Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Semester 1 Material > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the abbreviation for right upper lobe??

A

RUL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the abbreviation for “four times a day”?

A

QID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the abbreviation for left lower lobe?

A

LLL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the abbreviation for Intramuscular?

A

IM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the abbreviation for intravenous?

A

IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the Abbreviation for liter?

A

L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

List four phases of the cough mechanism?

A
  1. Irritation
  2. Inspiration
  3. Compression
  4. Expulsion
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Define hypoxemia?

A
  • A patient that has a PaO2 less than 80

- low oxygen in the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Define responsive hypoxemia?

A
  • Oxygen fixes it

- It is a V/Q mismatch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Define refractory hypoxemia?

A
  • Arterial hypoxemia

- True Shunt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Define hypoxia?

A
  • Low oxygen in the tissues
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

List four types of hypoxia and give examples with each?

A
  1. Histotoxic hypoxia. Example: cyanide
  2. Anemic hypoxia. Example: carbon monoxide, anemia
  3. Stagnant hypoxia. Example: shock, vasoconstriction
  4. Hypoxemic hypoxia. Example: V/Q mismatch
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Describe oxygen toxicity?

A
  • To much oxygen

- After 12-24 hours of high FIO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Describe depression of ventilation as applied to high FIO2 use?

A
  • Elevated bicarbonate levels

- Co2 retainers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe retinopathy of prematurity?

A
  • when you give infants a high flow you can make them go blind
  • must give me a PaO2 < 80
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does CBABE stand for?

A 
C- cystic fibrosis 
B- bronchiectasis 
A- asthma 
B- bronchitis 
E- emphysema
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Describe absorption atelectasis?

A
  • alveolar collapse

- nitrogen washout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the normal pulse rate?

A

60-100 beats per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is tachycardia?

A

A pulse rate over 100 beats per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

Is a pulse rate under 60 beats per minute

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is normal range for systolic and diastolic blood pressure?

A

Systolic- 90 to 140

Diastolic- 60 to 90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the average blood pressure reading?

A

120/80 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is hypertension?

A

Blood pressure that is over 140/90 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is hypotension?

A

Blood pressure that is under 90/60 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is Pectus carinatum?

A

Penguin chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Pectus excavation?

A

Funnel chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is kyphoscolosis?

A

Forward and lateral curvature in the spine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is scoliosis?

A

Spine curvature that is lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is kyphosis?

A

Back curvature that is forward

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is apnea?

A

Extended time with NO breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is apneustic breathing?

A

Prolonged inspiration with extremely short insufficient expiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Cheyne-Stokes breathing?

A

Irregular breathing pattern
Breathing increase and decreases in depth and rate with periods of apnea
Usually happens right before a patient dies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is Biot’s?

A

Irregular breathing with long periods of apnea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

List the low flow devices

A
  • nasal cannula
  • nasal catheter
  • transtracheal catheter
  • simple mask
  • partial rebreathing mask
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are retractions?

A

Sinking in of the skin overlying the chest walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What are the disease that obstruct air flow?

can’t get air out

A
  • emphysema
  • asthma
  • chronic bronchitis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What is the normal range for red blood cell count?

A

4-6 million/ mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What is the normal count for hemoglobin?

A

12-16 g/ dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is the normal range for white blood cell count?

A

5,000- 10,000/ mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is the normal range for hematocrit?

A

40-50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the normal range for platelets?

A

150,000- 400,000 /mm3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the range for forced exploratory flows in small airways?

A

25-75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the abbreviation for arterial blood gas?

A

ABG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the abbreviation for “before meals”?

A

AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What does a CBC stand for?

A

Complete blood count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is the abbreviation for “activities of daily living” ?

A

ADL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the abbreviation for twice a day?

A

BID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What does AP stand for?

A

Anterior- posterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the abbreviation for beats per minute?

A

BPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the abbreviation for chest physical therapy?

A

CPT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What’s the abbreviation for hemoglobin?

A

HgB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the abbreviation for at bedtime?

A

HS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What does Hx stand for?

A

History

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the forced expiratory flows for large airways?

A

200-1200

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What does FEV1 stand for?

A

Forced expiratory volume time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What does SVC stand for?

A

Slow vital capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What does FVC stand for?

A

Forced vital capacity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the equation to convert Celsius to fahrenheit?

A

( 1.8 * Celsius) + 32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What’s the equation to convert Fahrenheit to Celsius?

A

(Fahrenheit - 32)/1.8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the peak expiratory flows Forman and women?

A

Men- 10 L/sec or 600 L/min

Women- 7.5 L/sec or 450 L/ min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the diseases that restrictive to volume?

can’t get air in

A
  • scoliosis
  • obesity
  • Gillian-barre syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is the normal chemistry panel for sodium?

A

135-145 mEq/l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What is the normal basic chemistry panel for potassium?

A

3.5 - 5 mEq/l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the normal for a basic chemistry panel on chloride?

A

85-100 mEq/l

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the normal basic chemistry panel for bicarbonate?

A

22-26 mEq/L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is normal basic chemistry panel for BUN ( blood urea nitrogen)?

A

7-20 mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the normal basic chemistry panel for creatinine?

A

0.7-1.3 mg/ dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the definition for veracity?

A

Binding agreement that the provider of care and the patient will tell the truth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What is the definition of nonmaleficence?

A

“do no harm”

Obligation to prevent harm where it is possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What is the definition of beneficence?

A

Obligation to provide helpful treatment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the definition of autonomy?

A

Personal rights to decide your own course of action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What is the purpose of the slow flow rate during inhalation of the SMI maneuver?

A

To slowly open up the lungs and the alveoli, it fully allows the air to pop them open and get through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What is the purpose of the breath hold maneuver during IS therapy?

A

To open up the alveoli and let O2 absorb

Which is alveoli recruitment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Characteristics of RBC (red blood cells)?

A
  • normal 4-6 million/mm3

- supplies O2 to the blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What is polycythemia?

A

RBC that are greater than 6 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What is anemia?

A

RBC that are less than 4 million

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

List the characteristics of hemoglobin (Hgb)?

A
  • protein in RBC
  • helps maintain acid-base balance
  • decrease hemoglobin can be anemia
    Normal hemoglobin is 12-16 g/dL
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What does WOB stand for?

A

Work of breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is abbreviation for three times a day?

A

TID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What does SOB stand for?

A

Shortness of breath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

There are 5 general approaches to bronchial hygiene.

List three of them?

A
  1. CPT aka postural drainage therapy
  2. Coughing and related expulsion techniques
  3. Positive airway pressure airway adjuncts
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What does RLL stand for?

A

Right lower lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is the abbreviation of postero-anterior?

A

PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What is the Abbreviation for rule out?

A

RO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What does PRN stand for?

A

As required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What is the abbreviation for every night?

A

QPM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What is the abbreviation for every morning?

A

QAM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What does PO stand for?

A

Orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What is the abbreviation for every hour?

A

QH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

What is the abbreviation for every day?

A

QD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is the abbreviation for nasogastric?

A

NG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What does NPO stand for?

A

Nothing by mouth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What does magnet resonance imaging?

A

MRI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

What is the abbreviation for milliequivalent?

A

mEq

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Left upper lobe what is the abbreviation?

A

LUL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What is the abbreviation for lateral?

A

LAT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What does Dx stand for?

A

Diagnosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What does DC stand for?

A

Discontinue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the abbreviation for chest x-ray?

A

CxR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is the abbreviation for chief complaint?

A

CC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What does RML stand for?

A

Right middle lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What will happen to inspiratory time on IPPB when pressure is increased?

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What will happen to delivered volume on IPPB when pressure is decreased?

A

Decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

List three types of air compressors?

A
  • piston compressor
  • diaphragm
  • centrifugal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the two methods of production of oxygen?

A
  • Fractional Distillation

- Physical Separation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

List a disease process in which nitric oxide/oxygen would be beneficial in treating pulmonary hypertension?

A

Pulmonary vasoconstriction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the duration of flow for an “E” cylinder containing 1700 psig of compressed gas powering a nasal cannula at 3 LPM?

A

1700 x 0.28/ 3 = 158.6/60

= 2 hours and 36 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

List and explain relative contraindications for IPPB therapy?

A
  • BLEB burst alveoli
  • TE Fistula
  • Hemodynamic instability
  • Active Hemoptysis
109
Q

Why on IPPB should medication be nebulized on exhalation?

A

Gives medication time to build up to and be ready for next inspiration

110
Q

If inspiratory time is excessively long what control needs to be adjusted?

111
Q

Define passive atelectasis?

A

Can not take a deep breath, small tidal volumes

Happens in patients that are bed ridden or abdominal surgery

112
Q

Define reabsorption atelectasis?

A

Gas absorption in the tissues

113
Q

List three clinical signs of atelectasis?

A
  • decrease expansion
  • increased fremitus
  • hyporesonant sounds
  • accessory muscle usage
  • diminished, bronchial, and crackle sounds
114
Q

List three hazards of IS therapy?

A
  • hyperventilation with respiratory alkalosis
  • fatigue
  • barotrauma
115
Q

What is hypercapnia?

A

Increased carbon dioxide levels

116
Q

Describe SMI maneuver?

A
  • nice slow deep breath followed by a breath hold
117
Q

What does SMI stand for?

A

Sustained maximal inspiration

118
Q

If a patient was achieving 1500 mL and his predicted IC was 4800. What is his percent of predicted?

A

1500/4800=31%

119
Q

What type of ventilator delivers IPPB treatment?

A

Pressure ventilator

120
Q

What will happen on IPPB when delivered FIO2 the terminal flow is in use?

121
Q

If the machine cycles off prematurely what controls need to be adjusted?

122
Q

If the machine shows large negative swings. What controls need to adjusted?

A

Sensitivity

123
Q

List four therapeutic out comes for IPPB?

A
  1. Subjective response from the patient
  2. Clear breath sounds
  3. Improved chest x-ray
  4. Improve oxygenation
124
Q

List one absolute contraindications for IPPB therapy?

A

Untreated pneumothorax

125
Q

What color is designated for a cylinder containing helium?

126
Q

List three contraindications for IS therapy?

A
  1. When a patient will not cooperate
  2. If the patient is not responsive to IS therapy
  3. Can not do 1/3 of their IC
127
Q

List and explain four indications for IPPB therapy?

A
  1. Decrease WOB
  2. Will not cooperate with IS therapy
  3. Decrease pulmonary edema
  4. Can not meet 1/3 of IC
128
Q

How will a bourdon gauge flow meter read in the presence of down stream resistance?

A

Operates in any position

129
Q

What is the duration of flow for liquid oxygen cylinder that weighs 2.0 lbs powering a simple mask at 6 LPM?

A

2.0 x 860/ 2.5= 688/6

= 1 hour 54 minutes

130
Q

List two common CXR changes on a patient with atelectasis?

A
  • increased opacity

- volume loss

131
Q

What is the purpose of cracking the cylinder?

A

Rid the cylinder of debris before putting on the regulator

132
Q

List two ways to identify a thorp tube as compensated?

A
  • are labeled “calibrated at 50 psi”
  • when needle valve is closed, float will jump when connected to the wall
  • needle valve position is distal to the tube
133
Q

List the types of high flow systems

A
  • non rebreathing mask
  • air entrainment mask
  • blending systems
  • tents
  • hoods
  • incubators
134
Q

Qualifications for high flow systems?

A
  • Vt= 700 mL
  • RR= > 25
  • irregular ventilatory pattern
135
Q

Helios therapy
FIO2= 20/80
FIO2= 30/70

A
  • if 20/80 multiply flow by 1.8

- if 30/70 multiply flow by 1.6

136
Q

A patient is receiving Helios 80/20 via a non rebreather at 9 LPM.
What flow is the patient actually receiving?

A

1.8 x 9 LPM= 16.2 LPM

137
Q

What is the normal PaO2 range for a COPD patient that suffers from chronic hypercapnia?

138
Q

What is the approximate FIO2 of a 3 LPM nasal cannula?

A

4 x 3 + 20= 32

139
Q

Explain how delivering an IPPB treatment might cause depression of ventilation?

A

IPPB if a person has COPD it can cause their PaO2 to go above 65 which can knock out their hypoxia drive and cause depression of ventilation

140
Q

Calculate IBW (in kg) for a 5 ft 8 inches female patient?

A

105 + 5 (68-60)/ 2.2
105 + 5(8)/2.2
= 66 kg

141
Q

What is the range for moderate hypoxemia?

142
Q

IPPB

The trigger- what turns the machine on?

A

Pressure- patient sips in the machine no more than 2 cm H2O should pull back

143
Q

Qualifications for a low flow system?

A

Vt= 300 mL to 700 mL
RR= < 25 ( less than)
Regular ventilatory pattern
Variable FIO2

144
Q

IPPB

Cycle- inspiration to end and expiration to begin?

A

Pressure cycled expiration

145
Q

What does the “+” indicate when stamped on the shoulder of a cylinder?

A

That the cylinder can be filled 10% over the pressure stamped on the cylinder

146
Q

What are the equations for IBW for male and female?

A

Male- 106 + 6(ht in the inches -60)/2.2

Female- 105+5( ht I. Inches-60)/2.2

147
Q

What is the equation to get tidal volume?

148
Q

What is a normal PaO2?

A

80-100 mmHg

149
Q

What is mild hypoxemia?

A

60-79 mmHg

150
Q

What is moderate hypoxemia?

A

40-59 mmHg

151
Q

What is severe hypoxemia?

A

Less than 40 mmHg

152
Q

What is the equation for the duration of flow on a liquid cylinder?

A

Liquid O2 weight x 860/ 2.2 lbs/L= answer

Answer/LPM

153
Q

Gas cylinders are filled at what temperature?

A

70 degrees fahrenheit

154
Q

What is normal pH?

155
Q

What is normal CO2?

156
Q

What is normal HCO3?

157
Q

How is liquid cylinders filled?

158
Q

How many cubic feet of gas are in one liter?

A

28.3 cubic feet

159
Q

Cylinder sizes!

A 
D= 0.16 L / Psig 
E= 0.28 L/ Psig
M= 1.36 L/ Psig
G= 2.41 L/ Psig 
H&K= 3.14 L/ Psig
160
Q

What is the equation for minute ventilation?

A

Vt x f= Ve

161
Q

What does the star mean on a cylinder?

A

Retest in 10 years for hydrostatic testing

162
Q

Patient is in full trendeleburg laying on left side with arm over head. What is being drained?

A

Right lateral segment

163
Q

Explain how an IPPB treatment may impair venous return?

A

Constrict superior and inferior vena cava which causes low blood volume to the right side of the heart, which causes low blood volume to the pulmonary capillary bed and low blood volume to the left side of the heart which causes low cardiac output and low blood pressure

164
Q

List 5 clinical manifestations/physiologic mechanisms of hypoxemia?

A
  1. Cardiopulmonary hypertension
  2. Lactic acid
  3. Polycethemia- increased RBC
  4. Tachypnea
  5. Cyanosis
165
Q

What is blood urea nitrogen?

A

Key marker for kidney function greater than 20 should look at the creatinine levels
If both are high then you are looking at kidney failure

166
Q

Characteristics of platelet count?

A
  • helps blood clot
  • thrombocytopenia- low platelet count less than 150,000 mm3
  • thrombocytosis- high platelet count greater than 400,000 mm3
167
Q

Characteristics of hematocrit? (Hct)

A

Ratio volume to whole blood

Normal : 40-50%

168
Q

What is the characteristics of white blood cells? (WBC)

A

WBC: known as leukocytes

  • helps fight infection
  • its differential
  • leukopenia- less then 5,000 mm3 WBC
  • leukocytosis- increase greater than 10,000 mm3 WBC
169
Q

List four disease states where bronchial hygiene may be helpful?

A
  1. Bronchiectasis
  2. Cystic fibrosis
  3. Chronic bronchitis
  4. Airway dyslectic syndrome
170
Q

Explain how dependent positioning aides in oxygenation?

A

Patient is turned so that the good lung is dependent or in the down position which oxygenation will improve because gravity directs more blood to the well ventilated alveoli

171
Q

If you place a patient prone with a pillow under the abdomen and bed flat, what segment is being drained?

A

Superior segments

172
Q

When should vibrations be performed?

A

Vibrations should be performed on exhalation only after the patient has taken a deep breath

173
Q

List two approaches to oscillations?

A
  1. External application

2. Airway application

174
Q

Describe the huff cough?

A

Consists of one or two forced expirations of middle to low lung volumes without closure of the glottis have patient huff during expiration

175
Q

If a patient has a temperature of 94 depress fahrenheit, what will happen to the PaO2 when you run it through an analyzer at 98.6 degrees Fahrenheit?

A

PaO2 and PCO2 will increase

176
Q

What are the objectives for oxygen therapy?

A
  1. Correct documented or suspected acute hypoxemia
  2. Decrease symptoms of chronic hypoxemia
  3. Decrease cardiopulmonary workload
177
Q

Semi fowler is?

A

When patients head is 30-45 degrees

178
Q

Fowlers position is?

A

When the patients head is 80-90 degrees

179
Q

List the sites for an arterial gas puncture?

A
  • radial
  • brachial
  • femoral
180
Q

List two complications of P and PD?

A
  • increased ICP

- Acute hypotension

181
Q

Which artery is released during modified Allen’s test?

182
Q

List two types of oximetry?

A
  1. Co- oximetry

2. Pulse oximetry

183
Q

What is capnometry?

A

Measures CO2 at the patients airwa

184
Q

Patient is in semi fowlers pillow under knees which portion is being drained?

A

Anterior upper segments

185
Q

Patient is slightly bent forward splinting a pillow which segments are being drained?

A

Posterior apical segments

186
Q

Patient is in full trendeleburg prone position. What is being drained

A

Posterior segments

187
Q

Patient in supine position bed flat which segment is being drained?

A

Anterior segments

188
Q

Patient is in modified trendeleburg laying on right side 1/4 back what is being drained?

A

Left lingular

189
Q

Patient is in modified trendeleburg laying on left side rotated 1/4 back what is being drained?

A

Right middle lobe

190
Q

What does 3AA mean on a cylinder?

A

Heat treated steel

191
Q

What does 3A mean on a cylinder?

A

Non heat treated steel

192
Q

What does 3 AL mean on a cylinder?

193
Q

Duration of flow equation for a gas cylinder?

A

Pressure in cylinder x cylinder factor / flow

194
Q

Explain why a high flow system has a fixed FIO2?

A

High flow must meet or exceed the patients inspiratory flow

195
Q

Patient is laying on stomach (prone position) with pillow under hips, bed flat what is being drained?

A

Superior segments

196
Q

Patient is in full trendeleburg laying on right side put left arm over head. What is being drained?

A

Left lateral segments

197
Q

Name the hypoxia in which hypoxemia may not be present?

A

Hidtotoxic hypoxia

198
Q

List 2 of the 3 indications for oxygen therapy?

A
  • acute hypoxia

- increase cardiopulmonary workload

199
Q

The sensitivity on IPPB?

A

The closer it’s the harder it is for the patient to pull

200
Q

What is the pressure manometer on IPPB?

A

Tells how much the person is sucking in

201
Q

IPPB

Limit: what the machine doesn’t go over during inspiration?

A

The pressure it is set at

202
Q

IPPB
Air mix control: FIO2 pushed in is 100%
What isn’t pulled out?

A

FIO2 40-80%

203
Q

List / of the 3 qualifications for a low flow system?

A

Must be 300 mL to 700 mL

RR <25

204
Q

List 4 places that a potential leak could occur on IPPB machine?

A 
Patient 
Machine 
Neb cup
Circuit
Mouth 
Nose 
Connection points
205
Q

What is the Alveolar air equation ?

A

(Bp-H2O)FIO2-CO2(1.25)

Normals: (760-47).21-40(1.25)

206
Q

What is the total O2 content (CaO2) equation?

A

(1.34)(Hgb)(SAO2) + (.003)(PaO2)

207
Q

What is the Henderson-hasselbauch equation?

A

6.1 + log (HCO3/PCO2 x .03)

208
Q

V/ Q ratio is the ventilation to perfusion ratio

What is the normal?

A

Normal is .8
If it is increased- dead space
If decreased- shunt

209
Q

What is hydrolysis?

A

CO2+ H2O= H2CO3= H + HCO3

This happens at the lungs, cerebral spinal fluid, and kidneys

210
Q

What is cardiac output equation?

A

Stroke volume x heart rate

211
Q

What is normal cardiac output?

A

4-8 liters per minute

212
Q

What is normal stroke volume?

213
Q

What is hypocapnea?

A

Presence of lower thn normal amounts of CO2

214
Q

What is hypercapnia?

A

Abnormal presence of excess amounts of CO2

215
Q

What is hypokelemia?

A

Inadequate amount of potassium

216
Q

What is hyperkelemia?

A

Greater then normal amounts of potassium

217
Q

What is hyponatremia?

A

Less than normal sodium amounts

218
Q

What is hypernatremia?

A

Greater thN normal sodium amounts

219
Q

What is the set PSI for oxygen in the hospital?

220
Q

What is the pin index for oxygen?

221
Q

What is the pin index for air?

222
Q

What is PPHN?

A

Persistent pulmonary hypertension of newborns

223
Q

What is ASSS?

A

American standard safety system
Specifications adopted in the U.S. and Canada for threaded high-pressure connections between compressed gas cylinders and their attachments

224
Q

What does DISS stand for?

A

Diameter indexed safety system
Specifications established to prevent accidental interchange of low pressure (<200psig) medical gas connectors.
To conne t equipment to low pressure gas source

225
Q

What does PISS stand for?

A

Pin indexed safety system

Yoke type connection for small cylinders

226
Q

What is Orthopnea?

A

Labored breathing in the reclining position

227
Q

What is playtpnea?

A

Difficulty breathing in the standing position

228
Q

What is oscillations?

A

Back and forth motion, vibration or effects of mechanical or electrical vibrations

229
Q

What is pulses paradoxus?

A

Abnormal decrease in pulse pressure with each inspiratory effor

230
Q

What is pulsus alternans?

A

Alternating between strong and weak heartbeats

231
Q

What is a regulator?

A

Controls pressure and flow

232
Q

What is the airways resistance equation?

A

Pressure/flow in seconds

233
Q

Normal blood volume?

234
Q

What is total lung capacity?

A

6 L or 6000mL

235
Q

What is vital capacity?

A

4.8 L or 4800 mL

236
Q

What is reserve volume?

A

1.2 L or 1200mL

237
Q

What is your inspiratory capacity?

A

3.6 L or 3600 mL

238
Q

What is functional reserve capacity?

A

2.4 L or 2400 mL

239
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume?

A

3.1 L or 3100 mL

240
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

.5 L or 500 mL

241
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume?

A

1.2 L or 1200 mL

242
Q

What is a nosocomial infection?

A

Developed from being in the hospital

243
Q

What do you wear in droplet precaution?

A

Mask, gown, and gloves

244
Q

What do you wear in airborne infection isolation?

A

N-95 mask, negative pressure room, door stays closed, 6-12 air changes per hour helps toreove particles suspended in the air

245
Q

What are normal breath sounds?

A

Tracheal, vesicular, and bronchovesicular

246
Q

What are adventitious breath sounds?

A

Strider, wheezes, fine crackles, and coarse crackles

247
Q

What does monophonic mean?

A

A single note or one obstructed airway

248
Q

What does polyphonic mean?

A

Multi- notes or multi obstructed airways

249
Q

What is internal respiration?

A

Gas exchange between systemic capillaries

250
Q

What is external respirations?

A

Gas exchange at the ( A-C membrane)

251
Q

What is surface tension?

A

Force exerted by like molecules at a liquids surface

252
Q

What is La Place’s Law?

A

Stronger the surface tension the more force required to tear the surface

253
Q

What is Paschal’s Law?

A

Regardless of shape, size or height of cylinder when pressure is applied it is applied equally in all directions when a liquid is out under pressure

254
Q

What is Archimedes Law?

A

The weight of an object is less than the buoyancy of force of the water

255
Q

What is Boyles Law?

A

Temperature constant volume varies inversely with pressure

256
Q

What is Charles law?

A

Pressure constant volume varies directly with temperature

257
Q

What is Gay-Lussac’s Law?

A

Volume constant pressure varies directly with temperature

258
Q

To give Heliox therapy what mask do you use?

A

Non- rebreather

259
Q

What is the characteristics of a nasal cannula?

A

1-6 LPM
Flows over 4 LPM require humidity
Delivers FIO2 of 24-45%

260
Q

What are characteristics of simple mask?

A
  • 5 to 10 LPM @ least 5 to clear CO2

- delivers FIO2 is 40-50%

261
Q

What are the characteristics of a partial rebreather?

A
  • 6 to 10 LPM

- delivers FIO2 of 60-65%

262
Q

What are the characteristics of air entrainment masks?

A
  • 4 to 12 LPM

- delivers an FIO2 24-50%

263
Q

What are the characteristics of hoods?

A

7-14 LPM

Over 14 makes too much noise

264
Q

What are characteristics of incubators?

A

Delivers FIO2 of less than 40% because they are opened frequently

265
Q

What if chest pain is pleuritic, where is it happening?

A

In the lungs

266
Q

What if chest pain is non- pleuritic, where is it happening?

A

Not in the lungs usually in the heart

267
Q

Coarse crackles?

A

Can be cleared with a cough

268
Q

Where do you hear fine crackles?

A

In the alveoli

Semester 1 Material (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions