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Review Flashcards

1
Q

TSH- thyroid stimulating hormone is responsible for what?

A

Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH) stimulates the thyroid gland, which helps regulate the body’s metabolism

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2
Q

Which gland releases ACTH- adrenocorticotrophic hormone?

A

Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH) controls the hormones released by the adrenal gland that support blood pressure, metabolism, and the body’s response to stress

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3
Q

FSH and LH stimulate what, in males and in females?

A

Gonadotropins (Follicle stimulating hormone or FSH and Luteinizing hormone or LH) stimulate production of sperm in a man’s testicles or eggs in a woman’s ovaries and regulate a woman’s menstrual cycle

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4
Q

What do growth hormones promote in the body?

A

Growth hormone promotes growth of the long bones in the arms and legs, thickens the skull and bones of the spine, and causes the tissue over the bones to thicken

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5
Q

what does prolactin stimulate?

A

Prolactin stimulates milk production in women after childbirth

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6
Q

This hormone secreted by the anterior pituitary, stimulates the movement of fat from the body to the bloodstream

A

lipotropin

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7
Q

what are the hormones secreted by the posterior pituitary?

A

oxytocin and antidiuretic hormone (vasopressin)

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8
Q

this hormone increases reabsorption of water by the kidneys and allows a person to stay hydrated

A

ADH= vasopressin

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9
Q

What does the parathyroid gland produce and regulate?

A

parathyroid hormone, which helps maintain an appropriate balance of calcium in the bloodstream and in tissues that depend on calcium for proper functioning

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10
Q

What is an increased BNP level associated with and why?

A

heart failure- BNP is a neurohormone that’s released from the ventricles when the ventricles experience increased pressure and stretch

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11
Q

How should a child be positioned in the first 24 hours after the placement of a ventriculoperitoneal shunt?

A

supine with the head of the bed flat to prevent too rapid a decrease in cerebrospinal fluid pressure

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12
Q

Why is an exchange transfusion necessary in an infant with erythroblastosis fetalis?

A

to reduce the blood concentration of bilirubin and correct the anemia. The Rh-pos blood is replaced by Rh-neg blood

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13
Q

List the risk factors for colon cancer.

A

hx of inflammatory bowel disease, age>40, hx of familial polyposis, colorectal polyps, and high fat or low fiber diet

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14
Q

What do you include in the plan of care of a women in labor that tested positive for gonorrhea?

A 
Administer erythromycin (E-mycin) eye drops to the infant after birth
monitor fetal heart tones more frequently
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15
Q

Identify symptoms of acute epididymitis

A

acute tenderness and pronounced swelling of the scrotum, gradual onset of unilateral scrotal pain, urethral discharge, and fever
occasionally, but not routinely, associated with urinary tract infection

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16
Q

What does sever diarrhea lead to?

A

metabolic acidosis due to large bicarbonate losses

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17
Q

At what point does brain damage occur after the loss of cardiopulmonary function?

A

after 4-6 min. permanent brain damage is almost certain. it is important to begin CPR promptly after a cardiopulmonary arrest

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18
Q

What is the purpose of an abduction bar with a patient in a spica cast?

A

it is incorporated into the cast to increase the cast’s strength and maintain the legs in alignment

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19
Q

What should the nurse assess for after a bilateral adrenalectomy?

A

Persistent cortisol excess undermines the collagen matrix of the skin, impairing wound healing. It also carries an increased risk of infection and of bleeding.

20
Q

thrombocytopenia

A

= low blood platelet count

  • Platelets (thrombocytes) are colorless blood cells that play an important role in blood clotting. Platelets stop blood loss by clumping and forming plugs in blood vessel holes.
    • often occurs as a result of a separate disorder, such as leukemia or an immune system problem, or as a medication side effect
21
Q

Why should a nurse assess a client with thrombocytopenia who has also developed a hemorrhage, for tachycardia?

A

because the heart beats faster to compensate for decreased circulating volume and decreased numbers of oxygen-carrying RBCs. The degree of cardiopulmonary distress and anemia will be related to the amount of hemorrhage that occurred and the period of time over which it occurred. Bradycardia is a late symptom of hemorrhage; it occurs after the client is no longer able to compromise and is debilitating further into shock.

22
Q

If a hemorrhaging pt with thrombocytopenia develops bradycardia, what could potentially be the outcome?

A

If bradycardia is left untreated, the client will die from cardiovascular collapse. Decreased PaCO2 is a late symptom of hemorrhage, after transport of oxygen to the tissue has been affected.

23
Q

SIADH

A

characterized by excess antidiuretic hormone (ADH, vasopressin) secretion, despite low plasma osmolality. Excess ADH causes water retention. As blood volume expands, plasma becomes diluted resulting in dilutional hyponatremia. Aldosterone is suppressed, resulting in increased renal sodium excretion. Water moves from the hypotonic plasma and the interstitial spaces into the cells.

24
Q

What is the earliest sign of HF in an infant?

A

tachycardia/ sleeping rate>160 bpm

25
Q

When planning a 15-month-old toddler’s daily diet with the parents, what amount of milk should the nurse include?

A

Toddlers around the age of 15 months need 2 to 3 cups (500 to 750 mL) of milk per day to supply necessary nutrients such as calcium. A daily intake of more than 3 cups (750 mL) of milk may interfere with the ingestion of other necessary nutrients

26
Q

at what age is screening for scoliosis appropriate?

A

screening for scoliosis should begin at age 8 and be performed yearly thereafter

27
Q

At what age should a toddler be able to speak 3 words?

A

By age 18 months, 90% of children can say three words. Typically a child 23 months of age can build a tower of four cubes. The ability to use a spoon or fork with little spilling is accomplished by the age of 20 months. Throwing a ball overhand typically is achieved by age 3

28
Q

Normal ABGs

A

pH: 7.35-7.45
PaCO2: 35-45 mmHG
PaO2: 80-100 mmHG
HCO3: 22-26

29
Q

normal creatinine

A

0.6-1.3 mg/dL

30
Q

s/s of respiratory alkalosis

A 
seizures
deep, rapid breathing
hyperventilation
tachycardia
decr. or normal BP
hypokalemia
numbness & tingling in extremities
lethargy, confusion, light headedness, n/v
31
Q

causes of respiratory alalosis

A

hyperventilation (anxiety, fear, PE)

mechanical ventilation

32
Q

s/s of metabolc alkalosis

A 
restlessness followed by lethargy
dysrhythmias  (tachy)
compensatory hypoventilation
confusion (decr. LOC, dizzy, irritable)
n/v/d
tremors, muscle cramps, tingling of fingers & toes
hypokalemia
33
Q

causes of metabolic alkalosis

A

severe vomiting, excessive GI suctioning, diarrhea, excessive NaHCO3

34
Q

Causes of hypernatremia (MODEL)

A 
meds, meals (too much sodium intake)
osmotic diuretics
diabetes insipidus
excessive H2O loss
low H2O intake
35
Q

CBC lab values

A 
RBC: 4.5-5 F, 4.5-6.3 M
Hgb: 12-15f, 14-16.5 m
Hct: 35-52%
Plt: 150-400,000
WBC: 5,000-10,000
36
Q

Ulcerative colitis

A

location: colon mainly
disease development: uniform progression spread from rectum through the colon
s/s: bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain, weight loss, ulceration and bleeding
liver diseases, anemia, fever, arthritis and skin changes

37
Q

crohn’s disease

A

location: entire GI tract, although most common site is between small and large intestine
disease development: eleven spread, inflamed intestinal segments between healthy intestinal areas
s/s: abdominal pain, weight loss, diarrhea, perforation in the colon, toxic megacolon
fistulas, abscesses, anemia, fever, arthritis and skin changes

38
Q

The nurse is caring for a primigravida in active labor when the client’s membranes rupture spontaneously. The nurse should assess the client for:

A

Whenever the membranes rupture, it is important for the nurse to assess for a prolapsed cord.

39
Q

Describe the transition phase of labor

A

the last part of active labor- Irritability, nausea, vomiting, and often the urge to push are all signs that the client is beginning the transition phase of labor that occurs when the client is 8 to 10 cm dilated
Contractions are usually very strong, coming every two and a half to three minutes or so and lasting a minute or more, and you may start shaking and shivering

40
Q

Explain TORCH

A

refers to Toxoplasmosis, Other Rubella virus, Cytomegalovirus, and Herpes simplex virus — agents that may infect the fetus or neonate, causing numerous ill effects

41
Q

define x-linked recessive inheritance

A

a mode of inheritance in which a mutation in a gene on the X chromosome causes the phenotype to be expressed in males and in females who are homozygous for the gene mutation

42
Q

causes of fluid volume excess

A

CHF, renal failure, cirrhosis, overhydration,

43
Q

symptoms and lab findings with fluid volume excess

A

symptoms: peripheral edema, periorbital edema, elevated BP, dyspnea, altered LOC
labs: decr BUN, Hgb, Hct, serum osmolality, urine specific gravity

44
Q

causes of fluid volume deficit

A

inadequate fluid intake, hemorrhage, v/d, massive edema

45
Q

symptoms and lab findings in a pt with fluid volume deficit

A

sym: weight loss, oliguria, postural hypotension
labs: incr. BUN, Hgb, Hct, urine specific gravity

46
Q

common presentation and treatment of a patient with hypokalemia

A

rapid, thready pulse, flat T waves, fatigue, anorexia, muscle cramps
IV K+ supplements, encourage foods high in K+ (bananas, oranges, spinach)

47
Q

common presentation and treatment of a patient with hyperkalemia

A

tall, tented T waves, bradycardia, muscle weakness

give 10-20% glucose with regular insulin, Kayexalate, renal dialysis may be needed

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