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Review Flashcards

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1
Q

What might cause a dead feedlot steer that was found dead the day after processing for deworming that fell during processing. Severe hemorrhage, gas formation and necrosis of large muscles of hindlegs. Necrosis of heart

A

Clostridium chauvoei

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2
Q

How is actinomyces bovis spread

A

through local extension

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3
Q

What might cause a lab to have long legs with abnormal anatomy.
Abnormal physis with multiple areas of ossification

A

Spider lamb, chondrodysplasia

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4
Q

you notice a poodle with right limb lameness. radiographs show flattening of right femoral head and bony lysis. on necropsy you see subchondral bone with no evidence of neoplasia. What caused this

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

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5
Q

What might cause a cald to have lameness, increased recumbency, White streaking of diaphgram, pharyngeal muscles, tongues and heart with polyphasic myonecrosis

A

Nutritional myopathy

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6
Q

What is the prognosis for panosteitis

A

good - pathcy medullary opacity with no evidence of bony lysis, cortical or joint involvement

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7
Q

What plays an important role in hip dysplasia

A

heritable hip joint laxity with subluxation leading to DJD

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8
Q

What neoplasia might elicit myasthenia gravis

A

Thymoma

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9
Q

Why cannot guinea pigs synthesize vitamin C

A

because they do not have L-gulonolactone oxidase

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10
Q

Why does cartilage repair poorly

A

because it is avascular

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11
Q

How is Hepatozoon Americanum spread

A

ticks- causes diffuse periosteal reaction along the limbs
and pyogranulomatous myositis

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12
Q

Which parasite causes pyogranulomatous myositis and periosteal reaction

A

Hepatozoon Americanum

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13
Q

What are West Highland White Terriers predisposed to

A

Craniomandibular Osteopathy- proliferative disorder, which is usually confined to the skull
“Loin jaw”

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14
Q

What lesions might you notice in a dog with degenerative joint disease

A

Cartilage erosion/ ulceration
joint capsule and synovial hyperplasia
flattening of femoral head and acetabulum
capital ligament tears
subchondral bone sclerosis
osteophytes

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15
Q

where does a fibrosarcoma carry a worse prognosis

A

Maxillary bone

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16
Q

What breeds is metaphyseal osteopathy common in

A

Metaphyseal Osteopathy is common in Weimaraners and Danes

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17
Q

What might a kittne that has thickened and hypertrophic musculature with protuding tongue have

A

Muscular dystrophy

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18
Q

What are the effects of gossypol toxicity

A

myopathy
monophasic necrosis, mineralization and fibrosis
central lobular hepatic nercrosis and pulmonary congestion

Clinical signs: muscle pain, recumbency dyspnea, heart failure- tri cavitary fluid accumulation

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19
Q

What is a cause of non-neoplastic lymphocytosis in a cat

A

Antigenic stimulation

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20
Q

What is a prognostic factor in B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

the magnitude of lymphocytosis

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21
Q

What is the most common phenotype of chronic leukemia in cats

A

CD4 (T cell) lymphocytosis

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22
Q

What are the clinical signs of Anthrax

A

Blood oozing from the nose and rectum
Dark red to black, enlarged spleen, containing abundant inclotted blood

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23
Q

What necropsy finding supports diagnosis of starvation

A

Gelatinous replacement (serous atrophy) of the bone marrow

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24
Q

What breed is predisposed to get both hemangiosarcoma and histiocytic sarcoma

A

Golden retriever

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25
What causes postweaning multisystemic wasting syndrome
Porcine circovirus-2
26
What is seen in postweaning multisystemic wasting syndrome
-Enlarged lymphnodes -Interstitial pneumonia -poor body condition -thymus (atrophy) to granulomatous inflammation with multinucleated cells with cytoplasmic viral inclusions *Lymphoid depletion of follicles and paracortex > replacement by granulomatous inflammation
27
What are common sites of bovine leukemia
H- eart U - Uterus L - lymph nodes A- abomasum S- spinal cord
28
On flow cytometry you identify a homogenous expansion of cells that express CD34. What is the most likely interpretation
Acute leukemia
29
What tests will reliably provide both prognostic and diagnostic information for lymphoma
Flow cytometry of a lymph node aspirate or peripheral blood
30
What might cause several solid nodules in the splenic parenchyma
lymphoid hyperplasia
31
rough, brown to yellow plaques along the serosal surface of the spleen incidental finding
Siderotic plaques
32
Cytology of mass identifies epithelial population with intermixed small mature lymphocytes. Flow cytometry of peripheral blood and the thymic mass are sent out. Flow of peripheral blood identifies an expansion of heterogenous T cells. What do you expect for flow cytometry results of mediastinal mass
An expansion of T lymphocytes that co-express CD4 and CD8
33
How is Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis spread
through horizontal transmission via wound contamination
34
What is one benefit of PARR assay
it can be used in old or non-viable flow samples cytology slides, histology sample Helps differentiate between neoplasia and hyperplasia/ reactice processes *No prognostic information
35
What test is helpful for distinguishing between neoplasia/reactive progesses but gives no prognostric information
PARR
36
T/F: in multicentric disease of sporadic lymphoma in cattle, there is bone marrow involvement
True
37
T/F: the syndromes of sporadic lymphoma in cattle include thymic, multicentric, and cutaneous disease
True
38
T/F: persistent lymphcytosis is a feature of sporadic lymphoma in cattle
false
39
What might be the cause of a dog with hypoproteinemia, hypoglobulinemia, and hypocholesterolemia. You note mild ascites and irregular mucosa with macroscopically pale villi. What are you concerned about?
Intestinal lymphangiectasia
40
What do you want to rule out in a cat with enlarged lymph nodes and negative FeLV/ FIV
Plague
41
A pituitary adenoma is likely to cause (hyperfunction- too much hormone) or (hypofunction-too little hormone)
Hyperfunction of an endocrine gland
42
Why do dogs with hyperadrenocorticism have a pot-bellied appearance and dermal mineralization
the increased levels of glucocorticoids drive catabolic processes which cause breakdown of both muscle tissue and dermal collagen
43
What might cause a ferret to have dysuria, alopecia and anemia
hyperplastic or neoplastic adrenal gland cortex produces androgen compounds that stimulate these hormonally sensitive tissues
44
What is the development of feline diabetes
Endocrine disease secondary to failure of a target cell or organ to respond to a hormone
45
What causes PU/PD through failure of water reabsorption in the distal renal tubules
Central diabetes inspididus
46
What causes PU/PD through hyperglycemic diuresis and proliferative glomerulonephropathy in kidney
Acromegaly
47
What causes PU/PD through inhibition of antidiuretic hormone and increase GFR
Hyperadrenocorticism
48
What causes PU/PD through defective sodium reabsorption and associated diuresis
Hypoadrenocorticism
49
Why do you see hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, and hypochloridemia in hypoadenocorticism
Lack of aldosterone production leads to hyperkalemia from potassium retention and hyponatremia from loss of sodium in urine
50
In dogs with pheochromocytomas, cardiomyopathy is due to
Hypertension due to pulsatile and persistent secretion of catecholamines
51
T/F: Equine Cushings is more likely to be adrenal dependent rather than pituitary dependent
False
52
Why do horses with PPID get increased ACTH
due to abnormal processing of the precursor molecule, pro-opiomelanocortin
53
T/F: Horses with PPID develop mild increases in ACTH and serum cortisol
True
54
Why might a dog with uncontrolled hypoadrenocortism have a discrete nodular mass in the anterior pituitary that is histologically diagnosed as nodular basophil hyperplasia on the anterior pituitary
Loss of cortisol production leads to uninhibited production of coritcotropin releasing hormone and persistent stimulation of the anterior pituitary leading to hyperplasia
55
12yo DSH cat with weight loss, polyphagia, polydipsia, polyuria and unkempt haircoat. The cat is thin and has tachycardia. What is most common endocrine lesion and what should you do confirm diagnosis
Nodular thyroid hyperplasia Serum T4
56
T/F: C-peptide production also increase glucose uptake by target cells
False
57
Why are measuring insulin levels unreliable
they udnergo first pass removal by the liver
58
T/F: C-peptide maintains greater half life in circulation, compared to insulin
True
59
C-peptide is cleaved from
pro-insulin molecule and secreted equimolar ratio
60
What is expected to result in the most hypercalcemia primary tumor of parathyroid calcitonin secreting c cell tumor Hyperparathyroidism secondary to renal disease Hyperparathyroidism seocndary to nutritional def
primary tumor of parathyroid
61
Why do dogs with hypothyroidism commonly have alopecia
secondary to failure of hair follcilces to cycle out of telogen (resting state)
62
What endocrine related lesions might you find ina cat with unkempt hair coat and is acutely down in hind legs and painful
bilateral nodular hyperplasia of thyroids cardiac hypertrophy
63
What should you do for a ferret with seizures, weakness, and ataxia. Blood work shows hypoglycemia
Abdominal ultrasound and serum insulin/C-peptide concentration
64
What would you see in a dog with functional adrenal tumor and adrenal dependent hyperadrenocortism
Contralateral adrenocortical atophy decreased ACTH secretion
65
What is the primary pathogenesis of hypothyroidism in dogs
autoimmune destruction of the thyroid tissue thereby decreasing the critical number of functional thyroid follicles
66
What is the risk factor of the development of thrombosis in feline hyperthyroidism
turbulent/ altered bloodflow and endothelial damage
67
How might a foal be born with curled ears, domed forehead, carpal bone dymaturity, and flexural abnormalitires with enlarged thyroid lobes and pituitary gland
-Hyperplasia of the anterior pituitary is due to failed T3 and T4 feedback inhibition with persistent secretion of TRH, leading to proliferation of TSH secreting cells -Consumption of goitrogenic compounds sucj as high nitrate, by the dam during gestion lead to less iodine, hyperplastic follicular goiter of thryroid and developmental anomalies
68
What is a key histologic feature of hepatic encephalopathy
Alzheimers type II astrocytes
69
How might seizures cause neuronal necrosis of cerebral cortex and hippocampus
excitatory toxicity
70
Hansen type I IVD extrusion causes myelin degeneration and is considered a *
Secondary demyelination cause
71
What cell type plays a major role in healing/repair of CNS after small ischemic infarct
Astrocyte
72
What is most common site of narrowing/stenosis seen in congenital hydrocephalus
Mesencephalic aqueduct
73
What is the only storage disease that can be diagnosed grossly- atrophy and brown discolaration of brain parenchyma
Ceroid- lipfuscinosis
74
What viruses should you vaccinate against to prevent against cerebellar hypoplasia
pestiviruses and parvoviruses
75
What is a term for dilation of lateral ventricles secondary to parenchymal loss associated with an encephaloclastic defect such as hydranencephaly
Hydrocephalus ex vacuo
76
What type of cerebral edema predominates following traumatic brain injury
Vasogenic edema
77
Coup occurs at the ______ while countrecoup occurs _______
at site of impact while contrecoup contusion occurs on opposite side of impact and can have more prominent hemorrhage due to tearing of vessels
78
What is a primary sequelae that is seen with intraventricular neoplasms, such as choroid plexus tumors
Hydrocephalus
79
What is the most likely diagnosis for a large extra-axial mass in a cat
Meningioma
80
What virus causes primary demyelination
Canine distemper virus
81
What is the distribution of mant toxic and metabolic lesions of the CNS
bilateral and symmetjrical
82
in Equids, neurotoxicity secondary to ingestion of yellow star thistle or russian knapweed results in
bilateral, symmetrical malacia of the substantia nigra and globus pallidus
83
What deficiency is linked to Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopahty
Vitamin E

BOD 3 (5 decks)

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