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Phase 1 Final > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

Consent for treatment that is presumed for a patient who is mentally, physically, or emotionally unable to grant consent

A

Implied consent

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2
Q

Consent to treatment granted by the authority of a court order

A

Involuntary consent

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3
Q

Deviation from accepted standards of care recognized by law for the protection of others against the unreasonable risk of harm

A

Negligence

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4
Q

Range of duties and skills paramedics are allowed and expected to perform

A

Scope of practice

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5
Q

The degree of care, skill and judgement that would be expected under like or similar circumstances by a similarly trained , reasonable paramedic in the same community

A

Standard of care

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6
Q

Action or inaction of the paramedic that immediately caused or worsened the damage suffered by the patient

A

Proximate cause

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7
Q

Act of injuring a person’s character, name, or reputation by false or malicious statements spoken with malicious intent or reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements

A

Slander

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8
Q

The act of injuring a person’s character, name, or reputation by false statements made in writing or through the mass media with malicious intent or a reckless disregard for the falsity of those statements

A

Libel

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9
Q

Termination of the paramedic - patient relationship without assurance that an equal or greater level of care will continue

A

Abandonment

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10
Q

An act that unlawfully places a person in apprehension of immediate bodily harm without his consent

A

Assault

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11
Q

The unlawful touching of another individual without his consent

A

Battery

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12
Q

Equal in concentration of solute molecules EX: normal saline, lactated Ringer’s

A

Isotonic

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13
Q

Having a greater concentration of solute molecules EX: plasmanate, dextran

A

Hypertonic

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14
Q

Having a lesser concentration of solute molecules EX: 5% Dextrose in water (D5W)

A

Hypotonic

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15
Q

The movement of molecules through a membrane from and area or greater to lesser concentration

A

Diffusion

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16
Q

The passage of a solvent such as water through a membrane

A

Osmosis

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17
Q

Movement of a substance through a cell membrane against the osmotic gradient; that is, from an area of lesser to an area of greater concentration

A

Active Transport

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18
Q

Diffusion of a substance such as glucose through a cell membrane that requires the assistance of a “Helper” or carrier protein

A

Facilitated diffusion

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19
Q

Blood flow to the heart enters the _______ via the _______ and ________.

A

right atrium

superior and inferior vena cava.

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20
Q

Blood is pumped through the tricuspid valve into the

A

Right ventricle

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21
Q

Deoxygenated blood is pumped from the right ventricle through the pulmonary valve to the

A

Pulmonary artery and to the lungs

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22
Q

Oxygenated blood is pumped from the lungs through the pulmonary veins to the

A

Left atrium

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23
Q

The left atrium sends oxygenated blood through the mitral valve into the

A

Left ventricle

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24
Q

The left ventricle pumps the blood through the aortic valve to the

A

Aorta and to the rest of the body

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25
Q

The coronary artery originates in the _______. Supplies the _____ ______ and , the interventricular septum, part of the _____ ______ and the hearts conduction system.

A

Aorta
Left ventricle
Right ventricle

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26
Q

The inner most layer of the heart, lines heart chambers, bathed in blood

A

Endocardium

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27
Q

The thick middle layer of the heart, it’s cells have electrical properties

A

Myocardium

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28
Q

A protective sac surrounding the heart

A

Pericardium

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29
Q

______ side of the heart is low pressure

A

Right

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30
Q

_______ side of the heart is high pressure

A

Left

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31
Q

Alpha 1

A

Vasoconstriction

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32
Q

Increased heart rate, increased contractility increased AV nodal conduction

A

Beta 1

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33
Q

Beta 2

A

Bronchodilation

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34
Q

Potential of hydrogen. A measure of relative acidity or alkalinity

A

PH system

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35
Q

Normal PH range is

A

7.35 - 7.45

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36
Q

A high concentration of hydrogen ions ; a pH below 7.35

A

Acidosis

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37
Q

A low concentration of hydrogen ions ; a pH above 7.45

A

Alkalosis

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38
Q

20:4 Bicarb to Carbonic acid ratio

A

Respiratory Acidosis

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39
Q

The _____ is the organ responsible of glycogen

A

Liver

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40
Q

The _______ is the organ responsible for glucagon

A

Pancreas

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41
Q

Verbal, nonverbal, or written communication by a patient that wishes to receive medical care

A

Expressed consent

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42
Q

The total amount of water in the body

A

Total body water (TBW)

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43
Q

Fluid inside the body cells. Largest compartment which 75% of all body water is found in this compartment

A

Intracellular fluid

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44
Q

Fluid found outside the body cells. Comprised of intravascular fluid and interstitial fluid

A

Extracellular fluid

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45
Q

Tough layer of the meninges firmly attached to the interior of the skull and interior of the spinal column

A

Dura Mater

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46
Q

Inner and most delicate layer of the meninges. It covers the convolutions of the brain and spinal cord.

A

Pia Mater

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47
Q

Middle layer of the meninges

A

Arachnoid

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48
Q

Layers of the meninges from inner most to outer

A

Pia Mater
Arachnoid
Dura Mater
Cranium

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49
Q

The largest part of the brain. It consist of two hemispheres separated by a deep longitudinal fissure. It is the seat of the consciousness and the center of the higher mental functions such as memory, learning, reasoning, judgment, intelligent and emotions

A

Cerebrum

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50
Q

Portion of the brain located dorsally to the pons and medulla oblongata. It plays an important role in the fine control of voluntary muscular movements

A

Cerebellum

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51
Q

Divide from the common carotid at the carotid sinus and enter the cranium through its base

A

Internal Carotid Arteries

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52
Q

Ascend along and through the vertebral column

A

Vertebral arteries

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53
Q

Normal rate but deep respirations caused by emotional distress and diabetic ketoacidosis

A

Hyperpnea

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54
Q

Gradual increase and decrease in respirations with periods of apnea caused by increased intracranial pressure, brainstem injury

A

Cheyne Stokes

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55
Q

Rapid deep respirations ( gasps ) with short pauses between sets caused by spinal meningitis, many CNS causes head injury

A

Biots

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56
Q

Tachypnea and Hyperpnea. Caused by renal failure, metabolic acidosis, diabetic ketoacidosis.

A

Kussmauls

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57
Q

Prolonged inspiratory phase with shortened expiratory phase. Lesion in brainstem

A

Apneustic

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58
Q

Light crackling, popping and nonmusical sounds usually heard during inspiration

A

Crackles (Rales)

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59
Q

Continuos high-pitched musical sounds similar to a whistle

A

Wheezes

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60
Q

Continuos sounds with a lower pitch and snoring quality

A

Rhonchi

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61
Q

Predominantly inspiratory wheeze associated with laryngeal obstruction

A

Stridor

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62
Q

Used for asthma with wheezing- inhalation aid that disperses liquid into aerosol spray or mist

A

Nebulizer

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63
Q

Used to treat asthma and is to be given over 2-3 minutes. Reduces inflammation, does not dilate smooth muscles

A

Solu-Medrol

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64
Q

Is the exchange of gases between a living organism and its environment

A

Respiration

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65
Q

The mechanical process that moves air into and out of the lungs

A

Ventilation

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66
Q

Mechanism that increases respiratory stimulation when blood oxygen falls and inhibits respiratory stimulation when blood oxygen climbs

A

Hypoxic drive

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67
Q

Average volume of gas inhaled or exhaled in one respiratory cycle

A

Tidal volume

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68
Q

Connective tissue that connects bone to bone and holds joints together

A

Ligaments

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69
Q

Connective tissue that connects bone to muscle

A

Tendons

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70
Q

Angles of injections

A

Intradermal - 10 ~ 15 degrees

Subcutaneous - 45 degrees

Intramuscular - 90 degrees

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71
Q

Intramuscular site and med volume

A

Deltoid - 2.0 mL

Glute - 5 mL

Thigh - 5 mL

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72
Q

Pulse OX SpO2 normal rate:

A

95-100%

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73
Q

CO2 normal range is:

A

35-45

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74
Q

Microscopic air sacs where most oxygen and carbon dioxide gas exchange takes place. They facilitate diffusion of oxygen and carbon dioxide

A

Alveoli

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75
Q

_______ is controlled by CO2 and CO2 controls pH levels.

A

Respiratory drive

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76
Q

Based on PO2 levels

A

Hypoxic drive

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77
Q

Can help respiratory drive and is used to treat respiratory depression

A

Narcan

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78
Q

Etomidate (amidate) dose:

A

0.3 mg/kg

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79
Q

Is defined as an increase in systolic blood pressure by 30 mmHg and or a diastolic increase of 15 mmHg over baseline on at least two occasions at least 6 hours apart

A

Pre eclampsia

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80
Q

Eclampsia patients are treated with what medication?

A

Magnesium sulfate

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81
Q

Is to be repeated at 1 minute and 5 minutes to determine whether intervention has caused a change in infant status

A

APGAR

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82
Q

APGAR stands for ?

A 
Appearance 
Pulse rate 
Grimace
Activity
Respiratory effort
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83
Q

Begins with the onset of true labor contractions and ends with the complete dilation and effacement of the cervix

A

Stage one ( Dilation stage )

84
Q

Begins with the complete dilatation of the cervix and ends with the delivery of the fetus

A

Stage 2 ( Expulsion stage )

85
Q

Begins immediately after the birth of the infant and ends with the delivery of the placenta

A

Stage 3 ( placental stage )

86
Q

Diffuse tenderness and then localizes as sharp pain in the lower abdominal quadrant on the affected side. Abdominal pain

A

Ectopic pregnancy

87
Q

Abnormal implantation of the placenta on the lower half of the uterine wall, resulting in partial or complete coverage of the cervical opening. Bright red bleeding, pain free

A

Placenta previa

88
Q

Premature separation of a normally implanted placenta from the uterine wall. Usually painful, usually from trauma.

A

Abruptio placenta

89
Q

Fetal distressed

A

Meconium staining

90
Q

Infant bradycardia is ______ related

A

Respiratory

91
Q

Communication system that transmits and receives on the same frequency

A

Simplex

92
Q

Communications system that allows simultaneous two-way communication by using two frequencies for each channel

A

Duplex

93
Q

Duplex system that can transmit voice and data simultaneously

A

Multiplex

94
Q

Discoloration over the flanks suggesting intra abdominal bleeding

A

Grey’s Turner Signs

95
Q

Stroke volume x heart rate =

A

Cardiac output

96
Q

Cardiac output x peripheral vascular resistance =

A

Blood pressure

97
Q

Triage during and MCI is the responsibility of the?

A

First medic

98
Q

Pertaining to the heart

A

Chronotropy

99
Q

Pertaining to cardiac contractile force ( increase with oxygen )

A

Inotropy

100
Q

Pertaining to the speed of impulse transmission

A

Dromotropy

101
Q

Substances that dissociate ( breakdown ) into electronically charged particles when placed in water ( cation & anions )

A

Electrolytes

102
Q

Ion with a positive charge

A

Cation

103
Q

Most prevalent extracellular cation is

A

Sodium

104
Q

Most prevalent intracellular cation is

A

Potassium

105
Q

Connects papillary muscles to valves to prevent valves from inverting.

A

Chordae tendineae

106
Q

Coronary arteries originate in the

A

Aorta

107
Q

Heart and coronary arteries fill during

A

Diastole ( heart relaxes )

108
Q

Side of the heart under more pressure

A

Left

109
Q

Separate A from VC, have papillary muscles and chordae tendineae

A

Mitral and tricuspid

110
Q

Semilunar valves are

A

Aortic and pulmonary

111
Q

The more the myocardium is stretched, the more forceful the heart contraction

A

Starling’s law

112
Q

3 layers of blood vessels:

A
  1. Tunica adventitia (outer)
  2. Tunica media (middle)
  3. Tunica intima ( inner )
113
Q

Cardiac conduction system

A

SA Node = 60-100 BPM intrinsic rate

AV node = 40-60 BPM ( located in R atrium ) passes down into bundle of HIS .

Bundle of HIS - passes into ventricle septum and branches into L & R bundle branch

Purkinjie fibers = 15-40 (located in ventricle walls)

114
Q

Primary mediator of heart function is

A

Vagus nerve

115
Q

Neurotransmitters :

A

Norepinephrine , acetylcholine , dopamine , serotonin

116
Q

Space between the nerves is called

A

Synapse

117
Q

Body fluid compartments:

A

Intracellular = 75% TBW

Extracellular = 25%

  * interstitial ( joints,saliva ) = 17.5% 
  * intravascular (plasma) = 7.5%
118
Q

Important for water balance and cardiac function ?

A

Electrolytes

119
Q

The form of sugar stored in the liver

A

Glycogen

120
Q

The pancreas produces

A
  • Alpha cells - Glucagon

* Beta cells - insulin

121
Q

Types of muscle:

A
  • smooth - involuntary ( intestines,
  • skeletal - voluntary ( most abundant )
  • cardiac - automaticity ( heart )
122
Q

Controls endocrine function

A

Hypothalamus

123
Q

RAS ( reticular activating system )

A

Midbrain

124
Q

Contains thalamus, hypothalamus and limbic system. Involuntary actions - temperature regulation, sleep, water balance, stress response.

A

Diencephalon

125
Q

Controls cardio, respiratory, digestive activities

A

Medulla Oblongata

126
Q

Bigger bleed, easily treated

A

Subdural

127
Q

Smaller bleed , difficult to treat

A

Subarachnoid

128
Q

Give Beta 2 agonist for what type of patient?

A

Asthmatic

129
Q

Brethine (terbutaline)

A

.25 mg SQ 45 degrees
• True B2 agonist
prevents contractions

130
Q

Atrovent (ipratropium bromide)

A

0.5 mg up to 3 times = 1.5 mg

  • Anticholinergic ( blocks parasympathetic - ACH )
  • contraindication : soy and nut allergy
131
Q

Solu-Medrol (methylprednisone succinate)

A
  • 125 mg IV
  • Corticosteroid
  • primarily used to reduce inflammation. Does not dilate bronchioles
132
Q

Most widely used triage system

A

START

133
Q

Medication administered through ET tube :

A

Usually 2-2.5 times the dose

N - Narcan 
A - Atropine 
V - Vasopressin 
E - Epi 
L - lidocaine
134
Q

Lip like opening between the vocal chords

A

Glottis

135
Q

Leaf like flap at entrance to larynx, prevents food from entering trachea

A

Epiglottis

136
Q

Average volume of gas inhaled or exhaled in one respiratory cycle. The average adult male = how many mL

A

Tidal volume 500mL

137
Q

Air space where most gas exchange takes place
Membrane only 1-2 cell layers thick
Massive surface area

A

Alveoli

138
Q

Reduces surface tension and keeps alveoli open

A

Surfactant

139
Q

Alveolar collapse

A

Atelectasis

140
Q

Visceral Pleura

A

Surface of the lungs

141
Q

Parietal pleura

A

Lines the chest wall

142
Q

Respiration occurs in the lungs when gas is exchanged between alveoli and RBC in pulmonary capillaries through the

A

Capillary membranes

143
Q

Mechanical process that moves air in and out of the lungs

A

Ventilation

144
Q

Nasal intubation:

A
  • Advance tube through glottis opening when pt inhales
  • blind insertion
  • not recommend for trauma
145
Q

1 cause of airway obstruction is

A

Tongue

146
Q

Foreign Body Airway Obstruction : Age 1 year and older

A

• if good airway exchange, encourage to cough,
Monitor condition

  • if can’t talk, Heimlich until dislodged or becomes unresponsive (if pregnant or obese, do chest thrust)
  • if unresponsive, assist to ground and start CPR
147
Q

Foreign Body Airway Obstruction: under 1 year old

A

• if good airway exchange, encourage to cough,
Monitor condition

  • if can’t make sounds or breathe, alternate 5 back slaps with 5 chest thrust
  • if unresponsive , start CPR
148
Q

O2 flow rates

A

NC = 2-6 Lpm

Non-Rebreather mask = 12-15 Lpm

Nebulizer = 6 Lpm

149
Q

Narcotic overdose signs and symptoms are:

A
  • Respiratory depression
  • pinpoint pupils
  • decreased heart rate
  • low blood pressure
  • low respiratory rate
150
Q

Narcotic overdose treatment :

A

Narcan .5 mg at a time up to 4 mg until good respiratory function

  • have suction ready
  • Narcan blocks opiate receptors
  • Narcan does not help the BP, only the RR
151
Q

Injection Techniques (all needles 3/8 to 1”long)

A

Intradermal - 10 to 15 degrees slowly - 25 to 27 G

Subcutaneous - 35-45 degrees - 24-26 G pinch skin before injecting

Intramuscular - 90 degrees 21-23 G
• max fluid quantity
- deltoid ~ 2 mL
- glute, Vastus lateralis, rectus femoris ~ 5mL

152
Q

IO site for pediatrics is

A

Medial aspect of proximal tibia (2-3 finger-breadths below tibial tuberosity)

153
Q

Medication absorption rates: (fastest to slowest)

A
  • IV (fastest)
  • IO
  • IM (moderate)
  • SQ
  • SL
  • ET (only if no other option)
154
Q

IV Locations

A

• Central (rarely used pre hospital)
~ internal jugular, subclavian, femoral veins

• Peripheral
~ external jugular, arms, legs, (exhaust all possibilities on arms before trying legs)

~ neonates & infants - scalp
155
Q

APGAR ( score of 0-10, taken at 1 min and 5 min )

A

• Appearance
~ 0 = Body and extremities blue/pale
~ 1 = body pink, extremities blue
~ 2 = completely pink

• Pulse
~ 0 = absent
~ 1 = below 100/min
~ 2 = 100/min or above

• Grimace
~ 0 = no response
~ 1 = grimace
~ 2 = cough, sneeze, cry

• Activity
~ 0 = limp
~ 1 = some flexion of extremities
~ 2 = action motion

• Respiratory Effort
~ 0 = absent
~ 1 = slow and irregular
~ 2 = strong cry

156
Q

140/90 BP
• S/S: water retention, HTN, protein urine, moon faced

Tx: keep calm, dim lights, L lateral recumbent position, normal Saline IV , transport rapidly without lights and sirens, possible administration of hypertensive or Mag Sulfate

A

Pre-Eclampsia

157
Q

Eclampsia

A

Magnesium sulfate 2G over 15-20 min, O2, manage airway, monitor vital signs, transport immediately

158
Q
  • embryo attaches anywhere outside of the uterus ( egg typically fertilized in the Fallopian tubes, travels down the tubes and implants in uterus.
  • abdominal pain in a woman of childbearing years, consider ectopic pregnancy until proven otherwise
A

Ectopic pregnancy

159
Q

Number of times a woman has been pregnant

A

Gravida

160
Q

Number of deliveries a woman has had is called

A

Para

161
Q

Any pregnancy ending before 20 wks regardless of cause

A

Abortion

162
Q

A woman who is pregnant but not delivered her first child yet is

A

Nullipara

163
Q

If a child has bradycardia it’s likely a respiratory issue. How would you treat

A
  • stimulate child by rubbing and flicking feet
  • if pulse is 60-100, assist child with breathing faster
  • if pulse is below 60 start chest compression (2 fingers or encircle inch
164
Q

Discoloration around umbilicus

A

Cullen’s sign

165
Q

Discoloration over flanks

A

Gray’s turner sign

166
Q

Atropine

A

Dose: .5mg - 1.0mg fast push for bradycardia
Indication: bradycardia

167
Q

Verbal , non verbal or written communication by the patient agreeing to care

A

Expressed consent

168
Q

Legal responsibility

A

Liability

169
Q

_______ causes the heart to pump harder, which uses more O2 and can cause creation of lactic acid

A

Inotropic drugs

170
Q

If the sympathetic nervous system is blocked:

A

Vasodilation, decreased HR (Chronotropy), contractility, AV conduction, bronchoconstriction

171
Q

The four elements of Negligence:

A
  • Duty to act
  • Breech of duty
  • Actual Damages
  • Proximate Cause
172
Q

Principal buffer of the body is

A

Bicarb

173
Q

Respiration down, CO2 up =

A

Respiratory acidosis

174
Q

Respirations up and CO2 down =

A

Respiratory Alkolosis

175
Q

Miller blade is used to lift what during intubation?

A

Epiglottis

176
Q

The Mac blade is used to lift what during intubation?

A

Vallecula

177
Q

Uncuffed tubes are less than what size?

A

4.5 mm

178
Q

Cuffed tubes are what size and higher?

A

5 mm

179
Q

What joints are your Hinge Joints

A

Knees, elbows, fingers

180
Q

What joints are your pivot joints

A

C1 and C2

181
Q

Ball and Socket joints

A

Hip and shoulders

182
Q

Small sacs filled with synovial fluid

A

Bursae

183
Q

pH Scale

A

0-6 Acidic

7 Neutral

8-14 Basic

184
Q

Types of shock:

A

Cardiogenic- (pump problem)

Hypovolemic- (fluid)

Neurogenic- (container)

Anaphylactic- life threatening allergic reaction

Septic- infection spread through the blood stream

185
Q

Etomidate (Amidate)

A

Class: hypnotic
Duration: 3 to 5 min
Indication RSI

Dose: 0.1 to 0.3 mg/kg over 10-20 sec

186
Q

Succinylcholine (Anectine)

A

Class: Neuromuscular blocker (Depolarizing)

Indications: To facilitate ET intubation (RSI)

Onset: less than 1 min

Duration: 4-10 min

Dose 1-1.5 mg/kg rapid IV, repeat if needed

187
Q

Versed (Midazolam)

A

Class: benzodiazepine sedative - hypnotic

Indications: RSI - behavioral - cardioversion-seizures

Dose:
• RSI 5 mg ; 2-3 mg recommended

  • Behavioral 2.5 mg ; 1-2 mg recommended
  • Cardioversion 2.5 mg ; start with 1-2 mg titrate up to 2-3 mg doses every 1-2 mins based on response and effect
188
Q

Vecuronium (Norcuron)

A

Class: neuromuscular blocker (Non Depolarizing)

Indication: to provide long term paralysis for RSI

Duration: 15-45 min

Dose: 0.1 mg/kg over 1-2 min

189
Q

Rocuronium Bromide (Zemuron)

A

Class: neuromuscular blocker (Non Depolarizing)

Indications: long term paralysis for RSI

Duration: 15-45 min with an average of 30 min

Dose: 0.6 mg/kg

190
Q

Furosemide (Lasix)

A

Class: diuretic

Indications: pulmonary edema secondary to CHF

Dose: 20-40 mg or 1 mg/kg slow IV over 1-2 min

191
Q

Xylocaine (Lidocaine)

A

Class: Antidysrhythmic

Indications: Head injury / ICP , numbs vagus nerve

Dose: 1 mg/kg

192
Q

Diazepam (Valium)

A

Class: benzodiazepine sedative, hypnotic, anticonvulsant

Indications: anticonvulsant

Dose:
• seizure activity- 5 mg over 2 min IV every 10-15 min prn

193
Q

Magnesium Sulfate

A

Class: Electeolyte / anticonvulsant

Indications: seizures of eclampsia (toxemia of preg)

Dose: Eclamptic Seizures: 2-5 g over 10-15 min

Smooth muscle relaxer

194
Q

Lorazepam (Ativan)

A

Class: benzodiazepine

Indications: seizures/ status epilepticus

Dose: 2-4 mg IV over 2 min

195
Q

of times per sec a radio wave oscillates

A

Radio frequency

196
Q

The uterus normally has the capacity of 10cc of fluid but in the 3rd trimester it has ?

A

5,000 cc

197
Q

The uterus normally weighs 60g (2 oz) but in the 3rd trimester it weighs

A

1,000 g (2 lbs)

198
Q

Narcotics:

A

Morphine and fentanyl

199
Q

What % increase of O2 consumption happens in the 3rd trimester

A

20%

200
Q

What % increase in tidal volume in 3rd trimester

A

40%

201
Q

Maternal blood volume increases by what %

A

45%

202
Q

BP decreases during 1st and 2nd trimester but in the 3rd it

A

Rises to non-pregnant levels

203
Q

Fetal development stages:

A

Preembryonic- first 14 days after conception

Embryonic - day 15 to 8 wks

Fetal - 8 wks until delivery

Estimated date of confinement (EDC) = due date

204
Q

Layers of the brain:

A

Epidural space (outside the brain)

Dura Mater - outer (tough)

Subdural space

Arachnoid Mater - Middle

Subarachnoid space

Pia Mater - inner

205
Q

Epinephrine

A

Class: sympathomimetic

Indications: anaphylaxis, all cardiac

Duration: 5 min

Dose:
• CARDIAC ARREST - IV q 3 to 5 min
•ET 2-2 1/2 times the IV dose via ET
* repeat every 3-5 min - poor choice for admin

• Anaphylactic Reaction
(Mild reaction) 0.3-0.5mg (1:1,000) SQ
(Moderate to Severe) 0.3-0.5mg (1:10,000) slow IV (1-2 min)

• Symptomatic bradycardia
* infusion of 2-10 mcg/min titrated to response

206
Q

Labetalol

A

Class: alpha beta adrenergic blocker

Indications: cardiac chest pn / hypertension

Dose: 5 to 20 mg IV slow push over 2 min

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