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Test 2 > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

You may clear an aircraft for a low approach to a runway who’s surface is occupied, provided:

A
  • Specific instructions or restrictions are issued when required.
  • Relevant traffic information is exchanged.
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2
Q

After instructing the pilot to make a full-stop landing but before issuing a take-off clearance:

A
  • If you know the length of runway remaining, inform the pilot.
  • If you do not know the length of runway remaining, inform the pilot and ask whether a backtrack is required.
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3
Q

Touch and go is considered to be an
- arriving aircraft:
- departing aircraft:

A
  • arriving aircraft: until it lands
  • departing aircraft: after it lands
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4
Q

Stop and go is considered to be an
- arriving aircraft:
- departing aircraft:

A
  • arriving aircraft: Until it stops
  • departing aircraft: after it stops
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5
Q

Low approach is considered to be an
- arriving aircraft:
- departing aircraft:

A
  • arriving aircraft: until it crosses the runway threshold/ discontinues the approach
  • departing aircraft: after it crosses the runway threshold/ discontinues the approach
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6
Q

For an initial IFR clearance issued by a ground or clearance-delivery controller, you may omit requesting a readback, provided:

A
  • No changes have been made to the originally filed flight plan.
  • The clearance is issued by referring to a machine-printed strip or a video display of the flight plan.
  • The clearance includes a published SID.
  • No alternate instructions are included in the clearance.
  • The contents of the clearance are apparently understood.
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7
Q

When issuing or relaying an IFR clearance or IFR instruction or amendment, obtain an accurate readback unless one of the following applies:

A
  • Information is relayed electronically
  • An arrangement specifies otherwise
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8
Q

IFR clearance items

A
  1. Prefix/aircraft ID
  2. Clearance limit
  3. SID
  4. Route
  5. Altitude
  6. Speed
  7. Departure, enroute, approach, or holding instructions
  8. Special instructions or information, may include an SSR code
  9. Traffic information
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9
Q

March shall provide midtown ACC with …. when departing IFR aircrafts.
If the departure is departing from a non-primary runway …… must be passed ….

A

a secured departure sequence
the departure sequence
verbally via land line or hotline

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10
Q

Transfer communications of IFR departures to Midtown ACC on ….

A

119.4 as soon as practicable, but not before any local traffic conflict has been resolved

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11
Q

Phraseology over hotline when you cannot get IFR release from Midtown

A

REQUEST RELEASE (aircraft id) (RUNWAY id).

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12
Q

What actions do you take when pilot ask for push back on apron?

A
  • Inform the pilot that the pushback is at the pilot’s discretion
  • Provide traffic information if required
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13
Q

APREQ (approval request)

A

A request that must be made by all aircraft intending flight to a destination airport where flow control restrictions are in effect
(aka “call for release”)

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14
Q

GDP

A

Ground delay program

A procedure used to regulate the flow of traffic to a specific destination, or in the case of an Airspace Flow Program (AFP), through a specific airspace

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15
Q

GS

A

Ground stop

A procedure requiring aircraft that meet specific criteria to remain on the ground. The ground stop may be airport specific, related to geographical area, or equipment related

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16
Q

Runway identification light should be operated during the day when …

A
  • During the day when: visibility 5 miles or less, ceiling 1000ft or less
  • At least 5 min prior to the ETA of an aircraft
  • Until the aircraft has landed
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17
Q

Difference between precision and non precision approach

A

Precision approach:
an instrument approach by an aircraft using azimuth and glide path information.

Non-precision approach:
an instrument approach by an aircraft using azimuth information.

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18
Q

MDA

A

Minimum descent altitude

The altitude ASL specified in the Canada Air Pilot or Restricted Canada Air Pilot for a non-precision approach, below which descent is not to be made until the required visual reference necessary to continue the approach to land has been established.

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19
Q

Instrument Landing System (ILS) approach

A

(precision approach)

Provides the lateral and horizontal guidance
ILS consists of:
1) The localizer transmitter
2) The glide path transmitter
3) The approach lighting system
4) NDB

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20
Q

LNAV/RNAV/GNSS approach

A

(non-precision)

A published IFR approach coded and included in an aircraft’s navigation database and published in graphic and textual form to be used by aircraft appropriately equipped to conduct this approach
* powered by the same basic technology: GNSS
* aircraft uses fly-by waypoints

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21
Q

RNP approach

A

REQUIRED NAVIGATION PERFORMANCE
(non-precision)

RNP allows an aircraft to fly a specific path between two three dimensionally defined points in space.

RNAV (GNSS) and RNAV (RNP) systems are fundamentally similar. The key difference between them is the RNP requirement for on-board performance monitoring and alerting.

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22
Q

NDB approach

A

Non-directional beacon
(non-precision)

Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) in aircraft will continuously point at a tuned NDB, giving the pilot insight to the location of the NDB versus the aircraft.

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23
Q

VOR approach

A

VHF omnidirectional range
(non-precision)

VOR is a ground-based, short-distance navigation aid (NAVAID) which provides continuous azimuth information in the form of 360 usable radials to or from a station
* An aircraft would have a VOR instrument in the aircraft that can be used to track to or from the VOR

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24
Q

VISUAL APPROACH

A

An approach wherein an aircraft on an IFR flight plan, operating in visual meteorological conditions under the control of ATC and having ATC authorization, may proceed to the airport of destination

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25
Q

The ACC controller may clear an aircraft for a visual approach, provided:

A
  • (At the destination airport, the reported) ceiling is 500 feet or more above the minimum IFR altitude, and the ground visibility is 3 SM or more.
  • The aircraft is identified and receiving ATS surveillance service.
  • In single approaching aircraft situations: the pilot reports sighting the airport
  • In multiple approaching aircraft situations, one of the following conditions applies:
    -The pilot reports sighting the leading IFR traffic and confirms the type and position of the aircraft to be followed. The ACC controller instructs the pilot to follow the traffic to the same runway at a controlled airport
    -The pilot reports sighting the airport but not the leading IFR traffic. The terminal controller ensures that separation is maintained from leading traffic
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26
Q

Until you issue missed approach instructions, you should anticipate pilots conducting a go-around from a visual approach to …. unless the pilot requests ….

A

initially fly runway headings
a published missed approach procedure to the instrument approach that is:
* Acknowledged by the controller
* Advertised on the automatic terminal information service (ATIS)

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27
Q

Condition ACC controller must have to clear aircraft for contact approach:

A

*The pilot requests it.
*There is an approved functioning instrument approach, a published RNAV (GNSS), or a GNSS-overlay approach for the airport.
*The pilot is informed:
◦ When the destination airport has a published RNAV (GNSS) or a GNSS overlay approach as well as a ground-based NAVAID approach
◦ If the NAVAID approach is unavailable or unserviceable.

28
Q

What is pilot responsible for regarding weather minima when contact approach is requested?

A

Ensuring that the requested operation can be conducted clear of cloud with at least 1 mile flight visibility with a reasonable expectation of continuing to the destination in those conditions

29
Q

Transfer control of an IFR or CVFR aircraft to an adjacent sector or unit as follows:

A
  • So that control transfer occurs at the time of crossing the control area boundary as estimated by the sector or unit relinquishing control
  • At a specified time
  • When the aircraft is at specified altitude, fix, or location.

Relay the following to the receiving controller:
* The appropriate flight data and control information, including amendments
* Any information received from the pilot or operator concerning the aircraft’s fuel state or fuel reserves

Obtain the consent of the receiving controller.
Initiate control transfer or approve a request for control.

30
Q

Unless otherwise coordinated when is IFR control of aircraft transfer from centre to tower with no other coordination or agreements?

A

a. Unless otherwise coordinated, control of a departing IFR aircraft is transferred from the tower to the IFR unit as soon as the aircraft is airborne

b. Unless otherwise coordinated, control of an arriving IFR aircraft is transferred from the IFR unit to the tower as soon as the aircraft lands

31
Q

You may assume control of an arriving IFR aircraft provided:

A
  • A ceiling of not less than 1000 feet and visibility of not less than 3 miles are reported at the airport.
  • The pilot has been cleared for an approach and intends to land, full stop.
  • The aircraft is within the control zone and is either:
    ◦ At a position agreed upon by you and the ACC when you requested control
    ◦ Established on the final leg, and transfer of control occurs in accordance with an arrangement
  • You have done one of the following:
    ◦ Sighted the aircraft, and are satisfied that it will remain in sight and not have to return to IFR conditions
    ◦ Observed the aircraft on situation display on the final leg, and determined that the aircraft is operating in VMC
  • You ensure the aircraft remains in the control zone.
32
Q

What happens if aircraft is flying IFR in VFR weather wants to cancel IFR, what do you have to do and say?

A
  • If VFR flight is not permitted due to airspace classification or weather conditions:
    ◦ Inform the pilot.
    ◦ If appropriate, pass the most recent weather sequence.
    ◦ Ask intentions.
  • Acknowledge the cancellation.
  • A pilot’s decision to cancel an IFR flight plan or itinerary, or change to a VFR flight plan or itinerary, is not subject to ATC approval.
  • Ask whether the pilot is closing the IFR flight plan or itinerary, and respond as indicated below.
  • Advise the ACC who will discontinue IFR separation, but continue IFR alerting service until the aircraft closes its IFR flight plan or itinerary.
33
Q

If your ILS malfunction, who should you tell?

A

Promptly relay the report to:
* other concerned aircraft
* other concerned ATS units and positions
* the TOCC (Technical Operations Coordination Centre), as appropriate

34
Q

What can an aircraft do to avoid wake turbulence when taking off behind a heavier departure?

A

Behind a heavier departure, a departure could lift off before the rotation point and climb above the flight path of the leading aircraft.

35
Q

Wake turbulence cautionary, issue cautionary in any of these situations:

A
  • Light behind Medium departing same position
  • Departing from same intersection, in opposite direction, as heavier aircraft
  • 2nd departing at intersection passed by heavier aircraft, opposite direction, heavier aircraft rotates beyond intersection of 2nd aircraft
  • Any low approach/ pull up less than 2 min behind heavy departure, or light low approach/pull up behind medium departure
  • Sequencing VFR aircraft or allowing them to turn final behind a heavier arrival OR passing traffic to establish visual separation between VFR lights and heavier aircraft
36
Q

3 mins wake turbulence delay situations:

A
  • Intersection departures in front of departed heavier aircraft
  • Opposite runway departure/missed approach/low approach
  • Any departures behind heavy missed approach/low approach
  • Light departure behind medium missed approach/low approach
37
Q

2 mins wake turbulence delay situations:

A
  • Any departure behind heavy aircraft at the same spot
  • Any departure behind heavy on parallel runway more than 2500 ft apart on a crossing path
38
Q

Cannot waive wake turbulence delays:

A
  • Same/opposite direction, medium/light departing behind Super departure/ miss approach / low approach
  • M/L departures intersection departure after heavy departure
  • M/L departure behind heavy missed approach/ low approach
  • M/L departure in opposite direction behind heavy departure/ missed approach/ low approach
39
Q

Can waive wake turbulence delays:

A
  • Light behind Medium
  • L/M behind heavy departing from the same spot, same direction
40
Q

Wake separation, special wake situations for helicopter:

A

Issue a cautionary for helicopters that are within 2500 feet of the active runway where heavier aircraft are operating and either:
- Operating entirely over the non manoeuvring area
- Operating over the manoeuvring area and expected to avoid the vortex zone of a heavier aircraft operating on an active runway

Apply wake turbulence separation for air taxiing, hovering, or departing helicopters that are both:
* Operating over the manoeuvring area within 2500 feet from the active runway
* Expected to enter the vortex zone of a heavier aircraft

41
Q

Airborne wake separation behind super:
Super:
Heavy:
Medium:
Light:

A

Super: 4 miles
Heavy: 6 miles
Medium: 7 miles
Light: 8 miles

42
Q

Airborne wake separation behind heavy:
Super:
Heavy:
Medium:
Light:

A

Super: 4 miles
Heavy: 4 miles
Medium: 5 miles
Light: 6 miles

43
Q

Airborne wake separation behind medium:
Super:
Heavy:
Medium:
Light:

A

Super: n/a
Heavy: n/a
Medium: n/a
Light: 4 miles

44
Q

You may approve a break by an Aurora/Orion aircraft, provided:

A
  • No light or medium aircraft is in the circuit.
  • You do not clear a light or medium aircraft to fly through the area where the break was performed until 2 minutes after the break is completed.
45
Q

Provide airport control service to:

A
  • Airport traffic operating on the manoeuvring area
  • VFR aircraft operating within the control zone or TRA
  • IFR aircraft for which the tower has control responsibility
46
Q

Forward PIREPs to:

A
  • Position designated to disseminate weather information if applicable
  • If weather is of significance, to:
    • Concerned pilots
    • Appropriate FIC
    • Other concerned sectors/units
47
Q

If communicating with two aircraft with similar callsigns. What can you do?

A

Advise each of the aircraft concerned of the other’s presence.

If further clarification is required, do one of the following:
- For emphasis, restate the telephony designator of the aircraft after the flight number
- Add the type of aircraft to the call sign
- Instruct one of the pilots to use the aircraft’s registration
- Instruct one of the pilots to use the telephony designator followed by at least the last two characters of the aircraft registration

48
Q

Strategies to avoid runway incursion

A
  • Get the readback.
  • Scan the manoeuvring area continuously.
  • Give short taxi instructions.
  • Know who the unfamiliar pilot is and provide him with continuing direction as he progresses on the airport. The pilot might request this as “progressive taxi”.
  • Give specific clearances. Do not use conditional instruction
  • Always use a clear unambiguous method to indicate that a runway is temporarily obstructed.
  • When practical, issue the initial IFR clearance before the aircraft begins to taxi.
  • Issue the runway designator when authorizing a runway crossing or when issuing a hold short instruction for any runway. This includes runways that are not in use.
  • Use extreme caution when directing aircraft to oblique or angled taxiways that limit the ability of the flight crew to see the landing runway threshold or final approach area.
49
Q

When must you state to the pilot where they are departing from when giving clearance?

A

State the position from which the take-off roll will commence if an aircraft takes off from any of the following:
* A taxiway intersection
* A runway intersection
* The threshold when another entry point for the same runway is also in use

50
Q

For successive arrivals on the same runway, you may authorize the second aircraft to land, provided that one of the following applies …

A

before the second aircraft crosses the landing threshold:
* The first aircraft has landed and taxied off the runway.
* The first aircraft has landed or is over the landing runway, and the following conditions apply:
o The first aircraft is at a sufficient distance from the threshold to allow the second aircraft to safely complete its landing roll.
o The first aircraft will taxi off the runway without stopping or backtracking.
o The pilot of the second aircraft has been advised of the first aircraft’s position and intentions.

51
Q

What restriction you’re not allowed to use regarding altitude restriction and terrain clearance?

A

Do not apply altitude restrictions that contravene terrain clearance requirements

52
Q

Take off clearance for helicopter, traffic passing is required, what will clearance be?

A

GALT, traffic departing runway 09, Cherokee. Remain south of runway 09, west bound departure, wind 090 at 15, take off at your discretion, main apron.

53
Q

When giving IFR clearance and full read back is not required what does pilot have to say?

A

squawk and callsign

54
Q

If you have IFR on visual approach, they can’t land because they are too high, pilot has to pull up, what must you do as controller?

A

ISSUE NECESSARY CLEARANCES AND INSTRUCTIONS TO ENSURE THAT SEPARATION IS PROVIDED FROM OTHER AIRPORT TRAFFIC

Until you issue missed approach instructions, you should anticipate pilots conducting a go-around from a visual approach to initially fly runway headings unless the pilot requests a published missed approach procedure to the instrument approach that is:
* Acknowledged by the controller
* Advertised on the automatic terminal information service (ATIS)

55
Q

What piece of info concerning IFR aircraft does tower controller not need to inform IFR unit if EXCDS is not available?

A

Answer: C
Special VFR implementation time

56
Q

Define prevailing visibility

A

The maximum visibility common to sectors comprising at least one half of the horizon circle

57
Q

In March, You may clear an aircraft for a Low Approach to a runway who’s surface is occupied, provided …

A

that an altitude restriction of NOT BELOW 1300 ASL (500 AGL) is issued to the pilot and that relevant traffic information is exchanged to both the aircraft and the aircraft/vehicle(s) on the runway.

58
Q

Tower controller may assign indicated airspeed to establish separation.
True or false

A

False

59
Q

Explain critical phases of flight and why are they critical?

A
  • Take off and landings are the most critical phases of flight.
  • Aircraft is on approach or departure under 500 ft AGL
  • Pilot’s workload increase considerably during this time
  • The controller should contact a pilot during a critical phase only for a potentially dangerous situation
60
Q

Speed adjustment, specifically as tower controller you may assign speed adjustment to IFR aircraft only if these apply:

A
  • You have assumed responsibility for control.
  • Coordination has been effected with the ACC.
61
Q

When do you operate of runway edge and centerline light for arriving aircraft?

A
  • At least 5 minutes before the ETA of an aircraft
  • Until the aircraft has taxied clear of the runway
    (During daylight hours, they do not have to be on when ceiling is 1000ft or higher and visibility is 3 miles or more)
62
Q

When do you operate of runway edge and centerline light for departing aircraft?

A
  • Before the aircraft enters the runway
  • Until at least 3 mins after departure
    (During daylight hours, they do not have to be on when ceiling is 1000ft or higher and visibility is 3 miles or more)
63
Q

When do you operate taxiway lights?

A
  • At night
  • During the day when visibility is 3 miles or less
64
Q

Issuing and relaying IFR clearance to departing aircraft, when should you deliver initial clearance?

A

Before aircraft gets onto the runway

65
Q

Who’s in charge for separation: IFR aircraft inbound on rainy day at March, below weather minima for auto-overs, does Midtown have sole control?

A

Yes

66
Q

What is the requirements for auto-overs in March?

A

Ceiling 2500 ft or more, visibility 5 SM or more

Test 2 (1 decks)

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