Review Flashcards
What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?
CO = HR x SV
Stroke volume is ______________
Related to preload
Preload is most impacted by _____________
Filling volumes
A patient with chronic untreated hypertension would demonstrate
Increased afterload
Vascular resistance/pressure is most influenced by
Radius of the vessel
The formula for BP is
BP = CO x SVR
What component of a Pulmonary Capillary Wedge pressure indicates Mitral Insufficiency?
V wave
An elevated RVEDP is found in which pathology?
RV infarct
If the RA waveform is 2x the normal value, where would this be demonstrated in the physical assessment?
JVD
What is the most common cause of pulmonic stenosis?
Congenital
The blue proximal port of the swan is located how far from the distal tip of the swan?
30 cm
When performing a thermodilution cardiac output, the operator injects 10cc of saline into the ______ and the temperature change is measured in the ________.
RA, PA
Equalization of the RVEDP and the LVEDP are found in
Restrictive Pericarditis
Signs of Right sided heart failure includes?
JVD
The type of ASD, located in the middle 1/3 of the atrial septum is called
Ostium Secundum
What is Flamm’s equation?
3 (SVC) + 1 (IVC) / 4
What applies to Dopamine?
In low doses it increases renal perfusion and increases urine output. It also increases heart rate and blood pressure
The reversal agent for Versed is
Romazicon
The reversal agent for opioids is
Naloxone
Adenosine causes
Maximum hyperemia
The preferred wire for peripheral procedures is
.018
The preferred intervention for a cold limb is
Thrombectomy device or infusion catheter
The medication post peripheral procedure may include
Brillinta, Plavix, Effient and/or Aspirin
Pulsus Paradoxus is a sign of
Cardiac Tamponade
What does RAD stand for?
Radiation Absorbed Dose
The component of the X-ray system that converts light rays into images?
Image Intensifier
What is the maximum annual dose of radiation one can receive annually?
5 REM
Lead protection should be at least how many millimeters of lead?
0.5
What is the minimum safe distance to position oneself from the X-ray?
6 feet
Spasm at the access site can be managed with
A calcium channel blocker or NTG
Post procedure pressure should be
Non-occlusive
Heparin should be given at _____ Units/kg
50
Which view exposes the operator to the greatest amount of radiation?
Lateral
Radiolucent means
X-rays are permitted to pass through
Radiopaque means
X-rays are NOT permitted to pass through
ReoPro works on
IIB/IIIA receptors
Heparin potentiates the action of
Antithrombin
Fibrinogen is converted to Fibrin by the action of
Thrombin
There are how many pathways to imitate the clotting cascade?
2
Aspirin inhibits the action of
Arachidonic Acid
Which agents are examples of Antiplatelets?
Aspirin, Plavix, ReoPro
If a patient has diabetes and renal failure with a creatinine of 2.0 what would you give?
Fluids to hydrate
If a patient is taking NPH Insulin, which medication should not be given?
Protamine
Which medication is most commonly given to a patient with SVT?
Adenosine
If a patient has a creatinine greater than 1.4, contrast volume should be minimized. True or False?
True
A non-compliant balloon does not have the ability to expand beyond a specific diameter. True or False?
True
A compliant balloon can be expanded beyond a specific diameter when additional pressure is applied. True or False?
True
What are 3 facts regarding self-expanding stents?
They do not require a balloon for deployment
They foreshorten which can result in incorrect stent placement
They are very flexible
The best short acting medication/anxietolytic to sedate a patient is
Versed/Midazolam
The drug of choice for treating coronary spasm is
Nitroglycerin
Amiodarone is used to treat
Atrial and ventricular arrhythmias
What medication is used as a preload and afterload reducer?
Nitroglycerin
Diabetic patients have a greater incidence of developing ____________ post contrast administration?
Renal failure
Which rhythm is most likely to become lethal?
Mobitz 2
The Impella catheter most closely resembles which diagnostic catheter?
Pigtail
When performing an LV angiogram with the LV injector, which is the purpose of setting a “rate of rise”?
It makes for a smoother injection, less catheter whip, limits ectopy
An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads II, III and AVF. What type of infarct would you suspect?
Inferior wall
An EKG demonstrates ST elevation in leads V5, V6, Lead 1 and AVL. Which coronary artery is most likely occluded?
Cx
What are 2 benefits of balloon expandable stents?
They have an increased radial strength
There is minimal foreshortening
The open cell coronary stent is best for tortuous lesions because it is more flexible. True or False?
True
What happens if you deliver a shock to a patient on the T wave?
You could put them into V-fib
The closed cell stent is best for calcified lesions or straight segments of a coronary lesion. True or False?
True
In 1st degree heart block, where is the conduction delay?
AV node
What is the normal PR interval?
.12- .20
If a patient is attached to the monitor, V tach is the rhythm, the patient has no pulse and is not responding, what should you do?
Unsynchronized cardioversion
If a patient is on a monitor in SVT, SBP is 70, the patient is diaphoretic, dusky and SOB, What should you do?
Synchronized cardioversion
What are 3 common complications of placing a pacing electrode/wire
Perforation
Pericardial Effusion
Tamponade
A pacing generator that paces both chambers, senses in both chambers and triggers or inhibits is a
DDD
A permanent pacemaker with a single lead is used for
AV block
A permanent pacemaker that paces both the right atrium and right ventricle is used for
SA node dysfunction and RV block
A biventricular device is used for
Cardiac resynchronization
A biventricular device paces which chamber(s)?
RA, RV and LV
A covered stent is used for
Coronary perforation
The markers on the stent balloon identify
Both the proximal and distal ends of the stent
Balloon expandable stents have increased radial strength. True or False?
True
What are 4 causes of in-stent restenosis?
Uncontrolled hypertension
Non-compliance with medication
No change in modifiable risk factors (smoking, diabetes)
Stented vessels are smaller than 2.0mm
Which cardiac output would be most accurate in a patient with mitral valve regurgitation?
FICK
Which right heart pressure best reflects LV preload?
PCWP
Which balloon is used for mitral valvuloplasty?
Inoue Balloon
Aortic stenosis demonstrates a pressure that is elevated in the left ventricle and a pressure that is lower in the ___________.
Aortic arch
What information is needed to calculate a FICK Cardiac Output?
Arterial O2 saturation
Venous O2 saturation
Hemoglobin
O2 Consumption
Height/weight/BSA
If a patient has a pulsatile mass below the sheath site, and bruit is present, what should be suspected?
Pseudoaneurysm
An abdominal aortic pulsation greater than 3.0cm can be a finding for what
Aortic Aneurysm
List common symptoms of an Abdominal Aortic Aneurysm
Pain not relieved with NTG, Morphine or Oxygen
Non-specific EKG changes
Back pain
Significant palpable abdominal pulsation
The primary wire coating is
Hydrophillic
The purpose of platinum of the tip of an angioplasty wire is
For better visualization
Atherectomy devices are best utilized on
Calcified lesions
The common complication of atherectomy devices is
Distal embolization
Thrombectomy devices are used for
Clots
Thrombectomy devices and atherectomy devices are not lesion specific. True or False?
True
A catheter has a diameter of 2.66mm. What French size is it?
8FR
Contrast induced nephropathy can be characterized by
An increase in creatinine
Drop in GFR
Decreased renal output
The best studies to evaluate a patient for AAA are
TEE
Non-contrast CT
PET Scan
Abdominal ultrasound
The Yankauer suction catheter is used for
Oral/pharyngeal suction
Prior to suctioning the endotracheal tube, a patient needs to be
Hyperventilated
Which lesion is best addressed with a Rotablator?
Calcified
Which catheter should be used to cannulate a LAD with a high takeoff?
Amplatz
Landmarks for an internal jugular approach include the
Head of the sternocleidomastoid muscle and the clavicular head
When performing a myocardial biopsy where are the tissue samples taken from
RV
Define Hypokinetic
Decreased cardiac wall motion
Define Akinetic
No cardiac wall motion
Define Dyskinetic
Abnormal/unorganized cardiac wall motion
In the formula BP = HR x SV x SVR, Dobutamine acts as an __________, to ____________ by increasing ______________.
Inotrope
Increase stroke volume
Contractility
Losartan and Valsartan are both examples of what drug class?
Angiotensin Receptor Blockers (ARBS)
NTG works to decrease preload when given during an MI by dilating
Veins
Coronary arteries perfuse best during
Diastole
What is the purpose of the IABP
Increase coronary perfusion, decrease afterload
An IMA catheter most nearly resembles a
JR 4
Where is an IVC filter placed?
Below the renal veins
Where should the IV be placed for a right radial procedure?
In the contralateral arm
In which heart chamber is the ICE catheter advanced?
Right atrium
A procedure used to block or reduce blood flow in arteries
Embolization/coiling
Lisinopril can cause
Hypokalemia
Metformin may cause _____________ post procedure leading to contrast induced nephropathy
Lactic acidosis
The best device for management of an acute thrombus in a vessel is
Angiojet
Which device employs the use of sterile heparinized saline to evacuate thrombus?
Angiojet
What are the signs and symptoms of a retroperitoneal bleed?
Back or flank pain
Drop in BP
Tachycardia
Drop in Hgb and Hct
Calcified lesions are best managed with which device?
Cutting/scoring balloon
When using a Temporary Pacer, where is the lead placed?
RV
When performing a myocardial biopsy post heart transplant, the biopsy is performed to evaluate what?
Potential for rejection of the transplanted heart
The drive to breath in a person with no respiratory diseases is
Elevated CO2
The drive to breath in a person with COPD is
Decreased O2
The greatest risk when performing a myocardial biopsy is?
Perforation of the RV
When using the Rotablator, the burr should start rotating where?
Just proximal to the lesion
The dorsalis pedal pulse is located
On the anterior foot
The posterior tibial pulse is located
Near the medial malleolus
The site of a myxoma is the
LA
The best catheter to cross a stenotic aortic valve is
AL2
What medications are commonly given when performing a radial procedure?
NTG, Verapamil, Heparin
The IABP catheter should be placed where
Above the renal artery and below the left subclavian
Which symptom after the use of a closure device warrants evaluation?
Loss of pulses in the foot
If the HR slows, what happens to SV?
Increases
What happens to myocardial contractile force when the heart rate slows?
Increases
Rapid ventricular pacing is used during a TAVR to
Decrease movement of the aortic valve during systole by decreasing stroke and filling
The Amplatzer Septal Occluder device is used to
Close a PFO
Impella is indicated for patients experiencing
Severe heart failure
Cardiogenic shock
High risk percutaneous intervention
What is the access site for Impella?
Femoral artery
Which heart chamber is the Impella advanced to?
LV
How are you expected to discontinue an Impella device?
Weaning
For a left sided Impella, the inlet port is the ______________ and the outlet port is the ___________.
Ventricle
Aorta
The head hunter catheter is used to visualize the
Left and right ICA and ECA
What is the most common cause of renal artery stenosis?
Arteriosclerosis
Renal artery stenosis is most commonly found in the
Proximal renal artery
FFR employs the use of which medication?
Adenosine
FFR compares the pressure __________ to the lesion to the pressure __________ to the lesion.
Proximal
Distal
What FFR measurement indicates the vessel is flow limiting and should be fixed?
0.80 or lower
Mesenteric ischemia can cause compromised blood flow to the intestines. True or False?
True
Mesenteric ischemia can occur after an MI. True or False?
True
Another name for Plavix
Clopidogrel
Another name for Effient
Prasugrel
Another name for Brillinta
Ticagrelor
Another name for Aggrastat
Tirofiban
Another name for ReoPro
Abciximab
Pulsus alternans is a sign of
Left sided heart failure
How would you monitor heparin therapy is ACT is not available?
PT/PTT
An elevated PCWP, orthopnea, increased LVEDP and decreased O2 sat are signs of?
Left sided heart failure
A washer that is visualized on fluoroscopy is placed to mark the
Proximal vein graft
An ABI measure the difference between the ______ and _______pulses and a reading of ____ indicates a flow limiting lesion.
Left brachial
Left pedal
0.7
Cannulation of the femoral artery should be
One finger breath below the inguinal fold
What occurs when an arterial puncture site does not seal
Pseudoaneurysm
_____________________ is the result of the cannulating needle penetrating the anterior and posterior vessel walls.
Pseudoaneurysm
Treatment of a pseudoaneurysm includes
Thrombin injection into the SAC
Ultrasound guided compression
Surgical management
Physical signs of a pseudoaneurysm include
Palpable pulsatile mass
Presence of a systolic bruit
Pain
Which organ system is responsible for metabolic changes in pH?
Kidneys
Contraindications for closure devices include
PVD
Diabetes
Cannulation above the inguinal fold
Cannulation of the profunda
What is necessary prior to deploying a TAVR?
A TTE or TEE
Temporary pacing wire
Both atrial and venous access
Ensuring the TAVR does not occlude the coronary ostium
The PR interval is 0.26. Where is the conduction delay?
AV node
A laser eliminates plaque by
Vaporizing
The left sided Impella devices evacuates blood from the ________ and delivers it to the ________.
LV
AO
Define Arteriosclerosis
The thickening/hardening and loss of elasticity of the walls of the arteries
Define Atherosclerosis
The build-up of plaque on the arterial wall
Balloon expandable stents are used in the
Coronaries
Self-expandable stents are used in the
Carotids
When HR slows, cardiac muscle fiber contraction
Increases
Chronic untreated hypertension demonstrates
A risk factor for CAD and increased afterload
Mitral insufficiency can be evaluated by measuring the
V wave
Chronic mitral stenosis can increase the
PCWP
Aortic stenosis can increase
LV systolic pressure
Which pressure must be recorded to diagnosis mitral regurgitation?
PCW
Which pathologies would increase the RVEDP?
RV infarct
Chronic COPD
Chronic pulmonary hypertension
An elevated RA waveform and RA pressure could be caused by
Tricuspid regurgitation
RV MI
ASD
Signs of LV failure include
Orthopnea and pulmonary congestion
Decreased exercise tolerance
Decreased EF
What causes equalization of the RVEDP and LVEDP?
Constrictive Pericarditis
What can cause bilateral peripheral edema
Right heart failure
What do ACE inhibitors do?
Decrease BP via the kidneys
A common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors is
Cough
Enalapril and Lisinopril are examples of which drug class?
ACE inhibitors
Amlodipine, Felodipine and Nifedipine are examples of which drug class?
Calcium channel blockers
An inferior wall MI demonstrates ST elevation in leads
II, III and AVF
Where is the conduction delay in a 1st degree heart block?
AV node
In a 1st degree heart block the PR interval is
> .20
Benefits of the IABP include
Decrease in afterload
Improves coronary circulation
Distal protection devices are most commonly used in which procedures?
Carotid stenting
Saphenous vein grafts
What does a high V wave indicate?
Mitral regurgitation
LV systolic pressure is greater than aortic systolic pressure is indicative of
Aortic stenosis
Elevated RV systolic pressure and normal PA pressure is indicative of
Pulmonic stenosis
If there is ST elevation in leads 1, AVL, V5 and V6 which wall of the heart is affected
Lateral
If there is ST elevation in leads V3, V4 and V5 which wall of the heart is affected
Anterior
When does the mitral valve close?
Immediately following the peak of the A wave
What are two examples of positive chronotropes
Atropine and Isuprel
Verapamil is an example of which drug class?
Calcium channel blocker
Metoprolol is an example of which drug class?
Beta blocker
NTG is an example of which drug class?
Preload reducer
Lisinopril is an example of which drug class?
ACE
Valsartan is an example of which drug class?
ARB
What is the normal range of K+ in the blood?
3.5-5.0
What do you see during a vasovagal reaction?
BP decreases
HR decreases
SV decreases
When a patient has a a vasovagal reaction what do you do?
Give fluids
Trendelenburg position
Atropine
How does heparin prevent clot formation?
By preventing the conversion of prothrombin to thrombin
What is the initial dose of Versed for sedation?
0.5mg - 1mg
What is the action of ReoPro?
Inhibits IIb/IIIA receptors
INR measures the levels of which drug?
Coumadin
Most common access point to perform a myocardial biopsy
Right IJ
Lovenox impacts what?
Antithrombin and Factor Xa
How does Plavix act?
Turns off receptor sites on the platelets
What does Aspirin do?
Prevents platelet adhesion
TPA acts by?
Dissolving fibrin
Activates Plasminogen
Metabolic Acidosis has a low level of what?
Bicarb (HCO3)
Maximum flow rate per nasal cannular for a person with COPD?
2 liters nasal cannula
A high CO2 will impact the pH how?
It will lower the pH
Increased bicarb will do what to the pH?
Increased the pH
What is the most common form of cardiac tumor?
Atrial Myxoma located in the LA
The symptoms of increased HR, decreased BP and SOB during a biopsy indicate what?
Cardiac Perforation
Which diagnostic catheter is best for a dilated aortic root?
JL5
Where does the needle enter for a pericardalcentesis?
Sub-xyphoid process
What is the best balloon to use on an artery that has the tendency to close?
A perfusion balloon
What is the purpose of an ICD?
To monitor for bradycardia, tachycardia, VT and V-fib
What is a Fogarty balloon?
An embolectomy catheter most commonly used to decrease clot in an AV fistula
What is the normal amount of blood in the pericardium?
5-50ml
When are the coronary arteries perfused?
During ventricular Diastole
What is ACLS protocol for monophasic defibrillation?
200-300-360
What is ACLS protocol for biphasic defibrillation?
120-150-200
What does the C wave represent?
Onset of ventricular contraction
Which valve has the smallest valve area?
Aortic
What is the formula for Mean Arterial Blood Pressure?
1(systolic) + 2(diastolic) / 3
What is the formula for Pulse Pressure
AO systolic - AO diastolic
What is the formula for FICK Cardiac Output
O2 Consumption / (Hbg x AO sat x constant) x (Hgb x PA sat x constant) x 10
What is the formula for Stroke Volume?
SV = EDV - EDS
What is the formula for Ejection Fraction?
EF = SV / EDV
What is the formula for Cardiac Output (L/min)
CO = HR x SV / 1000
What is the formula for Cardiac Index
CI = CO / BSA
What is the formula for Regurgitant Fraction
SV angiographic - SV thermo / SV angiographic
What is the formula for Aortic Valve Area?
AVA = AVF / 44.5 x sq root of mean gradient
What is the formula for Aortic Valve Flow?
AVF = CO (mL/min) / SEP (sec/min)
What is the formula for Mitral Valve Area?
MVA = MVF / 37.7 x sq root of mean gradient
What is the formula for Mitral Valve Flow?
MVF = CO (mL/min) / DFP
What is the formula for SEP?
SEP = SEP x HR
What is the formula for DFP?
DFP = DFP x HR
What is the formula for Haaki for Valve Area?
Haaki = CO (L/min) / Square root of the peak to peak pressure gradient
What is the formula for Peak to Peak Gradient?
LV Systolic - AO Systolic
What is another name for Angiomax?
Bivalirudin
What is another name for Coumadin?
Warfarin
What is another name for Xarelto?
Rivaroxaban
Normal RA pressure?
5
Which is the largest valve in the heart?
Tricuspid Valve
Normal RV pressure?
25
Normal RVEDP?
5
Normal PA pressure?
25 (systolic) / 7-12 (diastolic)
Normal LA pressure?
7-12
Normal PCW pressure?
7-12
What is the purpose of endothelia cells in an artery?
Cover muscle fibers
Creates slippery environment
Prevent clot formation
Normal LVEDP?
7-12
What does Nitricoxide do for arteries?
Relaxes muscle fibers. Bigger diameter = lower pressure
Define Cardiac Tamponade
Compression of the heart by an accumulation of fluid in the pericardial sac
What is Pulsus Paradoxus?
Pressure variation by right upper lobe. Causes blood to go into vena cava resulting in lower pressures
What are Baroreceptors?
Stretch receptors that tell the brain how much muscle stretch is necessary for normal blood flow
Which organ secrets renin?
Kidneys
Define Chronotropes
Affects HR
Positive chronotropes increase HR
Negative chronotropes decrease HR
Define Inotropes
Affects contractions
Positive inotropes boost heart beat
Negative inotropes weaken heart beat
What does Nipride do?
Increases vessel diameter. Given during hypertensive crisis to lower BP quickly
What does Lidocaine do?
Decreases sensitivity to electrical impulses. Used for treatment of ventricular arrhythmias and PVCs
What does Atropine do?
Increases HR due to vasovagal reaction. Tells vagus nerve to relax
What does Isuprel do?
Positive chronotrope. Increases HR by stimulating beta site on the heart
What does Amiodarone do?
Decreases HR by slowing flow through potassium channels. Slows flow through the entire conduction system
What do Calcium Channel Blockers do?
Decreases HR and BP by slowing the movement of Ca+ through both cardiac and muscle fibers
Verapamil, Cardizem, Amlodipine and Nifedipine are examples of which drug class?
Calcium Channel Blockers
Metoprolol, Atenolol and Inderal are examples of which drug class?
Beta Blockers
What do Beta Blockers do?
Negative chronotropes
Lower HR
1-5mcg/kg/min of Dopamine will do what?
Increase renal perfusion
5-10 mcg/kg/min of Dopamine will do what?
Raise HR and BP
> 10 mcg/kg/min of Dopamine with do what?
Becomes potent
What does Dobutmaine do?
Causes cardiac muscle fibers to contract with more force
Increases SV and EF
What does FFR do?
Induces a hyperemic state
Dilates microvasculature
What is Epinephrine?
Increases heart rate and vessel diameter
What does Demerol/Meperidine do?
Binds to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord
What is a normal INR?
0.8 - 1.2 sec
What is a normal ACT?
70-120 sec
ACT should be greater than _______ sec during an intervention
250
Where do we zero the transducer?
Phlebostatic access
Midaxillary
What is happening during the “a” wave on a RA waveform?
Rise in RA pressure during atrial contraction
What is happening during the “v” wave on a RA waveform?
RA filling while the tricuspid valve is closed
Where do we measure EDP?
Following ventricular contraction
Define EDP?
The amount of blood volume left behind following ventricular contraction
What does the Diacrotic Notch signify?
The closing of the pulmonic valve
Normal PA Mean Pressure?
10-15
Define Ostium Secundum ASD
Most common type of ASD
Occurs in the center of the septum
Another name is “Patent Foramen Ovale”
Define Primum ASD
Second most common ASD
Located on lower portion of atrial septum
Define Sinus Venosus ASD
Least common type of ASD
Located on upper portion of atrial septum
What is an ASD/PFO Closure?
Closure of Ostium Secundum ASD
Requires transseptal approach
Uses ICE catheter
Which catheter allows for visualization of cardiac structures and requires venous access?
ICE Catheter
What is the formula for Qp/Qs Ratio?
Qp/Qs = AO O2 sat - MVO2 sat / PV O2 sat - PA O2 sat
Normal pH range?
7.35-7.45
Normal PaCO2 range?
35-45
Normal HCO3 range?
22-26
A pH < 7.35 is called what?
Acidosis
A pH > 7.45 is called what?
Alkalosis
An increased HCO3 ___________ pH
Raises
A decreased HCO3 ____________ pH
Decreases
A high CO2 _____________ pH
Decreases
A low CO2 _____________ pH
Increases
Where are collimators located on X-ray machine?
X-ray tube
The number of electrons fired from the cathode is referred to as?
mA
The penetrating power of the mA is referred to as?
KVp
_______ controls the contrast or the grey scale in a x-ray image
KVp
Abnormal development or growth of cells in the walls of the body’s arteries
Fibromuscular Dysplasia
The height of the table at which the object being imaged remains in the center of the field of view
Isocenter
X-ray coming out in short bursts
Fluoro
X-ray coming out continuously
Cine
Lead glasses contain ____mm of lead
0.75
Type of contrast used in the past. Caused nausea, vomiting and bradycardia
Renografin
The total concentration of solutes in a solution
Osmolality
Having a higher osmotic pressure than a particular fluid
Hypertonic
Which hormone helps blood vessels constrict and helps the kidneys control amount of water and salt in the body
Antidiuretic Hormone (ADH)
This medication lowers blood sugar levels by improving the way the body handles insulin
Metformin
This occurs when the catheter accidentally slips into a side artery near the Left Main and acts as a wedge pressure
Ventricularization
Septals and Diagonals belong to which artery?
LAD
Marginals belong to which artery?
Circumflex
The Conus, Acute Marginals and PDA belong to which artery?
RCA
Which artery runs down the interventricular septum?
LAD
Which artery runs through the left and right atrioventricular grooves?
Circumflex
Vessel that collects blood from the coronary veins and returns the blood directly into the RA
Coronary Sinus
This view is used to visualize the origins of the diagonals along the mid/distal LAD. Prox LAD/Cx usually overlapped
RAO Cranial
This view is used to visualize the Left Main, the prox LAD. One of the best views to visualize the Cx
RAU Caudal
In this view, the septals and diagonals are separated clearly
LAO Cranial
In this view, the Left Main and Left Main bifurcation is well visualized. Also referred to as “Spider View”
LAO Caudal
When looking at the RCA, which view best visualizes the prox RCA?
LAO
When looking at the RCA, which view best visualizes the PDA?
RAO Cranial
What is the average diameter of the Left Main?
4.5mm
What is the average diameter of the Circumflex?
3.4mm
What is the average diameter of the RCA?
2.8mm
Define Type II Aortic Dissection
Confined to the ascending aorta
Define Type III Aortic Dissection
Confined to the descending aorta
Define Type I Aortic Dissection
Involves the ascending aorta, aortic arch and descending aorta
Define Type A Aortic Dissection
Develops in the ascending part of the aorta just as it branches off of the heart
Define Type B Aortic Dissection
Involves a tear in the descending part of the aorta
If a thrombus occurs in the mesenteric artery, which organs are affected?
The intestines
1 atm = ______lbs/sq in
14.7
Uses light rather than sound to penetrate tissue and produce an image of the vessel
Optical Computerized Tomography (OCT)
This type of test requires Adenosine infusion and induces a hyperemic state
FFR
Mitral Valvuloplasty requires a ____________ approach
Transseptal
Aortic Valvuloplasty requires a __________ approach
Femoral Artery
Example of a mechanical thrombectomy device for PCI involving large thrombus burden
Anjojet
Procedure performed to remove atherosclerotic plaque from diseased arteries
Atherectomy
_____________ Atherectomy uses a burr that spins concentrically and is utilized mostly in calcified coronary arteries
Rotational
_____________ Atherectomy is utilized in peripheral cases only
Directional
_____________ Atherectomy uses a crown that orbits the wire and can be used in both coronary and peripheral procedures
Orbital
_____________ Atherectomy uses high energy light beam to vaporize the plaque. Requires everyone in the room to wear protective goggles
Laser
Left atrial appendage closure device. Prevents blood clots from escaping the area
Watchman
This device is known as an alternative to Coumadin for patients in Afib in order to prevent stroke
Watchman
This device is placed below the renal veins and is used to prevent blood clots from moving into the lungs causing a pulmonary embolism
Vena Cava Filter (IVC Filter)
This device eases the workload of the Left Ventricle
Impella
The IABP is located in the
Descending Aorta
The IABP inflates at the onset of cardiac ___________
Diastole
The IABP deflates at the onset of cardiac ____________
Systole
Most common cause of cold limb ischemia
Clot
The injection of alcohol to induce a controlled infarction of the hypertrophies septum
Septal Alcohol Ablation
The first letter in pacer coding stands for the chamber being ________
Paced
The second letter in pacer coding stands for the chamber bring __________
Sensed
The third letter in pacer coding stands for the chambers ___________
Response
Most common access site for Permanent Pacemakers
Left Subclavian
Most common access site for Temporary Pacers
RIJ or femoral vein
Post CABG, a temporary lead is sutured through the skin into the pericardium. What is this called?
Epicardial Pacing Wire
Normal MAP?
75-85 mmHg
What does MAP signify?
The amount of pressure needed to maintain cerebral perfusion
How do ACE Inhibitors work?
BP Medication. They make the Angiotensin converting enzyme inactive to prevent Angiotensin II from being formed
How do ARBs work?
Make Angiotensin II inactive to prevent it from telling the kidneys to retain salt
