perfusion abnormalities)
Increase in LVEDP and Decrease in Compliance
3. TEE - systolic dysfunction/RWMA
4. ECG changes
5. Clinical symptoms
6. infarct/shock

Biomarkers

  1. Myoglobin and CK
  2. Troponin
  3. CKMB
97
Q

TV

A

500 mL

98
Q

Vital capacity

A

5500 mL

99
Q

Inspiratory reserve volume

A

3300 cc

100
Q

Expiratory reserve volume

A

1700 cc

101
Q

Inspiratory capacity

A

3800 cc

102
Q

Total lung capacity

A

7300 cc

103
Q

FRC

A

3800 cc

104
Q

Residual volume

A

800 cc

105
Q

Mild asthma

A

<80% FEV1
>2 days/week but not daily

Short acting B2-agonist use for symptom control

106
Q

Moderate asthma

A

FEV1 60-80%
Daily
Short acting b2 agonist for symptom control
Add inhaled low dose steroid

107
Q

Severe asthma

A

FEV <60%
Several times/day

B2-agonsit use for symptom control
increase inhaled low dose steroid
Add inhaled long acting Beta 2 agonist
Add leukotriene receptor antagonist

For very severe add oral steroid at lowest dose possible

108
Q

Asthma treatments

A
inhaled corticosteroids
oral/IV agents
short acting Beta agonists
Long acting beta agonists
Leukotriene modified

Bronchial dilators with more than 10% increase in FEV1 are considered responders