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Micro quiz 1-HC > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is different about prokaryotic flagella?

A
  1. No membrane coat
  2. Made out of flagellin
  3. No 9+2 arrangement. One tube
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2
Q

Bacterial cell wall is made of:

A

NAG (N-aminoglycoside)

NAM (N-aminomuramic acid)

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3
Q

Metachromatic cytoplasmic granules is indicative of:

A

Diptheria

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4
Q

Why does E Coli have a weaker peptidoglycan layer?

A

Some of their side chains are NOT linked

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5
Q

A gram negative stain indicates that the bacteria has how many layers?

A

3–outer membrane, PG layer, cytoplasmic membrane

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6
Q

What is attached to the outer membrane of gram negative bacteria?

A

LPS and O specific side chains

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7
Q

What is different about the outer layer of gram positives?

A

Thicker peptidoglycan layer interlaced with teichoic acid

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8
Q

Which part of LPS is embedded in the cell membrane?

A

Lipid A

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9
Q

Why is vancomycin ineffective against gram negative bacteria?

A

It is a large molecule that cannot get through the porins of the outer membrane to access the cell wall

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10
Q

What type of bacteria is generally more resistant to detergents, bile salts, etc?

A

Gram negative

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11
Q

Are porins selective?

A

Only selects by size

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12
Q

What size molecules can pass through porins?

A

MW 600-700

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13
Q

Why is the O-specific region important?

A

immunological specificity

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14
Q

Name the steps involved in the gram staining procedure

A
  1. Crystal violet
  2. Iodine
  3. Decolorizer
  4. Red stain
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15
Q

Why do only gram positive bacteria hold the violet dye?

A
  1. Thicker cell wall

2. Permeability difference in the two walls of the bacteria

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16
Q

Capsules are non-essential for bacterial growth. Why are they significant?

A
  1. Resists phagocytosis

2. Can be antigenic

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17
Q

What is the purpose of pili

A

Adherence to other cells/conjugation/twitch motility=pushing or pulling bacteria across a surface

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18
Q

Which species of bacteria form spores?

A

Bacillus + Clostridia

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19
Q

When rotation of flagella is counter clockwise, which direction does the bacterium travel?

A

Straight line forward

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20
Q

When do bacteria secrete phospholipases?

A

When low levels of phosphorus or iron conditions occur

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21
Q

How do bacteria extract host iron?

A

Using siderophores

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22
Q

What temperature is needed to inhibit the growth of most bacteria?

A

4C or 40F

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23
Q

Why is there a lag phase in bacterial growth?

A

Need time for the bacteria to synthesize necessary molecules for growth in the new medium

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24
Q

What is the fermentation product of streptococcus pyogenes?

A

Lactic acid

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25
Q

What microbe produces butyric acid?

A

Clostridia. Also produces acetic acid and H2 in the process

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26
Q

Which microbes produce proprionic fermentation?

A

Propioni bacteriumand bifidobacterium

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27
Q

Which microbes use fixed acid fermentations?

A

enterobacteria

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28
Q

What does a mixed acid fermentation produce?

A

FOrmic acid, which can be broken down into CO2 and H2 by some organisms

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29
Q

How can you distinguish between shigella and salmonella?

A

Shigella=formic acid whilesalmonella=H2

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30
Q

How would you distinguish between non-fecal enteric bacteria vs fecal enterics?

A

Non-fecals form butanediol

Fecal enterics form mixed acid fermentation to produce H2

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31
Q

Which bacteria produce ethanol?

A

Yeast and candida albicans (fungus)

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32
Q

What is the Strickland rxn?

A

Specialized fermentation that generates genergy by fermenting paris of amino acids. Done by clostridia

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33
Q

What necessary enzyme do obligate anaerobes lack, preventing them from living in aerobic environments?

A

Catalase, which decomposes H2O2

Superoxide dismutase, which breaks down superoxide radicals

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34
Q

Examples of facultative anaerobes

A

E Coli and staphylococcus

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35
Q

Examples of aerotolerant anaerobes:

A

Lactobacillus and streptococcus

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36
Q

Examples of microaerophiles

A

Campylobacter Jejuni

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37
Q

Which bacteria can only grow in glucose not lactose?

A

Salmonella and shigella

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38
Q

Which bacteria can use neither glucose nor lactose?

A

pseudomonas

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39
Q

To use lactose, bacteria need what enzyme?

A

Galactosidase

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40
Q

Difference between a transition vs transversion mutation?

A

Transition=Changing from purine to purine

Transversion=Changing from purine to pyrimidine

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41
Q

Difference between a true revertant vs supressor mutation?

A

Suppressors acquire a secondary mutation which restores the original phenotype. True revertants have a mutation that REVERTS the original mutation

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42
Q

Describe the point of the penicillin enrichment experiment

A

Identified auxotrophs. Auxotrophs will not grow in minimal media, and thus are protected form penicillin.

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43
Q

Complementation

A

This experiment determines which gene causes a particular observed phenotype. If two mutations complement each other to create a WT phenotype, you know that you have not identified the correct mutation

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44
Q

Why do bacteria need restriction enzymes?

A

To protect themselves from bacteriophages–will degrade their DNA

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45
Q

What are transposons?

A

Mobile genetic units that can insert themselves anywhere in the DNA through INSERTIION SEQUENCES. Results in illegittimate or nonhomologous recombination

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46
Q

What is bacterial competence?

A

Ability of a bacteria to be transformed

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47
Q

Explain mapping by generalized transduction

A
  1. Grow a phage with WT host bacteria
  2. Transfer those phages to mutant auxotrophic bacteria (AA1- AA2- AA3-)
  3. Measure the % of colonies with two AA revertants
  4. The higher percentage of colonies with 2 AA revertants indicates that those two genes are closer together
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48
Q

What is specialized transduction?

A

Phage DNA incorporates into the bacterial host chromosome at a specific place. In rare instances, the phage will take the same bacterial DNA with it. Will insert that host DNA into another bacteria

49
Q

What is an Hfr strain?

A

A cell with an F+ plasmid integrated into the bacterial chromosome. Can transfer host DNA to bacteria

50
Q

What are resistance transfer factors?

A

Conjugal plasmids carrying resistance genes

51
Q

Which group of antibiotics alter membrane permeability?

A

Polymyxins and polyenes

52
Q

Mechanism of action of penicillin?

A

Prevents cross linking of NAM and NAG. Growing cells will secrete bacterial autolytic enzymes, which lyse the cell.

53
Q

Incompatibility groups

A

Plasmid grouping method–states plasmids are similar if they cannot coexist in the same bacteria–overlapping similarity prevents coexistence.

54
Q

Penicillin G is effective against:

A

Gram positive cocci and SOME gram negative cocci

55
Q

Which type of penicillin is sensitive to acid hydrolysis?

A

Penicillin G

56
Q

What is the advantage of the aminopenicillins over Penicillin G/V?

A

Broader spectrum. Includes G- enteric bacilli

57
Q

Which are the limited spectrum penicillins?

58
Q

Which are the broader spectrum penicillins?

A

Ampicillin + Amoxicillin

59
Q

Which are the extended spectrum penicillins? What additional protection do they provide?

A

Tricarcillin and piperacillin and PSEUDOMONAS

60
Q

The penicillinase resistant penicillins are effective against what type of bacteria?

A

G+ bacteria

61
Q

What type of bacteria can you use cephalosporins on?

A

G+ bacteria and SOME G- bacilli

62
Q

What advantage do cephalosporins have over penicillins?

A

Acid stability and penicillinase resistance

63
Q

Name 1st generation cephalosporin:

64
Q

Name 2nd generation cephalosporin

A

Cefuroxime

65
Q

Name 3rd generation cephalosporin

A

Ceftriaxone and Ceftazidime

66
Q

Give an example of a monobactam

67
Q

Give an example of a carbapenem

68
Q

Aztreonam is effective against:

A

aerobic G- including pseudomonas

69
Q

What is special about imipenem’s spectrum?

A

Broadest antimicrobial spectrum

70
Q

Name the beta lactamase inhibitors:

A

clavulonic acid and sulbactam

71
Q

What is augmentin?

A

Combination therapy of amoxicillin + clavulonic acid

72
Q

What is the mechanism of glycopeptides

A

Cell wall synthesis inhibitors

73
Q

Name two glycopeptides

A

Vancomycin and teichoplanin

74
Q

Cycloserine-Mechanism? Used to treat __-?

A

Inhibits cell wall synthesis. Tuberculosis

75
Q

What is bacitracin’s mechanism of action? What type of bacteria is it used to treat?

A

Interferes with murein synthesis. Gram + organisms. Topical use.

76
Q

What is polymyxin effective on?

A

G- enteric rods and pseudomonas

77
Q

How do polymyxins work?

A

Bind to LPS then causes membrane leakage.

78
Q

How does daptomycin work?

A

Inserts into the cytoplasmic membrane of gram positive bacteria. Good for multiply drug resistant bugs

79
Q

Name the aminoglycosides

A

Streptomycin, neomycin, gentamicin

80
Q

Mechanism of action for aminoglycosides?

A

Inhibits initiation complex formation and misreading of proteins

81
Q

What is special about tigecycline?

A

Prevents efflux pump from sending it out of the bacteria

82
Q

Which drugs interfere with the 50S unit of protien synthesis?

A

clindamycin, chloramphenicol, erythromycin, azithromycin, sreptogramins

83
Q

Are inhibitors of 50S bactericidal or static?

84
Q

Erythromycin’s MOA

A

Prevents chain elongation

85
Q

What is erythromycin effective against?

A

G+ bacteria, G= cocci, mycoplasma and chlamydia

86
Q

Chloramphenicol’s MOA

A

blocks chain elongation

87
Q

Clindamycin MOA

A

Blocks peptidyl transfer. GOod for G+ and some anaerobes

88
Q

Streptogamin MOA

A

Binds to 50S subunit. Good for MRSA, VREF

89
Q

Synergin-what is it?

A

A combo sreptogamin. Dalfopristin and quinupristin

90
Q

How do oxazolidinones work?

A

Interferes with protein synthesis through tRNA translocation

91
Q

Name a drug in the oxazolidinone group

92
Q

Mupirocin mechanism of action

A

Binds to tRNA synthetase

93
Q

Is mupirocin bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

Bacteriostatic, but can become bacteriocidal at high concentrations

94
Q

What is mupirocin useful against?

95
Q

Name the quinolones

A

Ciprofoxacin and moxifloxacin

96
Q

Side effect of quinolones

A

Adverse effect on growing bone–contraindicated in children and pregnant women

97
Q

Nitroimidazole mechanism of action

A

Fragments DNA

98
Q

Name a drug in the nitroimidazole class

A

metronidazole

99
Q

Metronidazole can be used for

A

anaerobic bacteria and protozoa

100
Q

Which classes of antibiotics interfere with DNA replication?

A

Quinolones

Nitroimidazole

101
Q

Which class of antibiotics inhibit RNA synthesis?

102
Q

What is ethambutol used for?

A

Anti-TB bacteriostatic

103
Q

What is pyrazinamide used for?

104
Q

What is Rifampin used for?

A

Meningitis

105
Q

What is needed to activate nitroimidazoles?

A

ferredoxin

106
Q

What does it mean to sanitize?

A

Lower the bacterial content

107
Q

Cationic detergents do not work against:

A

Pseudomonas or TB

108
Q

Which antifungal drugs alter membrane permeability?

A

Polyene compounds

109
Q

Which anti-fungal drugs bind to sterols in the membrane?

A

amphotericin and Nystatin

110
Q

Which anti-fungal drugs affect cell membrane synthesis?

A

Azoles (fluconazole and ketoconazole)

111
Q

What is a fungal antimetabolite? Is it bacteriocidal or static?

A

Flucytosine. 5-fluorouracil replaces uracil. Inhibits DNA synthesis. Can be bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal

112
Q

Mechanism of action of caspofungin? Is it bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal?

A

Caspofungin inhibits glucan synthesis. It is a fungicidal

113
Q

H2O2 can be used to kill

114
Q

Silver nitrate

A

inactivates bacterial enzymes

115
Q

Resistance to aminoglycosides is due to

A

phosphorylating enzymes

116
Q

Resistance to sulfonamides is due to:

A

alteration in dihydropterase synthase, preventing drug from binding to it

117
Q

Resistance to tetracycline stems from

A

Tetracycline efflux pumps

118
Q

UV light kills bacteria because it is:

A

mutagenic. Changes DNA.

Micro quiz 1-HC (1 decks)

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