Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

RCIS Practice Exam > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?

A

CO = HR x SV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Stroke volume is ______________

A

Related to preload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Preload is most impacted by _____________

A

Filling volumes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate

A

Increased afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by

A

Radius of the vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The formula for BP is

A

BP = CO x SVR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral Insufficiency?

A

V wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?

A

RV infarct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?

A

JVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?

A

Congenital

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?

A

30 cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ______ and the temperature change is measured in the ________.

A

RA, PA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Equalization of the RVEDP and the LVEDP are found in

A

Restrictive Pericarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Signs of Right sided heart failure includes?

A

JVD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum is called

A

Ostium Secundum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is Flamm’s equation?

A

3 (SVC) + 1 (IVC) / 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What applies to Dopamine?

A

In low doses it increases renal perfusion and increases urine output. It also increases heart rate and blood pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The reversal agent for Versed is

A

Romazicon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The reversal agent for opioids is

A

Naloxone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Adenosine causes

A

Maximum hyperemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The preferred wire for peripheral procedures is

A

.018

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The preferred intervention for a cold limb is

A

Thrombectomy device or infusion catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The medication post peripheral procedure may include

A

Brillinta, Plavix, Effient and/or Aspirin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of

A

Cardiac Tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What does RAD stand for?

A

Radiation Absorbed Dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The component of the X-ray system that converts light rays into images?

A

Image Intensifier

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?

A

5 REM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?

A

0.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the X-ray?

A

6 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Spasm at the access site can be managed with

A

A calcium channel blocker or NTG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Post procedure pressure should be

A

Non-occlusive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Heparin should be given at _____ Units/kg

A

50

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?

A

Lateral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Radiolucent means

A

X-rays are permitted to pass through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Radiopaque means

A

X-rays are NOT permitted to pass through

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

ReoPro works on

A

IIB/IIIA receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Heparin potentiates the action of

A

Antithrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of

A

Thrombin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

There are how many pathways to imitate the clotting cascade?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Aspirin inhibits the action of

A

Arachidonic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Which agents are examples of Antiplatelets?

A

Aspirin, Plavix, ReoPro

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?

A

Fluids to hydrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

If a patient is taking NPH Insulin, which medication should not be given?

A

Protamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Which medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT?

A

Adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4, contrast volume should be minimized. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A non-compliant balloon does not have the ability to expand beyond a specific diameter. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

A compliant balloon can be expanded beyond a specific diameter when additional pressure is applied. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are 3 facts regarding self-expanding stents?

A

They do not require a balloon for deployment
They foreshorten which can result in incorrect stent placement
They are very flexible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

The best short acting medication/anxietolytic to sedate a patient is

A

Versed/Midazolam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is

A

Nitroglycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Amiodarone is used to treat

A

Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?

A

Nitroglycerin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing ____________ post contrast administration?

A

Renal failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?

A

Mobitz 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The Impella catheter most closely resembles which diagnostic catheter?

A

Pigtail

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, which is the purpose of setting a “rate of rise”?

A

It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect?

A

Inferior wall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1 and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?

A

Cx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What are 2 benefits of balloon expandable stents?

A

They have an increased radial strength
There is minimal foreshortening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The open cell coronary stent is best for tortuous lesions because it is more flexible. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?

A

You could put them into V-fib

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The closed cell stent is best for calcified lesions or straight segments of a coronary lesion. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

In 1st degree heart block, where is the conduction delay?

A

AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is the normal PR interval?

A

.12- .20

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

If a patient is attached to the monitor, V tach is the rhythm, the patient has no pulse and is not responding, what should you do?

A

Unsynchronized cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

If a patient is on a monitor in SVT, SBP is 70, the patient is diaphoretic, dusky and SOB, What should you do?

A

Synchronized cardioversion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What are 3 common complications of placing a pacing electrode/wire

A

Perforation
Pericardial Effusion
Tamponade

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

A pacing generator that paces both chambers, senses in both chambers and triggers or inhibits is a

A

DDD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

A permanent pacemaker with a single lead is used for

A

AV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

A permanent pacemaker that paces both the right atrium and right ventricle is used for

A

SA node dysfunction and RV block

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

A biventricular device is used for

A

Cardiac resynchronization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

A biventricular device paces which chamber(s)?

A

RA, RV and LV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

A covered stent is used for

A

Coronary perforation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The markers on the stent balloon identify

A

Both the proximal and distal ends of the stent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Balloon expandable stents have increased radial strength. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

What are 4 causes of in-stent restenosis?

A

Uncontrolled hypertension
Non-compliance with medication
No change in modifiable risk factors (smoking, diabetes)
Stented vessels are smaller than 2.0mm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Which cardiac output would be most accurate in a patient with mitral valve regurgitation?

A

FICK

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which right heart pressure best reflects LV preload?

A

PCWP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Which balloon is used for mitral valvuloplasty?

A

Inoue Balloon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Aortic stenosis demonstrates a pressure that is elevated in the left ventricle and a pressure that is lower in the ___________.

A

Aortic arch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What information is needed to calculate a FICK Cardiac Output?

A

Arterial O2 saturation
Venous O2 saturation
Hemoglobin
O2 Consumption
Height/weight/BSA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

If a patient has a pulsatile mass below the sheath site, and bruit is present, what should be suspected?

A

Pseudoaneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

An abdominal aortic pulsation greater than 3.0cm can be a finding for what

A

Aortic Aneurysm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

List common symptoms of an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm

A

Pain not relieved with NTG, Morphine or Oxygen
Non-specific EKG changes
Back pain
Significant palpable abdominal pulsation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

The primary wire coating is

A

Hydrophillic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

The purpose of platinum of the tip of an angioplasty wire is

A

For better visualization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

Atherectomy devices are best utilized on

A

Calcified lesions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

The common complication of atherectomy devices is

A

Distal embolization

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Thrombectomy devices are used for

A

Clots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Thrombectomy devices and atherectomy devices are not lesion specific. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

A catheter has a diameter of 2.66mm. What French size is it?

A

8FR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Contrast induced nephropathy can be characterized by

A

An increase in creatinine
Drop in GFR
Decreased renal output

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

The best studies to evaluate a patient for AAA are

A

TEE
Non-contrast CT
PET Scan
Abdominal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

The Yankauer suction catheter is used for

A

Oral/pharyngeal suction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Prior to suctioning the endotracheal tube, a patient needs to be

A

Hyperventilated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Which lesion is best addressed with a Rotablator?

A

Calcified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Which catheter should be used to cannulate a LAD with a high takeoff?

A

Amplatz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

Landmarks for an internal jugular approach include the

A

Head of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the clavicular head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

When performing a myocardial biopsy where are the tissue samples taken from

A

RV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Define Hypokinetic

A

Decreased cardiac wall motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Define Akinetic

A

No cardiac wall motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

Define Dyskinetic

A

Abnormal/unorganized cardiac wall motion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

In the formula BP = HR x SV x SVR, Dobutamine acts as an __________, to ____________ by increasing ______________.

A

Inotrope
Increase stroke volume
Contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

Losartan and Valsartan are both examples of what drug class?

A

Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

NTG works to decrease preload when given during an MI by dilating

A

Veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Coronary arteries perfuse best during

A

Diastole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What is the purpose of the IABP

A

Increase coronary perfusion, decrease afterload

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

An IMA catheter most nearly resembles a

A

JR 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Where is an IVC filter placed?

A

Below the renal veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Where should the IV be placed for a right radial procedure?

A

In the contralateral arm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

In which heart chamber is the ICE catheter advanced?

A

Right atrium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

A procedure used to block or reduce blood flow in arteries

A

Embolization/coiling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Lisinopril can cause

A

Hypokalemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Metformin may cause _____________ post procedure leading to contrast induced nephropathy

A

Lactic acidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

The best device for management of an acute thrombus in a vessel is

A

Angiojet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

Which device employs the use of sterile heparinized saline to evacuate thrombus?

A

Angiojet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a retroperitoneal bleed?

A

Back or flank pain
Drop in BP
Tachycardia
Drop in Hgb and Hct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Calcified lesions are best managed with which device?

A

Cutting/scoring balloon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

When using a Temporary Pacer, where is the lead placed?

A

RV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

When performing a myocardial biopsy post heart transplant, the biopsy is performed to evaluate what?

A

Potential for rejection of the transplanted heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The drive to breath in a person with no respiratory diseases is

A

Elevated CO2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

The drive to breath in a person with COPD is

A

Decreased O2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

The greatest risk when performing a myocardial biopsy is?

A

Perforation of the RV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

When using the Rotablator, the burr should start rotating where?

A

Just proximal to the lesion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

The dorsalis pedal pulse is located

A

On the anterior foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

The posterior tibial pulse is located

A

Near the medial malleolus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

The site of a myxoma is the

A

LA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

The best catheter to cross a stenotic aortic valve is

A

AL2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What medications are commonly given when performing a radial procedure?

A

NTG, Verapamil, Heparin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

The IABP catheter should be placed where

A

Above the renal artery and below the left subclavian

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Which symptom after the use of a closure device warrants evaluation?

A

Loss of pulses in the foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

If the HR slows, what happens to SV?

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What happens to myocardial contractile force when the heart rate slows?

A

Increases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

Rapid ventricular pacing is used during a TAVR to

A

Decrease movement of the aortic valve during systole by decreasing stroke and filling

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

The Amplatzer Septal Occluder device is used to

A

Close a PFO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Impella is indicated for patients experiencing

A

Severe heart failure
Cardiogenic shock
High risk percutaneous intervention

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What is the access site for Impella?

A

Femoral artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Which heart chamber is the Impella advanced to?

A

LV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

How are you expected to discontinue an Impella device?

A

Weaning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

For a left sided Impella, the inlet port is the ______________ and the outlet port is the ___________.

A

Ventricle
Aorta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

The head hunter catheter is used to visualize the

A

Left and right ICA and ECA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis?

A

Arteriosclerosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Renal artery stenosis is most commonly found in the

A

Proximal renal artery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

FFR employs the use of which medication?

A

Adenosine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

FFR compares the pressure __________ to the lesion to the pressure __________ to the lesion.

A

Proximal
Distal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What FFR measurement indicates the vessel is flow limiting and should be fixed?

A

0.80 or lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Mesenteric ischemia can cause compromised blood flow to the intestines. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Mesenteric ischemia can occur after an MI. True or False?

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Another name for Plavix

A

Clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Another name for Effient

A

Prasugrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Another name for Brillinta

A

Ticagrelor

152
Q

Another name for Aggrastat

A

Tirofiban

153
Q

Another name for ReoPro

A

Abciximab

154
Q

Pulsus alternans is a sign of

A

Left sided heart failure

155
Q

How would you monitor heparin therapy is ACT is not available?

A

PT/PTT

156
Q

An elevated PCWP, orthopnea, increased LVEDP and decreased O2 sat are signs of?

A

Left sided heart failure

157
Q

A washer that is visualized on fluoroscopy is placed to mark the

A

Proximal vein graft

158
Q

An ABI measure the difference between the ______ and _______pulses and a reading of ____ indicates a flow limiting lesion.

A

Left brachial
Left pedal
0.7

159
Q

Cannulation of the femoral artery should be

A

One finger breath below the inguinal fold

160
Q

What occurs when an arterial puncture site does not seal

A

Pseudoaneurysm

161
Q

_____________________ is the result of the cannulating needle penetrating the anterior and posterior vessel walls.

A

Pseudoaneurysm

162
Q

Treatment of a pseudoaneurysm includes

A

Thrombin injection into the SAC
Ultrasound guided compression
Surgical management

163
Q

Physical signs of a pseudoaneurysm include

A

Palpable pulsatile mass
Presence of a systolic bruit
Pain

164
Q

Which organ system is responsible for metabolic changes in pH?

A

Kidneys

165
Q

Contraindications for closure devices include

A

PVD
Diabetes
Cannulation above the inguinal fold
Cannulation of the profunda

166
Q

What is necessary prior to deploying a TAVR?

A

A TTE or TEE
Temporary pacing wire
Both atrial and venous access
Ensuring the TAVR does not occlude the coronary ostium

167
Q

The PR interval is 0.26. Where is the conduction delay?

A

AV node

168
Q

A laser eliminates plaque by

A

Vaporizing

169
Q

The left sided Impella devices evacuates blood from the ________ and delivers it to the ________.

A

LV
AO

170
Q

Define Arteriosclerosis

A

The thickening/hardening and loss of elasticity of the walls of the arteries

171
Q

Define Atherosclerosis

A

The build-up of plaque on the arterial wall

172
Q

Balloon expandable stents are used in the

A

Coronaries

173
Q

Self-expandable stents are used in the

A

Carotids

174
Q

When HR slows, cardiac muscle fiber contraction

A

Increases

175
Q

Chronic untreated hypertension demonstrates

A

A risk factor for CAD and increased afterload

176
Q

Mitral insufficiency can be evaluated by measuring the

A

V wave

177
Q

Chronic mitral stenosis can increase the

A

PCWP

178
Q

Aortic stenosis can increase

A

LV systolic pressure

179
Q

Which pressure must be recorded to diagnosis mitral regurgitation?

A

PCW

180
Q

Which pathologies would increase the RVEDP?

A

RV infarct
Chronic COPD
Chronic pulmonary hypertension

181
Q

An elevated RA waveform and RA pressure could be caused by

A

Tricuspid regurgitation
RV MI
ASD

182
Q

Signs of LV failure include

A

Orthopnea and pulmonary congestion
Decreased exercise tolerance
Decreased EF

183
Q

What causes equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP?

A

Constrictive Pericarditis

184
Q

What can cause bilateral peripheral edema

A

Right heart failure

185
Q

What do ACE inhibitors do?

A

Decrease BP via the kidneys

186
Q

A common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors is

A

Cough

187
Q

Enalapril and Lisinopril are examples of which drug class?

A

ACE inhibitors

188
Q

Amlodipine, Felodipine and Nifedipine are examples of which drug class?

A

Calcium channel blockers

189
Q

An inferior wall MI demonstrates ST elevation in leads

A

II, III and AVF

190
Q

Where is the conduction delay in a 1st degree heart block?

A

AV node

191
Q

In a 1st degree heart block the PR interval is

A

> .20

192
Q

Benefits of the IABP include

A

Decrease in afterload
Improves coronary circulation

193
Q

Distal protection devices are most commonly used in which procedures?

A

Carotid stenting
Saphenous vein grafts

194
Q

What does a high V wave indicate?

A

Mitral regurgitation

195
Q

LV systolic pressure is greater than aortic systolic pressure is indicative of

A

Aortic stenosis

196
Q

Elevated RV systolic pressure and normal PA pressure is indicative of

A

Pulmonic stenosis

197
Q

If there is ST elevation in leads 1, AVL, V5 and V6 which wall of the heart is affected

A

Lateral

198
Q

If there is ST elevation in leads V3, V4 and V5 which wall of the heart is affected

A

Anterior

199
Q

When does the mitral valve close?

A

Immediately following the peak of the A wave

200
Q

What are two examples of positive chronotropes

A

Atropine and Isuprel

201
Q

Verapamil is an example of which drug class?

A

Calcium channel blocker

202
Q

Metoprolol is an example of which drug class?

A

Beta blocker

203
Q

NTG is an example of which drug class?

A

Preload reducer

204
Q

Lisinopril is an example of which drug class?

A

ACE

205
Q

Valsartan is an example of which drug class?

A

ARB

206
Q

What is the normal range of K+ in the blood?

A

3.5-5.0

207
Q

What do you see during a vasovagal reaction?

A

BP decreases
HR decreases
SV decreases

208
Q

When a patient has a a vasovagal reaction what do you do?

A

Give fluids
Trendelenburg position
Atropine

209
Q

How does heparin prevent clot formation?

A

By preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin

210
Q

What is the initial dose of Versed for sedation?

A

0.5mg - 1mg

211
Q

What is the action of ReoPro?

A

Inhibits IIb/IIIA receptors

212
Q

INR measures the levels of which drug?

A

Coumadin

213
Q

Most common access point to perform a myocardial biopsy

A

Right IJ

214
Q

Lovenox impacts what?

A

Antithrombin and Factor Xa

215
Q

How does Plavix act?

A

Turns off receptor sites on the platelets

216
Q

What does Aspirin do?

A

Prevents platelet adhesion

217
Q

TPA acts by?

A

Dissolving fibrin
Activates Plasminogen

218
Q

Metabolic Acidosis has a low level of what?

A

Bicarb (HCO3)

219
Q

Maximum flow rate per nasal cannular for a person with COPD?

A

2 liters nasal cannula

220
Q

A high CO2 will impact the pH how?

A

It will lower the pH

221
Q

Increased bicarb will do what to the pH?

A

Increased the pH

222
Q

What is the most common form of cardiac tumor?

A

Atrial Myxoma located in the LA

223
Q

The symptoms of increased HR, decreased BP and SOB during a biopsy indicate what?

A

Cardiac Perforation

224
Q

Which diagnostic catheter is best for a dilated aortic root?

A

JL5

225
Q

Where does the needle enter for a pericardalcentesis?

A

Sub-xyphoid process

226
Q

What is the best balloon to use on an artery that has the tendency to close?

A

A perfusion balloon

227
Q

What is the purpose of an ICD?

A

To monitor for bradycardia, tachycardia, VT and V-fib

228
Q

What is a Fogarty balloon?

A

An embolectomy catheter most commonly used to decrease clot in an AV fistula

229
Q

What is the normal amount of blood in the pericardium?

A

5-50ml

230
Q

When are the coronary arteries perfused?

A

During ventricular Diastole

231
Q

What is ACLS protocol for monophasic defibrillation?

A

200-300-360

232
Q

What is ACLS protocol for biphasic defibrillation?

A

120-150-200

233
Q

What does the C wave represent?

A

Onset of ventricular contraction

234
Q

Which valve has the smallest valve area?

A

Aortic

235
Q

What is the formula for Mean Arterial Blood Pressure?

A

1(systolic) + 2(diastolic) / 3

236
Q

What is the formula for Pulse Pressure

A

AO systolic - AO diastolic

237
Q

What is the formula for FICK Cardiac Output

A

O2 Consumption / (Hbg x AO sat x constant) x (Hgb x PA sat x constant) x 10

238
Q

What is the formula for Stroke Volume?

A

SV = EDV - EDS

239
Q

What is the formula for Ejection Fraction?

A

EF = SV / EDV

240
Q

What is the formula for Cardiac Output (L/min)

A

CO = HR x SV / 1000

241
Q

What is the formula for Cardiac Index

A

CI = CO / BSA

242
Q

What is the formula for Regurgitant Fraction

A

SV angiographic - SV thermo / SV angiographic

243
Q

What is the formula for Aortic Valve Area?

A

AVA = AVF / 44.5 x sq root of mean gradient

244
Q

What is the formula for Aortic Valve Flow?

A

AVF = CO (mL/min) / SEP (sec/min)

245
Q

What is the formula for Mitral Valve Area?

A

MVA = MVF / 37.7 x sq root of mean gradient

246
Q

What is the formula for Mitral Valve Flow?

A

MVF = CO (mL/min) / DFP

247
Q

What is the formula for SEP?

A

SEP = SEP x HR

248
Q

What is the formula for DFP?

A

DFP = DFP x HR

249
Q

What is the formula for Haaki for Valve Area?

A

Haaki = CO (L/min) / Square root of the peak to peak pressure gradient

250
Q

What is the formula for Peak to Peak Gradient?

A

LV Systolic - AO Systolic

251
Q

What is another name for Angiomax?

A

Bivalirudin

252
Q

What is another name for Coumadin?

A

Warfarin

253
Q

What is another name for Xarelto?

A

Rivaroxaban

254
Q

Normal RA pressure?

A

5

255
Q

Which is the largest valve in the heart?

A

Tricuspid Valve

256
Q

Normal RV pressure?

A

25

257
Q

Normal RVEDP?

A

5

258
Q

Normal PA pressure?

A

25 (systolic) / 7-12 (diastolic)

259
Q

Normal LA pressure?

A

7-12

260
Q

Normal PCW pressure?

A

7-12

261
Q

What is the purpose of endothelia cells in an artery?

A

Cover muscle fibers
Creates slippery environment
Prevent clot formation

261
Q

Normal LVEDP?

A

7-12

262
Q

What does Nitricoxide do for arteries?

A

Relaxes muscle fibers. Bigger diameter = lower pressure

263
Q

Define Cardiac Tamponade

A

Compression of the heart by an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac

264
Q

What is Pulsus Paradoxus?

A

Pressure variation by right upper lobe. Causes blood to go into vena cava resulting in lower pressures

265
Q

What are Baroreceptors?

A

Stretch receptors that tell the brain how much muscle stretch is necessary for normal blood flow

266
Q

Which organ secrets renin?

A

Kidneys

267
Q

Define Chronotropes

A

Affects HR
Positive chronotropes increase HR
Negative chronotropes decrease HR

268
Q

Define Inotropes

A

Affects contractions
Positive inotropes boost heart beat
Negative inotropes weaken heart beat

269
Q

What does Nipride do?

A

Increases vessel diameter. Given during hypertensive crisis to lower BP quickly

270
Q

What does Lidocaine do?

A

Decreases sensitivity to electrical impulses. Used for treatment of ventricular arrhythmias and PVCs

271
Q

What does Atropine do?

A

Increases HR due to vasovagal reaction. Tells vagus nerve to relax

272
Q

What does Isuprel do?

A

Positive chronotrope. Increases HR by stimulating beta site on the heart

273
Q

What does Amiodarone do?

A

Decreases HR by slowing flow through potassium channels. Slows flow through the entire conduction system

274
Q

What do Calcium Channel Blockers do?

A

Decreases HR and BP by slowing the movement of Ca+ through both cardiac and muscle fibers

275
Q

Verapamil, Cardizem, Amlodipine and Nifedipine are examples of which drug class?

A

Calcium Channel Blockers

276
Q

Metoprolol, Atenolol and Inderal are examples of which drug class?

A

Beta Blockers

277
Q

What do Beta Blockers do?

A

Negative chronotropes
Lower HR

278
Q

1-5mcg/kg/min of Dopamine will do what?

A

Increase renal perfusion

279
Q

5-10 mcg/kg/min of Dopamine will do what?

A

Raise HR and BP

280
Q

> 10 mcg/kg/min of Dopamine with do what?

A

Becomes potent

281
Q

What does Dobutmaine do?

A

Causes cardiac muscle fibers to contract with more force
Increases SV and EF

282
Q

What does FFR do?

A

Induces a hyperemic state
Dilates microvasculature

283
Q

What is Epinephrine?

A

Increases heart rate and vessel diameter

284
Q

What does Demerol/Meperidine do?

A

Binds to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord

285
Q

What is a normal INR?

A

0.8 - 1.2 sec

286
Q

What is a normal ACT?

A

70-120 sec

287
Q

ACT should be greater than _______ sec during an intervention

A

250

288
Q

Where do we zero the transducer?

A

Phlebostatic access
Midaxillary

289
Q

What is happening during the “a” wave on a RA waveform?

A

Rise in RA pressure during atrial contraction

290
Q

What is happening during the “v” wave on a RA waveform?

A

RA filling while the tricuspid valve is closed

291
Q

Where do we measure EDP?

A

Following ventricular contraction

292
Q

Define EDP?

A

The amount of blood volume left behind following ventricular contraction

293
Q

What does the Diacrotic Notch signify?

A

The closing of the pulmonic valve

294
Q

Normal PA Mean Pressure?

A

10-15

295
Q

Define Ostium Secundum ASD

A

Most common type of ASD
Occurs in the center of the septum
Another name is “Patent Foramen Ovale”

296
Q

Define Primum ASD

A

Second most common ASD
Located on lower portion of atrial septum

297
Q

Define Sinus Venosus ASD

A

Least common type of ASD
Located on upper portion of atrial septum

298
Q

What is an ASD/PFO Closure?

A

Closure of Ostium Secundum ASD
Requires transseptal approach
Uses ICE catheter

299
Q

Which catheter allows for visualization of cardiac structures and requires venous access?

A

ICE Catheter

300
Q

What is the formula for Qp/Qs Ratio?

A

Qp/Qs = AO O2 sat - MVO2 sat / PV O2 sat - PA O2 sat

301
Q

Normal pH range?

A

7.35-7.45

302
Q

Normal PaCO2 range?

A

35-45

303
Q

Normal HCO3 range?

A

22-26

304
Q

A pH < 7.35 is called what?

A

Acidosis

305
Q

A pH > 7.45 is called what?

A

Alkalosis

306
Q

An increased HCO3 ___________ pH

A

Raises

307
Q

A decreased HCO3 ____________ pH

A

Decreases

308
Q

A high CO2 _____________ pH

A

Decreases

309
Q

A low CO2 _____________ pH

A

Increases

310
Q

Where are collimators located on X-ray machine?

A

X-ray tube

311
Q

The number of electrons fired from the cathode is referred to as?

A

mA

312
Q

The penetrating power of the mA is referred to as?

A

KVp

313
Q

_______ controls the contrast or the grey scale in a x-ray image

A

KVp

314
Q

Abnormal development or growth of cells in the walls of the body’s arteries

A

Fibromuscular Dysplasia

315
Q

The height of the table at which the object being imaged remains in the center of the field of view

A

Isocenter

316
Q

X-ray coming out in short bursts

A

Fluoro

317
Q

X-ray coming out continuously

A

Cine

318
Q

Lead glasses contain ____mm of lead

A

0.75

319
Q

Type of contrast used in the past. Caused nausea, vomiting and bradycardia

A

Renografin

320
Q

The total concentration of solutes in a solution

A

Osmolality

321
Q

Having a higher osmotic pressure than a particular fluid

A

Hypertonic

322
Q

Which hormone helps blood vessels constrict and helps the kidneys control amount of water and salt in the body

A

Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)

323
Q

This medication lowers blood sugar levels by improving the way the body handles insulin

A

Metformin

324
Q

This occurs when the catheter accidentally slips into a side artery near the Left Main and acts as a wedge pressure

A

Ventricularization

325
Q

Septals and Diagonals belong to which artery?

A

LAD

326
Q

Marginals belong to which artery?

A

Circumflex

327
Q

The Conus, Acute Marginals and PDA belong to which artery?

A

RCA

328
Q

Which artery runs down the interventricular septum?

A

LAD

329
Q

Which artery runs through the left and right atrioventricular grooves?

A

Circumflex

330
Q

Vessel that collects blood from the coronary veins and returns the blood directly into the RA

A

Coronary Sinus

331
Q

This view is used to visualize the origins of the diagonals along the mid/distal LAD. Prox LAD/Cx usually overlapped

A

RAO Cranial

332
Q

This view is used to visualize the Left Main, the prox LAD. One of the best views to visualize the Cx

A

RAU Caudal

333
Q

In this view, the septals and diagonals are separated clearly

A

LAO Cranial

334
Q

In this view, the Left Main and Left Main bifurcation is well visualized. Also referred to as “Spider View”

A

LAO Caudal

335
Q

When looking at the RCA, which view best visualizes the prox RCA?

A

LAO

336
Q

When looking at the RCA, which view best visualizes the PDA?

A

RAO Cranial

337
Q

What is the average diameter of the Left Main?

A

4.5mm

338
Q

What is the average diameter of the Circumflex?

A

3.4mm

339
Q

What is the average diameter of the RCA?

A

2.8mm

340
Q

Define Type II Aortic Dissection

A

Confined to the ascending aorta

341
Q

Define Type III Aortic Dissection

A

Confined to the descending aorta

342
Q

Define Type I Aortic Dissection

A

Involves the ascending aorta, aortic arch and descending aorta

343
Q

Define Type A Aortic Dissection

A

Develops in the ascending part of the aorta just as it branches off of the heart

344
Q

Define Type B Aortic Dissection

A

Involves a tear in the descending part of the aorta

345
Q

If a thrombus occurs in the mesenteric artery, which organs are affected?

A

The intestines

346
Q

1 atm = ______lbs/sq in

A

14.7

347
Q

Uses light rather than sound to penetrate tissue and produce an image of the vessel

A

Optical Computerized Tomography (OCT)

348
Q

This type of test requires Adenosine infusion and induces a hyperemic state

A

FFR

349
Q

Mitral Valvuloplasty requires a ____________ approach

A

Transseptal

350
Q

Aortic Valvuloplasty requires a __________ approach

A

Femoral Artery

351
Q

Example of a mechanical thrombectomy device for PCI involving large thrombus burden

A

Anjojet

352
Q

Procedure performed to remove atherosclerotic plaque from diseased arteries

A

Atherectomy

353
Q

_____________ Atherectomy uses a burr that spins concentrically and is utilized mostly in calcified coronary arteries

A

Rotational

354
Q

_____________ Atherectomy is utilized in peripheral cases only

A

Directional

355
Q

_____________ Atherectomy uses a crown that orbits the wire and can be used in both coronary and peripheral procedures

A

Orbital

356
Q

_____________ Atherectomy uses high energy light beam to vaporize the plaque. Requires everyone in the room to wear protective goggles

A

Laser

357
Q

Left atrial appendage closure device. Prevents blood clots from escaping the area

A

Watchman

358
Q

This device is known as an alternative to Coumadin for patients in Afib in order to prevent stroke

A

Watchman

359
Q

This device is placed below the renal veins and is used to prevent blood clots from moving into the lungs causing a pulmonary embolism

A

Vena Cava Filter (IVC Filter)

360
Q

This device eases the workload of the Left Ventricle

A

Impella

361
Q

The IABP is located in the

A

Descending Aorta

362
Q

The IABP inflates at the onset of cardiac ___________

A

Diastole

363
Q

The IABP deflates at the onset of cardiac ____________

A

Systole

364
Q

Most common cause of cold limb ischemia

A

Clot

365
Q

The injection of alcohol to induce a controlled infarction of the hypertrophies septum

A

Septal Alcohol Ablation

366
Q

The first letter in pacer coding stands for the chamber being ________

A

Paced

367
Q

The second letter in pacer coding stands for the chamber bring __________

A

Sensed

368
Q

The third letter in pacer coding stands for the chambers ___________

A

Response

369
Q

Most common access site for Permanent Pacemakers

A

Left Subclavian

370
Q

Most common access site for Temporary Pacers

A

RIJ or femoral vein

371
Q

Post CABG, a temporary lead is sutured through the skin into the pericardium. What is this called?

A

Epicardial Pacing Wire

372
Q

Normal MAP?

A

75-85 mmHg

373
Q

What does MAP signify?

A

The amount of pressure needed to maintain cerebral perfusion

374
Q

How do ACE Inhibitors work?

A

BP Medication. They make the Angiotensin converting enzyme inactive to prevent Angiotensin II from being formed

375
Q

How do ARBs work?

A

Make Angiotensin II inactive to prevent it from telling the kidneys to retain salt

RCIS Practice Exam (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions