Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ATI Review > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

Pre-op cerebral angiogram

A

allergy to iodine?
check kidney function
take off jewelry
NPO 4-6 hrs before
sedation before and during procedure
edu SE of dye: metallic taste, warm sensation over face, jaw, tongue, lip and behind ears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

post- op cerebral angiogram

A

inspect insertion site and distal extremities for pedal pulses, color and warmth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Electroencephalography (EEG)

A

assess electrical activity of brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

pre-op Electroencephalography (EEG)

A

wash hair
encourage sleep deprivation
doesnt need to be NPO
NO stimulants 12-24hr before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

during procedure of Electroencephalography (EEG)

A

takes 1 hr
flashing lights may be used
pt may be asked to hyperventilate (increases electrical activity in brain)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Post op Electroencephalography (EEG)

A

normal activity resumed
assess GCS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Glass coma scale (GCS)

A

assesses LOC
<8 severe TBI
9-12 mod TBI
>13 minor TBI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

ICP

A

monitor device inserted into cranial cavity that records pressure
risk for infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

signs of increased ICP

A

Irritability early sign
HA
Decreases in LOC
pupil abnormality
cheyne stokes, hyperventilate or apnea
abnormal posturing (decorticate or decerebrate)
cushing triad (severe HTN, widened pulse pressure and Bradycardia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Normal ICP

A

10-15

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Lumbar puncture (spinal tap)

A

sample of CSF to diagnose syphilis, MS, meningitis and infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

preop Lumbar puncture (spinal tap)

A

void before
position on one side in cannonball or stretch over bedside table

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

post op Lumbar puncture (spinal tap)

A

lay flat
monitor for HA (CSF leak)
give pain meds and fluids
if HA- give epidural blood patch to seal hole in dura

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

MRI

A

Assess for allergy to iodine/shellfish
check kidney function
check for Closter phobia
remove jewelry
ask if any metal implants (IUD has metal)
give earplugs (MRI is loud)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

S/S of nociceptor pain

A

damage to tissue
throbbing, aching, localized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

S/S neuropathic pain

A

Shooting, burning, pins and needles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

AE of opioids

A

resp depression
constipation
urinary retention
ortho hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Viral meningitis

A

most common
subsides on own- no abt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Bacterial meningitis

A

requires abt
high mortality rate
contagious (droplet)
vaccine to prevent (Hib in children and MCV4 in adults)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

S/S of meningitis

A

nuchal rigidity (neck stiffness)
photophobia
fever/chills
AMS
Positive kernings sign (pain w/ leg extension)
positive brubenskis sign (flexion of neck with leg flexion)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Meningitis Dx

A

lumbar puncture - decreased glucose and cloudy CSF
Clear fluid= viral meningitis
elevated protein and WBC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Nursing interventions for meningitis

A

droplet precautions until after abt tx for 24hrs
quiet, dim lit room
elevate HOB 30
Avoid coughing and sneezing (can increase ICP)
seizure precautions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Meds for bacterial meningitis

A

Ceftriaxone, cefotaxime in combo with vanco
anticonvulsants (phenytoin)
for people who have been in contact: cipro, rifampin, or ceftriaxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Risk factors for seizure

A

fever
cerebral edema
infection
exposure to toxins
brain tumors
hypoxia
alcohol and drug withdrawal
electrolyte imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Tonic clonic seizures

A

tonic phase: stiffness and loss of consciousness
clonic phase: 1-2 min of rhythmic jerking of extremities
postictal phase: confused and sleepy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

absent seizures

A

more common in children

resemble daydreaming:
blank stare, eye fluttering, lip smacking, picking at clothes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

myoclonic seizures

A

brief jerking or stiffening of extremities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

atonic seizures

A

loss of muscle tone
results in falling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

status epilepticus

A

repeated seizure activity within 30 min of single seizure lasting >5 min
medical emergency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Nursing interventions during seizure

A

turn pt to side
NOTHING in mouth
loosen clothing
never restrain them
clear area to avoid injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Parkinsons disease

A

too little dopamine and too much acetocholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

S/S of parkinsons disease

A

tremors
muscle rigidity
shuffling gait
bradykinesia
mask like expression
drooling with difficulty swallowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Medications for parkinsons disease

A

sinemet
benztropine (anticholinegic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Alzheimers meds

A

donepezil: prevents break down of ACH and increases the amount of ACH

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Multiple sclerosis (MS)

A

no cure
common for relapse and remitting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Risk factors for MS

A

emotional stress
pregnancy
fatigue
extreme temps and overexertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

S/S of MS

A

diplopia (change in peripheral vision)
tinnitus
vertigo
decreased hearing acuity
dysphagia
muscle weakness
nystagmus (fluttering of the eye)
B & B dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Meds for MS

A

Azathioprine and cyclosporine’s - reduces relapses (Monitor for HTN and infection because its an immunosuppressant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

A

neurological disorder: deterioration and death of motor neurons
death usually occurs within 3-5 yrs of manifestation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

S/S of ALS

A

affects men more than women (40-70)
fatigue
muscle weakness
muscle atrophy
dysphagia
dysarthria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Lab tests for ALS

A

Increased Crt kinase lvl (CK-BB)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Riluzole

A

Med for ALS
slows down deterioration of motor neurons by decreasing release of glutamic acid
must be taken early in disease
adds 2-3 months of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Nursing considerations for Riluzole

A

monitor liver function
assess for dizziness, vertigo and somnolence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

edu for Riluzole

A

avoid alcohol
take q12hrs
store away from bright lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Myasthenia Gravis

A

autoimmune disease
severe muscular weakness
worsens with increased activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

S/S of Myasthenia gravis

A

progressive muscle weakness
diplopia
difficulty chewing and swallowing
resp dysfunction
incontinence
ptosis (drooping of eyelids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Nursing interventions for myasthenia gravis

A

small, frequent, high calorie meals when meds are at peak
lubricating eye drop in morning and ointment at night if unable to close eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Meds for myasthenia gravis

A

pyridostigmine and azathioprine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

pyridostigmine

A

increases muscle strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Nursing considerations for pyridostigmine

A

assess for hx of seizures
use in caution with hx of asthma and cardio disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Plasmapheresis

A

for Myasthenia Gravis
removes circulating antibodies from the plasma
done several times over a period of days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Edu for migraines

A

avoid foods high in tyramine: pickles, caffeine, beer, wine, aged cheese, artificial sweeteners

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Macular degeneration

A

central loss of vision
no cure
#1 cause of vision loss >60yrs old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Risk factors for macular degeneration

A

Smoker
HTN
female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

S/S of macular degeneration

A

blurred vision
lack of depth perception
loss of central vision and blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Risk factors for cataracts

A

DM
smoking
eye trauma
chronic corticosteroid use
advanced age

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

S/S of cataracts

A

decreased visual acuity
blurred vision
diplopia
glare and light sensitivity
halo around eyes
progressive and painless loss of vision
absent red reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Edu for cataracts

A

wear sunglasses
avoid activities that increase IOP (bending, sneezing, coughing, straining, restrictive clothing and sex)
report pain and N/V (increased IOP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Normal IOP

A

10-21

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

glaaucoma

A

disturbance of the functional or structural of the optic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Open angle glaucoma

A

most common
angle between iris and sclera
aqueous humor outflow is decreased due to blockage in eyes causing rise in IOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Closed angle glaucoma

A

less common
IOP rises suddenly
angle between sclera and iris closes suddenly which causes increased IOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

S/S of open angle glaucoma

A

HA
mild eye pain
loss of peripheral vision
decreased accommodation
elevated IOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

S/S of closed angle glaucoma

A

Rapid increase of IOP
decreased or blurry vision
halos around lights
pupils non reactive to light
severe pain and nausea
photophobia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

tonometry

A

measures IOP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

emergency tx for closed angle glaucoma

A

IV mannitol- decreases cerebral edema and pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Menieres disease

A

excessive fluid in ear (usually one sided)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

S/S of menieres disease

A

vertigo
tinnitus
HA
N/V
hearing loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Tx for menieres disease

A

Low Na diet and diuretics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Signs of left sided stroke

A

LEFT=LANGUAGE
aphagia
alexia (reading difficulty)
paralysis of right side of body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Signs of right sided stroke

A

RIGHT=RECKLESS
impaired visual and spacial awareness
altered perception of deficits (overestimation of abilities)
one sided neglect syndrome (cannot see, feel or move affected side so unaware of its existence)
poor impulse control and judgement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Nursing interventions for Stroke

A

Monitor for fever= increased ICP
Assess swallowing and gag reflex before feeding
homonomous hemianopsia (loss of same visual field in both eyes)- scan area before walking and eating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Tx of stroke

A

Anticoagulants are NOT RECOMMENDED
Antiplatelets- ASA
Thrombolytics given within 4.5 hrs of initial sx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Risk factors for spinal cord injury

A

males 16-30
high risk activities
alcohol or drug abuse
falls in older adults

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

S/S of Spinal cord injury

A

absent DTR
flaccidity of muscles
shallow resp
hypotension
dependent edema
loss of temp regulation
flaccid bladder, intermittent cathing (lower spinal injury)
spastic bladder and indwelling cath (upper spinal injury)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Meds for spinal cord injury

A

steroids- decrease spinal cord edema
vasopressors (norepinephrine and dopamine)- for hypotension
antimuscarinic (atropine)- bradycardia
plasma expanders (dextran)- hypotension
muscle relaxant (baclofen and dantrolene)
stool softeners
vasodilators (hydralazine and nitro)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

S/S neurogenic hock

A

bradycardia
hypotension
flaccid paralysis
paralytic ileus
loss of reflex below injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

autonomic dysreflexia from spinal cord injury

A

extreme HTN
HA
pallor below injury
blurred vision
sweaty
restless
N/V
piloerection (goose bumps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

PaCO2

A

35-45

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

HCO3

A

21-28

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Preop bronchoscopy

A

assess allergies and if theyre on any anticoagulants
remove dentures
NPO 8-12 hrs before

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Post op Bronchocopy

A

Assess LOC
cough/gag reflex needs to return before oral intake
normal findings- dry throat and SCANT bloody sputum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

positioning for thoracentesis

A

client sits upright

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

S/S of pneumothorax

A

deviated trachea
pain increases on exhalation
affected side doesnt rise and fall when breathing
increased HR
Raid shallow breaths
nagging cough
feeling of air hunger

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Chest tube disconnection

A

from patient- exhale and cough and occlusive dressing taped on 3 sides
from drainage system- place end of tube in sterile water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

tension pneumothorax caused by

A

prolonged clamping
kinks in tube
obstruction of tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

S/S of tension pneumothorax

A

tracheal deviation
absent breath sounds on one side
distended neck vein
resp distress
asymmetry of chest
cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Chest tube removal nursing interventions

A

pain med 30 min before
pt takes deep breath, exhale and bear down
petroleum gauze dressing
CXR as ordered

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Nasal cannula

A

24-44% o2
1-6 L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

simple face mask

A

40-60% o2
1-6L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

partial rebreather mask

A

60-75% o2
6-11 L
keep reservoir bag from deflating by adjusting o2 flow rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

nonrebreather

A

80-95% o2
10-15 L
highest o2
keep 2/3 of bag full

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Venturi mask

A

24-55%
2-10L
most precise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

S/S of oxygen toxicity

A

nonproductive cough
substernal pain
nasal stiffness
N/V
fatigue
HA
sore throat
hypoventilation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Low pressure alarm on vent

A

disconnected
cuff leak
tube displacement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

high pressure alarm on vent

A

excessive secretions
pt bitibg tube
kinks in tube
coughing
pulm edema
bronchospasm
pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

S/S of pneumonia

A

chest discomfort from coughing
confusion from hypoxia
fever
SOB
crackles and wheezes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

medications for asthma

A

Albuterol (rescue, watch for tremors and tachycardia)
ipratropium (anticholinergic)
Salmeterol (beta 2 agonist)- prevents asthma attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

S/S of COPD

A

Dyspnea upon exertion
crackles and wheezes
Rapid and shallow resp
using accessory muscles
barrel chest or increased chest diameter
hyperrosonance on percussion due to trapped air
clubbing of fingers
Resp acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Theophylline

A

methylxanthines
relaxes smooth muscle of bronchi
for COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

S/S of TB

A

night sweats and low grade fever
persistent cough >3 wks
purulent/bloody sputum
fatigue
wt loss
anorexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Isoniazid

A

For TB
take on empty stomach
liver and kidney toxic
Give Vit B6 to prevent neurotoxicity
dont drink alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

Rifampin

A

For TB
Liver toxic- report jaundice
urine and secretions are orange
interferes with contraceptives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Pyrazinamide

A

For TB
liver toxic- report jaundice
drink extra fluids
No alcohol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Ethambutol

A

For TB
Visual acuity tests
not for children <13
report changes in vision ASAP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Risk factors for Pulmonary embolism

A

long term immobility
oral contraceptive use
tobacco use
obesity
surgery
HF or chronic Afib
Long bone Fx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

S/S of pulmonary embolism

A

anxiety
pain on inspiration
dyspnea, air hunger
petechiae over chest and axillae
sweaty
tachypnea
tachycardia
hypotension
pleural friction rub

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

pneumothorax

A

air or gas in the pleural space that causes lung collapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Flail chest

A

paradoxal chest movement
from multiple rib Fx
one side of chest unable to expand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

CK-MB

A

0%
ELEVATED 4-6 Hrs for MI

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Troponin T

A

norm <0.2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

Troponin I

A

norm <0.03

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Myoglobin

A

norm <90

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

S/S of cardiac tamponade

A

hypotension
JVD
muffled heart sounds
paradoxical pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

implanted port

A

only accessed through huber (noncoring) needle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

phlebitis S/S

A

redness at site
pain/burning
vein indurated (hard) - red streak or cordlike

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Tx of phlebitis

A

dicontinue IV
Warm compress
restart with new tubing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Catheter thrombosis/emboli

A

Check if tip is intact, then D/C
if tip broken off, apply tourniquet high on extremity and prepare for surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

infiltration

A

fluid leak into surrounding SQ from improper IV insertion or tape too tight becoming a tourniquet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Tx of infiltration

A

remove using direct pressure with gauze sponge until bleeding stops
apply cool compresses
elevation is optional
avoid starting IV in same extremity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

Tx of Sinus bradycardia

A

only tx if symptomatic
atropine and isoproterenol
pacemaker

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

tx of Afib

A

amiodarone, adenosine, and verapamil
synchronized cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Vtach tx

A

has pulse: amiodarone, adenosine, verapamil and synchronized cardioversion
no pulse: amiodarone, lidocaine, epinephrine and defib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Vfib tx

A

Amiodarone, lidocaine, epinephrine and defib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

pre op cardioversion

A

with afib, if no known duration, must take anticoagulants 4-6 wks before cardioversion to prevent dislodgment of clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Post op pacemaker placement

A

minimize movement by applying sling
assess for hiccups- may indicate pacemaker pacing the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Pt edu for pacemaker

A

no contact sports or heavy lifting for 2 months
dont place magnetic fields directly over pacemaker: garage door openers, burgalar alarms, speakers, generators
inform dentist about pacemaker
avoid MRIs and imaging
inform airport about pacemaker- will set alarm off

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

post op peripheral bypass graft

A

bedrest for 18-24 hrs with leg kept straight
discourage sitting for long periods of time
apply antiemetic stockings to promote venous return

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

variant angina

A

occurs during periods of rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

alteplase

A

thrombolytic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

S/S of left sided HF

A

Dyspnea
orthopnea (SOB when lying down)
nocturnal dyspnea
fatigue
displaced apical pulse (hypertrophy)
gallop (s3)
pulmonary congestion
pink frothy sputum
AMS
oliguria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

S/S of Right sided HF

A

JVD
ascending dependent edema
abdominal distention
fatigue
weakness
nausea/anorexia
nocturnal polyuria
wt gain
liver enlargement

133
Q

S/S of pericarditis

A

chest pain
friction rub heard in the lungs
SOB and pain relieved when sitting or leaning forward

134
Q

S/S of myocarditis

A

tachycardia
murmur
friction rub heard in lungs
cardiomegaly
chest pain
dysrhythmias

135
Q

S/S of infective endocarditis

A

fever
flu like symptoms
murmur
petechiae
positive blood culture
splinter hemorrhages

136
Q

peripheral arterial disease (PAD)

A

atherosclerosis in lower extremities

137
Q

Risk factors of PAD

A

HTN
hyperlipidemia
dM
smoking
obesity

138
Q

S/S of PAD

A

Burning, cramping and pain in legs during exercise (intermittent claudication)
pain relieved by placing feet in dependent position
cap refill >3 sec in toes
decreased/non palpable distal pulses
loss of hair on lower calf
thick toenails
pallor when elevating extremity
dependent rubor
ulcers and gangrene of toes

139
Q

Pt teaching for PAD

A

dont cross legs
dont wear restrictive clothes
warm environment
insulated socks
avoid stress, caffeine and nicotine

140
Q

PVD

A

problem with blood flow returning to the heart

141
Q

varicose veins

A

enlarged veins in lower extremities- visible just below skin
pt reports muscle cramps after sitting and pruritis

142
Q

virchows triad

A

hypercoagulability
impaired blood flow and damage to blood vessels

143
Q

Risk factor for varicose veins

A

women >30 with occupation that has prolonged standing
pregnancy
obesity

144
Q

Venous thromboembolism (VTE)

A

calf or groin pain, tenderness and hardness over involved vessel
warmth and sudden edema

145
Q

venous insufficiency

A

brown discoloration along the ankle that extends up calf, edema and stasis ulcers

146
Q

Nursing interventions/teaching for DVT and VTE

A

Avoid using knee gatch or pillow under knees
intermittent/continuous warm moist compresses
DONT massage the affected extremity
thigh high compression or antiembolism stockings

147
Q

Nursing interventions/teaching for venous insufficiency

A

elevate legs several times a day for 15-30 min
avoid crossing legs and wearing tight clothing
apply compression stockings after legs have been elevated and when swelling is at a minimum

148
Q

Hypertensive crisis S/S

A

severe HA
Extremely high BP (>240/120)
Blurred vision
dizziness
disorientation

149
Q

RBC

A

4-6 mill

150
Q

plt

A

150-400

151
Q

Hgb

A

12-18

152
Q

Hct

A

37-52%

153
Q

PT

A

11-12.5

154
Q

aPTT

A

30-40 sec

155
Q

INR

A

2-3

156
Q

Blood transfusion administration nursing interventions

A

large bore IV 20 gauge
prime tubing with 0.9% NS
Y tubing

157
Q

Hemolytic reaction from blood transfusion

A

fever
lower back pain
tachycardia
flushing
hypotension
chest tightening
tachypnea
Nausea

158
Q

mild allergy to blood transfusion

A

itchy
urticaria
flushing
Give benadryl

159
Q

Risk factors for DIC

A

septicemia
cardiopulmonary arrest
hemorrhage

160
Q

S/S of DIC

A

unusual spontaneous bleeding from gums or nose
oozing, trickling blood from incision or any puncture
petechiae or ecchymosis
tachycardia, hypotension and sweaty

161
Q

Nursing interventions for DIC

A

avoid NSAIDS
give O2
avoid Valsalva maneuver
bleeding precautions (no needles)

162
Q

S/S of fluid deficits

A

tachycardia
thready pulse
hypotension
tachypneic
hypoxic
fatigue, confusion
thirst N/V
oliguria

163
Q

S/S of FVO

A

tachycardia
bounding pulses
HTN
tachypnea
weight gain, ascites
dyspena
crackles
edema, pale and cool
Distended neck vein

164
Q

S/S of hyponatremia

A

Hypothermia
tachycardia
rapid thready pulse
hypotension
HA, fatigue
abd cramping and hyperactive bowel sounds

165
Q

S/S of hypernatremia

A

hyperthermia
tachycardia
hypotension
muscle twitching
increased motility, abd cramping

166
Q

S/S of hypokalemia

A

weak, irregular pulse, tachycardia
hypotension
respiratory depression
inverted T wave, ST depression
ileus
polyuria (diluted)

167
Q

Foods high in potassium

A

avocados
broccoli
dairy
dried fruit
cantaloupe
bananas
potato’s

168
Q

S/S of hyperkalemia

A

flaccid paralysis
restlessness, weakness
irritability
peak T waves, widened QRS
diarrhea

169
Q

Tx for hyperkalemia

A

calcium gluconate
give insulin with dextrose

170
Q

S/S of hypocalcemia

A

paresthesia of fingers and lips (early)
muscle twitches
hyperactive DTR
Positive Chvosteks and Trousseaus
decreased HR and BP
hyperactive bowel sounds

171
Q

S/S of hypomagnesemia

A

muscle tetany (contraction)
hyperactive DTR
paresthesia
hypoactive bowel sounds

172
Q

ABG BABY

A

ACID====BASE
Ph: 7.35-7.45
PCO2: 45-35
HCO3: 22-26

173
Q

What can cause respiratory acidosis

A

respiratory depression
airway obstruction
inadequate chest expansion
PE
inadequate ventilation

174
Q

S/S of respiratory acidosis

A

tachycardia
tachypnea
dysrhythmias
anxiety
irritable
shallow and rapid respirations
pale/cyanotic

175
Q

What can cause respiratory alkalosis

A

hyperventilation
salicylate toxicity
hypoxemia from asphyxiation

176
Q

S/S of respiratory alkalosis

A

tachypnea
tingling
numbness
palpitations
dysrhythmias
rapid deep respirations

177
Q

What can cause metabolic acidosis

A

DKA
Lactic acidosis
kidney failure
diarrhea

178
Q

S/S of metabolic acidosis

A

bradycardia
weak peripheral pulses
hypotension
tachypnea
dysrhythmias
kussmaul respirations
flushed, warm and dry

179
Q

What can cause metabolic alkalosis

A

oral ingestion of antacids
loss of gastric secretions
N/V

180
Q

S/S of metabolic alkalosis

A

tachycardia
hypotension
dysrhythmias
numbness, tingling
tetany
muscle weakness

181
Q

AST

A

5-40
Elevation with hepatitis or cirrhosis

182
Q

ALT

A

8-20
elevated with hepatitis or cirrhosis

183
Q

amylase

A

56-90
elevated with pancreatitis

184
Q

lipase

A

0-110
elevated with pancreatitis

185
Q

bilirubin

A

0.1-1

186
Q

albumin

A

3.5-5

187
Q

Ammonia

A

15-45

188
Q

preop barium swallow GI series

A

clear liquid diet
no smoking or chewqing gum (increases peristalsis)
NPO after midnight

189
Q

post op barium swallow GI series

A

stools may be white for 24-72 hrs
report abd fullness, pain or delay in return to brown stool

190
Q

TPN nursing interventions

A

Change tubing and solution bag q24hrs even if not empty
filter added to tubing
use mask when changing central line
check BS q4-6 hrs
10% dextrose if TPN empty and no replacement bag yet

191
Q

paracentesis pre op

A

void before procedure
review vitals, wt and abd girth

192
Q

post op paracentesis

A

record wt, vitals and abd girth to compare with preprocedure results

193
Q

S/S of dumping syndrome

A

cramps
diarrhea
tachycardia
dizziness, fatigue

194
Q

Pt teaching for dumping syndrome

A

restrict fluids with meals

195
Q

NG tube decompression post op

A

for obstruction
xray to verify placement
assess bowel sounds and girth
encourage ambulation

196
Q

Ileostomy

A

watery stools

197
Q

Stoma care

A

cut wafer 1/8 bigger than stoma
avoid foods that cause odors: fish, eggs, asparagus, garlic, beans and dark green veggies
avoid foods that cause gas: dark green veggies, beer and dairy products, soda, corn

198
Q

Nursing interventions for GERD

A

avoid large meals, eating before bedtime
remain upright after eating
avoid tight fitting clothing
lose weight
sleep on right side

199
Q

S/S of PUD

A

ingestion: heartburn, bloating, N/V
pain

200
Q

gastric ulcer

A

pain 30-60 min after meals
rarely occurs at night
pain worse when eating

201
Q

duodenal ulcer

A

pain 1.5-3 hrs after eating
often occurs at night
may be relieved by eating or antacids

202
Q

Bowel perforation

A

rigid abd
hyperactive-diminished bowel sounds
rebound tenderness

203
Q

Med for IBS-C

A

Lubiprostone

204
Q

Med for IBS-D

A

alosetron

205
Q

Obstipation

A

inability to pass stool or gas for >8hrs
abd distention
high pitched bowel sounds at site of obstruction and hypobowel sounds below obstruction

206
Q

large intestinal obstruction S/S

A

ribbon like stools
intermittent abd cramping
abd distention
metabolic acidosis

207
Q

ulcerative colitis

A

inflammation of rectum and sigmoid colon
abd cramping
LLQ pain
anorexia
fever
abd distention
diarrhea 15-20 times a day with blood, mucous or pus

208
Q

Crohns disease

A

inflammation of GI tract at distal ileum
fistulas common
RLQ pain
fever
abd distention
high pitched bowel sounds
steatorrhea
about 5 loose stools a day

209
Q

diverticulitis S/S

A

LLQ pain
N/V
fever, chills
tachycardia

210
Q

Pt teaching for Ulcerative colitis and crohns disease

A

eat diet high in protein and calories and low in fiber
take multivitamin that contains iron
small frequent meals

211
Q

Pt teaching for diverticulitis

A

clear liquid diet until sx subside
low fiber diet
avoid seed, nuts and popcorn
limit fat intake to 30%

212
Q

S/S of peritonitis

A

Rigid abd
N/V
Rebound tenderness
fever
tachycardia

213
Q

Cholecystitis

A

inflammation of gallbladder mostly caused by gallstones

214
Q

S/S of cholecystitis

A

sharp RUQ pain that radiates to right shoulder
N/V after eating high fat foods
dyspepsia (ingestion), eructation (belching), and flatulence
jaundice
clay colored stools
fatty stools
dark urine and pruritis

215
Q

extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy

A

breaks up stones with shock wave
moderate sedation and ECG monitoring
bruising at site is normal
hematuria post procedure normal

216
Q

post op cholecystectomy

A

shoulder pain is normal

217
Q

T-tube

A

placed in common bile duct after cholecystitis
record drainage: initially bloody and then green-brown bile colored
more than 400ml drainage in 1st 24 hrs normal
report drainage >1000 ml
clamp tube 1-2hrs before and after meals
usually in for 1-2 weeks

218
Q

S/S of pancreatitis

A

epigastric pain radiating to back, left flank or left shoulder
N/V
turner sign (ecchymosis on the flanks)
cullens sign (bluish gray periumbilical discoloration)
generalized jaundice
ascites
tetany

219
Q

Nursing interventions for pancreatitis

A

NPO, TPN or jejunum feedings
give antiemetics
insert NG tube for decompression
no alcohol
give pancreatic enzymes

220
Q

Pt teaching about pancreatic enzymes

A

sprinkle on non-protein foods
drink full glass of water after pancrelipase
wipe lips and rinse mouth after taking

221
Q

Hep A

A

fecal-oral route

222
Q

Hep B

A

from blood, unprotected sex, infant born to infected mother, injection drug user

223
Q

Hep C

A

From drug abuse, sexual contact

224
Q

S/S of hepatitis

A

flu like sx
fever, clay colored stools
jaundice

225
Q

Med for Hep C

A

peginterferon and ribavirin

226
Q

post necrotic cirrhosis

A

caused by viral hepatitis or meds or toxins

227
Q

laennecs cirrhosis

A

from chronic alcoholism

228
Q

Biliary cirrhosis

A

from chronic biliary obstruction or autoimmune disease

229
Q

S/S of Cirrhosis

A

pruritis
confusion or difficulty thinking
GI bleeding
ascites
jaundice
petechiae
palmar erythema
spider angiomas on nose, cheek, upper thorax and shoulders
dependent edema of extremities and sacrum
fector hepaticus (fruity breath)

230
Q

Crt

A

0.6-1.2

231
Q

BUN

A

10-20

232
Q

Cystography

A

discovers abnormalities of bladder wall
NPO after midnight

233
Q

post op cystography

A

monitor urine color-pink tinged okay
irrigate cath with NS if blood clots or if UO is decreased/absent
burning sensation normal- drink more fluids

234
Q

disequilibrium syndrome

A

caused by rapid decrease of BUN and circulating volume
can cause cerebral edema and increased ICP

235
Q

S/S of disequilibrium syndrome

A

N/V
change in LOC
seizure
agitation

236
Q

Peritoneal dialysis

A

report signs of infection/peritonitis- fever, bloody, cloudy or frothy dialysate return
keep outflow bag lower than pts abdomen
give enema before to clear bowel
warm solution before to prevent cramping

237
Q

Early signs of organ transplant rejection

A

fever
hypertension
pain at transplant site

238
Q

hyperacute organ rejection

A

within 48 hrs after surgery
fever, HTN, pain at transplant site
surgeon will remove the donor kidney

239
Q

acute organ rejection

A

within 1 wk-2 yrs
oliguria, anuria, low grade fever, HTN, tenderness over sight, fluid retention
increase doses of immunosuppressive medications

240
Q

chronic organ rejection

A

gradually over months or years
azotemia, fluid retention, electrolyte imbalance and fatigue
dialysis may be required

241
Q

glomerulonephritis

A

inflammation of glomeruli caused be streptococcal infection
immune disease

242
Q

S/S of glomerulonephritis

A

decreased UO
smoky/coffee colored urine
wt gain
SOB
orthopnea
mild to severe HTN

243
Q

Urinalysis for glomerulonephritis

A

proteinuria
hematuria
cell debris
increased urine specific gravity

244
Q

Prerenal AKI

A

volume depletion
occurs before damage to kidney

245
Q

Intrarenal AKI

A

direct damage to kidneys from lack of oxygen
NSAIDS, antibiotics and contrast dye

246
Q

Postrenal AKI

A

obstruction of structures leaving the kidney
stone, tumor, bladder atony or BPH

247
Q

Risk factors for chronic kidney disease

A

DM
chronic glomerulonephritis
nephrotic meds or chemicals
HTN- african americans
autoimmune disorders (lupus)

248
Q

S/S of chronic kidney disease

A

lethargy
FVO
HTN
dysrhythmias
HF
orthostatic hypotension
crackles
tachypnea
pruritis
uremic frost

249
Q

Nursing interventions for chronic kidney disease

A

limit protein intake
restrict Na, K, Ph and Mg
diet high in carbohydrates and moderate fats

250
Q

Pyelonephritis

A

upper UTI usually caused by e coli

251
Q

S/S of pyelonephritis

A

chills, fever
N/V
costovertebral tenderness (most common)
tachycardia
tachypnea
HTN
flank and back pain

252
Q

S/S of renal calculi

A

flank pain that radiates to abdomen, sacrum, testes or vulva
urinary frequency or dysuria
fever
sweaty, pallor
N/V
tachycardia
tachypnea
oliguria/anuria
hematuria

253
Q

nursing intervention for renal calculi

A

strain urine to check for stones and save for lab analysis
encourage ambulation to promote passage

254
Q

purine containing foods

A

increase uric acid production
organ meats
poultry
fish
gravies
red wine
sardines

255
Q

Screening guidelines for HPV

A

starts at 21
21-29: PAP q3yrs, HPV if abnormal PAP
30-65: PAP AND HPV q5yrs
>65: D/C if normal screen every time

256
Q

mammogram teaching

A

avoid using deodorant, lotion or powder in armpits or on breast

257
Q

menorrhagia

A

excessive bleeding during period, possibly with clots for 7 days

258
Q

common causes of amenorrhea

A

low % of body fat in women who work out
women who over exercise
anorexia nervosa

259
Q

S/S of PMS

A

irritability
impaired memory
depression
poor concentration
mood swings
binge eating
breast tenderness
bloating
wt gain
HA
back pain

260
Q

endometriosis

A

overgrowth of endometrial tissue that expans outside uterus
common cause of infertility

261
Q

menopause

A

complete when no period for 12 months

262
Q

S/S of menopause

A

hot flashes and irregular menses
vaginal dryness
mood swings
decreased bone density

263
Q

Pt teaching for menopause

A

quit smoking
avoid knee high stockings and clothing/socks that are tight
report unilateral leg pain, edem, warmth and redness
avoid sitting for long periods of time
take short walks throughout the day

264
Q

Cystocele

A

protrusion of posterior bladder through anterior vaginal wall

265
Q

rectocele

A

protrusion of anterior rectal wall through the posterior vaginal wall

266
Q

risk factors for cystocele

A

obesity
adv age
chronic constipation
fam hx
vaginal childbirth

267
Q

risk factors for rectocele

A

obesity
aging
family hx difficult
vaginal childbirth
forceps deliver

268
Q

fibrocystic breast condition

A

non-cancerous
fibrosis (connective tissue) and cysts develop

269
Q

S/S of fibrocystic breast condition

A

breast pain
tender lumps in upper outer quadrant

270
Q

Dx and Tx of fibrocystic breast condition

A

U/S of breast
needle aspiration to alleviate pain due to fluid buildup

271
Q

PSA

A

Elevation means possible prostate enlargment/BPH- digital rectal exam necessary
increases with age
normal: 2.5-4

272
Q

digital rectal exam

A

reveals an abnormality, and location of potential cancerous prostate lesions - confirmed by biopsy

273
Q

Routine digital rectal exams

A

yearly for men >50
before 50: african american men and men with hx of prostate cancer

274
Q

BPH S/S

A

urinary frequency and urgency
incomplete emptying bladder
urinary hesitance
dribbling post-void
nocturia
diminished force of stream
straining with urination
painless hematuria

275
Q

meds for BPH

A

tamsulosin and finasteride

276
Q

TURP

A

procedure for BPH

277
Q

post op BPH

A

indwelling 3-way catheter
Continuous bladder irrigation
pink or lighter colored urine is normal - wine colored is NOT
if clots appear, increase CBI rate
if cath is obstructed- turn off CBI and irrigate with 50ml in large piston syringe -notify surgeon if unable to dislodge

278
Q

pt teaching for TURP

A

Drink 12 or more 8 oz of water daily
avoid stimulants- caffeine and alcohol
normal to feel the urge to urinate often

279
Q

arthroscopy

A

visualization of internal structures of joint- most common in knee or shoulder joints
not for pts with infection in joint or unable to bend joint at at least 40 degrees

280
Q

nuclear scans

A

bone scan to visualize entire skeletalsystem
radioactive material injected 2-3hrs before scanning
can detect tumors, fx and diseases of the bone

281
Q

dual x-ray absorptiometry

A

estimates density of pts bone mass
hip or spine
determines presence of osteoporosis

282
Q

electromyography

A

determines presence and cause of muscle weakness
thin needles placed in muscle and attached to electrode- electrical activity recorded during muscle contraction

283
Q

arthroplasty

A

surgical procedure to repair damaged joints of hip and knees

284
Q

pt presentation who need arthroplasty

A

pain when bearing wt on joint
joint crepitus amd stiffness
joint swelling

285
Q

pre op arthroplasty

A

give epoetin alfa to increase hgb

286
Q

Contraindications of arthroplasty

A

UTI because may cause prosthesis to fail
arterial impairment to affected extremity
comorbid condition: Uncontrolled DM, HTN and osteoporosis

287
Q

pt teaching before arthroplasty

A

donate blood before (autologous donation) for postprocedural
scrubbing surgical site with prescribed antiseptic soap night before and morning of

288
Q

Post op knee arthroplasty

A

continuous passive motion (immediately after surgery, provide motion in knee to prevent scar tissue forming)
flexion of knee limited due to flexion contraction- avoid knee and pillows behind knee
cold packs to reduce inflammation

289
Q

S/S of PE

A

dyspnea
tachycardia
pleuritic chest pain

290
Q

Pt teaching post op hip arthroplasty

A

prevent DVT- PE possible
encourage plantar flexion, dorsiflexion and circumduction exercises
early ambulation
Supine HOB elevated, affected leg in neutral position
place pillow or abduction device between legs
dont turn pt to affected side
no crossing legs
report acute onset of pain, reports of hearing a pop, internal rotation of affected extremity or shortened extremity
externally rotate toes
elevated seating/raise toilet

291
Q

nursing interventions for traumatic amputation (ex. car accident)

A

elevate above heart
wrap severed extremity in dry sterile gauze and place in sealed plastic bag
submerge bag in ice water and send with pt

292
Q

tx for phantom limb pain

A

gabapentin
betablockers
massage, heat
push limb down toward bed

293
Q

osteoporosis

A

low bone density

294
Q

risk factors for osteoporosis

A

female
lean body figure
hx of smoking and high alcohol intake
excessive caffeine consumption
lack of physical activity

295
Q

S/S of osteoporosis

A

reduced ht
acute back pain after lifting or bending
hx of fractures

296
Q

Nursing interventions for osteoporosis

A

Calcium and Vit D supplements(take with food)
encourage wt bearing exercises to improve strength
prevent falls

297
Q

meds for osteoporosis

A

calcitonin- decreases bone reabsorption
estrogen
raloxifene- decreases osteoclast activity
alendronate- decreases # of osteoclast

298
Q

closed/simple fx

A

dont break through skin

299
Q

open/compound fx

A

break through skin

300
Q

comminuted fx

A

multiple fx lines, splitting the bone in several pieces

301
Q

compression fx

A

usually in spine- common in osteoporosis

302
Q

oblique fx

A

across the bone

303
Q

spiral fx

A

twisting motion
common with physical abuse

304
Q

Cast care

A

apply ice for 24-48 hrs
plaster cast- use palms, not fingers until dry
elevate cast above heart first 24-48 hrs to prevent edema
no objects under cast
COOL air from hair dryer is okay

305
Q

skin traction

A

decreases muscle spasms and immobilize extremity before surgery
bryants traction and bucks traction

306
Q

bryants traction

A

used for congenital hip dislocation in children

307
Q

bucks traction

A

used post op for hip fx for immobilization of adult clients

308
Q

skeletal traction

A

pulling force applied directly to bone by weights attached to rope
skeletal tongs (garden-wells)
femoral or tibial pins (steinmann pins)
15-30 lb of weight
monitor for loosening of pins and tenting of skin at pin site (skin rising up pin)
chlorhexidine used to clean pins
one cotton tip swab for each pin to prevent cross contamination

309
Q

halo traction

A

ensure wrench to release the rods is attached to vest when using halo traction in event CPR is needed

310
Q

compartment syndrome

A

Pain, pallor, pulselessness
intense pain when passively moved

311
Q

fat embolism

A

most common in hip and pelvis
occurs within 48 hrs following long bone fx or with total joint arthroplasty

312
Q

S/S of fat embolism

A

dyspnea
chest pain
decreased o2
decreased mental acuity (early)
resp distress
tachycardia
tachypnea
fever and cutaneous petechiae (late)

313
Q

S/S of osteomyelitis

A

bone pain that is constant
erythema and edema at site
fever (may not see in older adults)
leukocytosis and possible elevated sedimentation rate

314
Q

Tx of osteomyelitis

A

3 months IV abt
surgical debridement possible
hyperbaric oxygen therapy
unsuccessful tx= amputation

315
Q

osteoarthritis

A

progressive deterioration of articular cartilage

316
Q

S/S of osteoarthritis

A

joint pain and stiffness
crepitus in one or more of affected joints
enlarged joint r/t bone hypertrophy
heberdens nodes (enlarged at distal interphalangeal joints)
bouchards nodes (located at proximal interphalangeal joints)
usually overweight

317
Q

Nursing interventions forosteoarthritis

A

heat to alleviate pain and ice to reduce inflammation
splint for joint protection and use of larger joints
elevated toilet, shower bench, long handled reacher and shoehorn
pain with activity- relief at rest

318
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis S/S

A

swelling
redness, warmth
pain at rest or after immobility
affects all joints
usually underweight
swan neck a boutonniere deformities on hand

319
Q

Acute chest syndrome

A

Caused by respiratory infections and debris from sickled cells

320
Q

Pt teaching after modified radical mastectomy

A

Drain will remain in place for 1-3 weeks
Will be removed when there is 25ml output or less in 24hrs

321
Q

4 point gait

A

Bear weight on both legs
Alternate leg with opposite crutch so 3 points are always on floor

322
Q

3 point gait

A

Bear all weight in one foot while using both crutches
Affected leg never touches ground

323
Q

2 point gait

A

Partial weight bearing on both feet
Crutch moves with opposite leg

324
Q

Walker instructions

A

Walker height should be at clients wrist while standing straight

325
Q

Cane instructions

A

Cane is on strong side
Move cane first, then affected leg, then strong leg past the cane

326
Q

Wound irrigation

A

Use piston syringe or sterile straight cath for deep wounds with small openings
5-8 psi of pressure
30-60ml syringe with 19 gauge needle is 8 psi

327
Q

Hemolytic reaction S/S

A

Chills
Fever
Low back pain
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Chest pain
Tachypnea
Nausea
Anxiety
Impending sense of doom

328
Q

Erythropoietin

A

Increases RBC production
Monitor for hypertension
Monitor Hgb and Hct twice a week

329
Q

TPN teaching/nursing considerations

A

Tubing has filter to collect particles
Change bag q24hrs even if not empty
No adding anything to the bag
Sterile technique- mask
Check glucose q4-6hrs for first 24 hrs
If oily appearance or layer of fat on top (cracked solution) DONT USE
Room temp

ATI Review (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions