Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BOD 3 > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

What might cause a dead feedlot steer that was found dead the day after processing for deworming that fell during processing. Severe hemorrhage, gas formation and necrosis of large muscles of hindlegs. Necrosis of heart

A

Clostridium chauvoei

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

How is actinomyces bovis spread

A

through local extension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What might cause a lab to have long legs with abnormal anatomy.
Abnormal physis with multiple areas of ossification

A

Spider lamb, chondrodysplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

you notice a poodle with right limb lameness. radiographs show flattening of right femoral head and bony lysis. on necropsy you see subchondral bone with no evidence of neoplasia. What caused this

A

Legg-Calve-Perthes disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What might cause a cald to have lameness, increased recumbency, White streaking of diaphgram, pharyngeal muscles, tongues and heart with polyphasic myonecrosis

A

Nutritional myopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the prognosis for panosteitis

A

good - pathcy medullary opacity with no evidence of bony lysis, cortical or joint involvement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What plays an important role in hip dysplasia

A

heritable hip joint laxity with subluxation leading to DJD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What neoplasia might elicit myasthenia gravis

A

Thymoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Why cannot guinea pigs synthesize vitamin C

A

because they do not have L-gulonolactone oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why does cartilage repair poorly

A

because it is avascular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

How is Hepatozoon Americanum spread

A

ticks- causes diffuse periosteal reaction along the limbs
and pyogranulomatous myositis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which parasite causes pyogranulomatous myositis and periosteal reaction

A

Hepatozoon Americanum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are West Highland White Terriers predisposed to

A

Craniomandibular Osteopathy- proliferative disorder, which is usually confined to the skull
“Loin jaw”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What lesions might you notice in a dog with degenerative joint disease

A

Cartilage erosion/ ulceration
joint capsule and synovial hyperplasia
flattening of femoral head and acetabulum
capital ligament tears
subchondral bone sclerosis
osteophytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

where does a fibrosarcoma carry a worse prognosis

A

Maxillary bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What breeds is metaphyseal osteopathy common in

A

Metaphyseal Osteopathy is common in Weimaraners and Danes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What might a kittne that has thickened and hypertrophic musculature with protuding tongue have

A

Muscular dystrophy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the effects of gossypol toxicity

A

myopathy
monophasic necrosis, mineralization and fibrosis
central lobular hepatic nercrosis and pulmonary congestion

Clinical signs: muscle pain, recumbency dyspnea, heart failure- tri cavitary fluid accumulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is a cause of non-neoplastic lymphocytosis in a cat

A

Antigenic stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is a prognostic factor in B cell chronic lymphocytic leukemia

A

the magnitude of lymphocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the most common phenotype of chronic leukemia in cats

A

CD4 (T cell) lymphocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the clinical signs of Anthrax

A

Blood oozing from the nose and rectum
Dark red to black, enlarged spleen, containing abundant inclotted blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What necropsy finding supports diagnosis of starvation

A

Gelatinous replacement (serous atrophy) of the bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What breed is predisposed to get both hemangiosarcoma and histiocytic sarcoma

A

Golden retriever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What causes postweaning multisystemic wasting syndrome

A

Porcine circovirus-2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is seen in postweaning multisystemic wasting syndrome

A

-Enlarged lymphnodes
-Interstitial pneumonia
-poor body condition
-thymus (atrophy) to granulomatous inflammation with multinucleated cells with cytoplasmic viral inclusions

*Lymphoid depletion of follicles and paracortex > replacement by granulomatous inflammation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are common sites of bovine leukemia

A

H- eart
U - Uterus
L - lymph nodes
A- abomasum
S- spinal cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

On flow cytometry you identify a homogenous expansion of cells that express CD34. What is the most likely interpretation

A

Acute leukemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What tests will reliably provide both prognostic and diagnostic information for lymphoma

A

Flow cytometry of a lymph node aspirate or peripheral blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What might cause several solid nodules in the splenic parenchyma

A

lymphoid hyperplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

rough, brown to yellow plaques along the serosal surface of the spleen
incidental finding

A

Siderotic plaques

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Cytology of mass identifies epithelial population with intermixed small mature lymphocytes. Flow cytometry of peripheral blood and the thymic mass are sent out. Flow of peripheral blood identifies an expansion of heterogenous T cells. What do you expect for flow cytometry results of mediastinal mass

A

An expansion of T lymphocytes that co-express CD4 and CD8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How is Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis spread

A

through horizontal transmission via wound contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is one benefit of PARR assay

A

it can be used in old or non-viable flow samples cytology slides, histology sample

Helps differentiate between neoplasia and hyperplasia/ reactice processes

*No prognostic information

35
Q

What test is helpful for distinguishing between neoplasia/reactive progesses but gives no prognostric information

A

PARR

36
Q

T/F: in multicentric disease of sporadic lymphoma in cattle, there is bone marrow involvement

A

True

37
Q

T/F: the syndromes of sporadic lymphoma in cattle include thymic, multicentric, and cutaneous disease

A

True

38
Q

T/F: persistent lymphcytosis is a feature of sporadic lymphoma in cattle

A

false

39
Q

What might be the cause of a dog with hypoproteinemia, hypoglobulinemia, and hypocholesterolemia. You note mild ascites and irregular mucosa with macroscopically pale villi. What are you concerned about?

A

Intestinal lymphangiectasia

40
Q

What do you want to rule out in a cat with enlarged lymph nodes and negative FeLV/ FIV

A

Plague

41
Q

A pituitary adenoma is likely to cause (hyperfunction- too much hormone) or (hypofunction-too little hormone)

A

Hyperfunction of an endocrine gland

42
Q

Why do dogs with hyperadrenocorticism have a pot-bellied appearance and dermal mineralization

A

the increased levels of glucocorticoids drive catabolic processes which cause breakdown of both muscle tissue and dermal collagen

43
Q

What might cause a ferret to have dysuria, alopecia and anemia

A

hyperplastic or neoplastic adrenal gland cortex produces androgen compounds that stimulate these hormonally sensitive tissues

44
Q

What is the development of feline diabetes

A

Endocrine disease secondary to failure of a target cell or organ to respond to a hormone

45
Q

What causes PU/PD through failure of water reabsorption in the distal renal tubules

A

Central diabetes inspididus

46
Q

What causes PU/PD through hyperglycemic diuresis and proliferative glomerulonephropathy in kidney

A

Acromegaly

47
Q

What causes PU/PD through inhibition of antidiuretic hormone and increase GFR

A

Hyperadrenocorticism

48
Q

What causes PU/PD through defective sodium reabsorption and associated diuresis

A

Hypoadrenocorticism

49
Q

Why do you see hyperkalemia, hyponatremia, and hypochloridemia in hypoadenocorticism

A

Lack of aldosterone production leads to hyperkalemia from potassium retention and hyponatremia from loss of sodium in urine

50
Q

In dogs with pheochromocytomas, cardiomyopathy is due to

A

Hypertension due to pulsatile and persistent secretion of catecholamines

51
Q

T/F: Equine Cushings is more likely to be adrenal dependent rather than pituitary dependent

A

False

52
Q

Why do horses with PPID get increased ACTH

A

due to abnormal processing of the precursor molecule, pro-opiomelanocortin

53
Q

T/F: Horses with PPID develop mild increases in ACTH and serum cortisol

A

True

54
Q

Why might a dog with uncontrolled hypoadrenocortism have a discrete nodular mass in the anterior pituitary that is histologically diagnosed as nodular basophil hyperplasia on the anterior pituitary

A

Loss of cortisol production leads to uninhibited production of coritcotropin releasing hormone and persistent stimulation of the anterior pituitary leading to hyperplasia

55
Q

12yo DSH cat with weight loss, polyphagia, polydipsia, polyuria and unkempt haircoat. The cat is thin and has tachycardia. What is most common endocrine lesion and what should you do confirm diagnosis

A

Nodular thyroid hyperplasia

Serum T4

56
Q

T/F: C-peptide production also increase glucose uptake by target cells

A

False

57
Q

Why are measuring insulin levels unreliable

A

they udnergo first pass removal by the liver

58
Q

T/F: C-peptide maintains greater half life in circulation, compared to insulin

A

True

59
Q

C-peptide is cleaved from

A

pro-insulin molecule and secreted equimolar ratio

60
Q

What is expected to result in the most hypercalcemia
primary tumor of parathyroid
calcitonin secreting c cell tumor
Hyperparathyroidism secondary to renal disease
Hyperparathyroidism seocndary to nutritional def

A

primary tumor of parathyroid

61
Q

Why do dogs with hypothyroidism commonly have alopecia

A

secondary to failure of hair follcilces to cycle out of telogen (resting state)

62
Q

What endocrine related lesions might you find ina cat with unkempt hair coat and is acutely down in hind legs and painful

A

bilateral nodular hyperplasia of thyroids
cardiac hypertrophy

63
Q

What should you do for a ferret with seizures, weakness, and ataxia. Blood work shows hypoglycemia

A

Abdominal ultrasound and serum insulin/C-peptide concentration

64
Q

What would you see in a dog with functional adrenal tumor and adrenal dependent hyperadrenocortism

A

Contralateral adrenocortical atophy
decreased ACTH secretion

65
Q

What is the primary pathogenesis of hypothyroidism in dogs

A

autoimmune destruction of the thyroid tissue thereby decreasing the critical number of functional thyroid follicles

66
Q

What is the risk factor of the development of thrombosis in feline hyperthyroidism

A

turbulent/ altered bloodflow and endothelial damage

67
Q

How might a foal be born with curled ears, domed forehead, carpal bone dymaturity, and flexural abnormalitires with enlarged thyroid lobes and pituitary gland

A

-Hyperplasia of the anterior pituitary is due to failed T3 and T4 feedback inhibition with persistent secretion of TRH, leading to proliferation of TSH secreting cells

-Consumption of goitrogenic compounds sucj as high nitrate, by the dam during gestion lead to less iodine, hyperplastic follicular goiter of thryroid and developmental anomalies

68
Q

What is a key histologic feature of hepatic encephalopathy

A

Alzheimers type II astrocytes

69
Q

How might seizures cause neuronal necrosis of cerebral cortex and hippocampus

A

excitatory toxicity

70
Q

Hansen type I IVD extrusion causes myelin degeneration and is considered a *

A

Secondary demyelination cause

71
Q

What cell type plays a major role in healing/repair of CNS after small ischemic infarct

A

Astrocyte

72
Q

What is most common site of narrowing/stenosis seen in congenital hydrocephalus

A

Mesencephalic aqueduct

73
Q

What is the only storage disease that can be diagnosed grossly- atrophy and brown discolaration of brain parenchyma

A

Ceroid- lipfuscinosis

74
Q

What viruses should you vaccinate against to prevent against cerebellar hypoplasia

A

pestiviruses and parvoviruses

75
Q

What is a term for dilation of lateral ventricles secondary to parenchymal loss associated with an encephaloclastic defect such as hydranencephaly

A

Hydrocephalus ex vacuo

76
Q

What type of cerebral edema predominates following traumatic brain injury

A

Vasogenic edema

77
Q

Coup occurs at the ______ while countrecoup occurs _______

A

at site of impact while contrecoup contusion occurs on opposite side of impact and can have more prominent hemorrhage due to tearing of vessels

78
Q

What is a primary sequelae that is seen with intraventricular neoplasms, such as choroid plexus tumors

A

Hydrocephalus

79
Q

What is the most likely diagnosis for a large extra-axial mass in a cat

A

Meningioma

80
Q

What virus causes primary demyelination

A

Canine distemper virus

81
Q

What is the distribution of mant toxic and metabolic lesions of the CNS

A

bilateral and symmetjrical

82
Q

in Equids, neurotoxicity secondary to ingestion of yellow star thistle or russian knapweed results in

A

bilateral, symmetrical malacia of the substantia nigra and globus pallidus

83
Q

What deficiency is linked to Equine Degenerative Myeloencephalopahty

A

Vitamin E

BOD 3 (5 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions