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NBME > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

nitroprusside effects on preload and afterload

A

decreased afterload only

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2
Q

chronic alcohol abuse affect on NAPQI production

A

increased due to induction

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3
Q

ipsilateral oculomotor nerve palsy
contalateral hemiparesis

A

weber syndrome (midbrain)

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4
Q

DL thalamus lesion causes what syndrome?

A

thalamic pain syndrome

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5
Q

ureters cross OVER the ___ ___ arteries

A

common iliac

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6
Q

ALS associated with ___ ___ ___ ___ deficiency

A

zinc copper superoxide dismutase

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7
Q

loss of all but posterior columns = ___ occlusion

A

ASA

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8
Q

vertical gaze palsy = ___ lesion

A

midbrain (posterior)

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9
Q

CN VI palsy = ___ ___ lesion

A

medial pontine

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10
Q

lateral pontine lesion presentation

A

vertigo and nystagmus

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11
Q

lateral pontine lesion = ___ stroke

A

AICA

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12
Q

medial medullary syndrome = ___ occlusion

A

ASA

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13
Q

midbrain stroke = ___ lesion

A

PCA

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14
Q

medial pontine stroke = ___ lesion

A

basilar

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15
Q

4 S of brainstem strokes

A

sympathetic
spinothalamic
sensory (CN V)
spinocerebellar

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16
Q

VL thalamus

A

motor

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17
Q

MGN thalamus

A

hearing

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18
Q

VPL + VPM thalamus

A

sensory

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19
Q

VM hypothalamus lesion

A

obesity

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20
Q

AT associated with ___ repair defects

A

NHEJ

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21
Q

IGF-1 leads to ___ ___

A

insulin resistance

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22
Q

inflammation/CD affects the integrity of ___ ___

A

tight junctions

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23
Q

tenderness, full range of motion DDx

A

bursitis

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24
Q

increased VLCFA levels DDx

A

zellweger syndrome
(absent peroxisomes)

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25
Q

MELAS is a ___ disorder

A

mitochondrial

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26
Q

familial hyperchylomicronemia is due to a defect in ___

A

LPL

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27
Q

higher prevalence in men vs women

A

due to longer duration in women

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28
Q

most predominant cell in allergic rhinitis

A

eosinophils

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29
Q

type I error

A

saying there IS a difference when once does NOT exist (false positive)

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30
Q

increased CVP, PCWP
decreased PP

A

decreased contractility

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31
Q

burn victims have ___ nutritional requirements

A

increased

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32
Q

___ increases the concentration of binding proteins (TH, SHBG, etc)

A

estrogen

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33
Q

2 common causes of secondary polycythemia

A

COPD
obstructive sleep apnea

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34
Q

study measuring noise levels throughout factory

A

cross-sectional

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35
Q

increased tactile fremitus = ___

A

consolidation

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36
Q

thrombocytopenia
normal platelet count, no anemia

DDx?

A

ITP

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37
Q

tubocurarine MOA

A

postsynaptic antagonist
non-depolarizing

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38
Q

gastric volvulus often caused by ___ ___

A

paraesophageal hernia

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39
Q

decubitus ulcers caused by ___

A

pressure

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40
Q

muscle to laterally rotate thigh

A

piriformis

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41
Q

___ causes gastric secretion, ___ causes motility

A

Ach
motilin

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42
Q

PTEN gene

A

tumor suppressor

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43
Q

metencephalon

A

pons
cerebellum
4th ventricle

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44
Q

telencephalon

A

hemispheres
lateral ventricles

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45
Q

mesencephalon

A

midbrain
CA

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46
Q

____ due to gaps in the endothelium

A

extravasation (not vasodilation)

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47
Q

GERD MOA

A

vagal relaxation of LES

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48
Q

angiotensin II created where?

A

pulmonary vasculature

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49
Q

___ leads to mosaicism in TS

A

nondisjunction

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50
Q

loss of heterozygosity means what?

A

second hit for 2-hit hypothesis

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51
Q

___ ___ can present with flank bruising

A

acute pancreatitis

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52
Q

diffuse muscle pain after starting rituximab due to what?

A

CD20 cytokine release

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53
Q

methylation is a means of ___

A

imprinting

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54
Q

what cells generate andrestendione?

A

theca interna cells

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55
Q

in what phase do all cellular components and enzymes (except chromosomes) become duplicated?

A

G1

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56
Q

chromosomal duplication occurs in what phase?

A

S

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57
Q

a ___ ___ would be present on subclavian steal syndrome

A

supraclavicular bruit

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58
Q

saturation = ___ clearance

A

decreased
(all others increased)

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59
Q

HW for AR condition

A

do not square root
solve for 2pq

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60
Q

reduced arterial O2 content
normal PaO2

A

anemia

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61
Q

drug that inhibits platelet interaction with fibrinogen

A

abcixumab

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62
Q

autoimmune thyroid hyperplasia also known as what?

A

graves

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63
Q

female who has never menstruated
female genitals

DDx?

A

XY male with androgen insensitivity

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64
Q

___ deficiency causes corneal vascularization

A

B2

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65
Q

where does viagra work on your peen?

A

corpus cavernosum (2 eyes)

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66
Q

untreated COPD = ___ airway resistance

A

increased

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67
Q

explain anaerobic respiration

A

replaces NAD+ by producing lactate

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68
Q

cerebellar dysfunction and chronic headaches = ___ abuse

A

inhalant

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69
Q

when does recombination occur?

A

prophase I

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70
Q

bladder, cervix, and prostate drain into the ___ ___ nodes

A

internal iliac

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71
Q

___ deficiency increases risk for mycobacterial and salmonella infections

A

INF-Y

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72
Q

pulseless leg = ___ occlusion

A

arterial

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73
Q

muscular weakness
vision loss
seizures
lactic acidosis

DDx?

A

MELAS (mitochondrial tRNA)

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74
Q

___ dysfunction implicated in parkinson and alzheimer disease

A

proteasome

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75
Q

acatalasia is a ___ disorder

A

peroxisome

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76
Q

axon regeneration uses ___ transport

A

anterograde (slow)

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77
Q

chances of being carrier for AR condition

A

2/3

78
Q

retinitis pigmentosum seen in ___

A

abetalipoproteinemia

79
Q

ApoE4 deficiency

A

atherosclerosis

80
Q

complex II = ___ ___

A

succinate dehydrogenase

81
Q

secondary gallstone Tx

A

ursodiol
(decreases cholesterol secretion)

82
Q

S4 means what?

A

impaired ventricular relaxation

83
Q

purine nucleotide synthesis uses ___ as a N donor

A

glutamine

84
Q

intracellular yeast

A

histo

85
Q

explanation for different drug effectiveness among patients

A

polymorphisms

86
Q

___ exposure increases risk for AML

A

benzene

87
Q

pneumocystis found in populations with decreased ___ counts

A

CD4

88
Q

nuclear hormones have ___ ___ ___

A

DNA binding domains

89
Q

dysgerminomas secrete ___ and ___

A

hCG
LDH

90
Q

red diploid shape
pulmonary effusion
immunodeficient

A

pulmonary cryptococcosis

91
Q

SLE is associated with ___ mutations

A

c1q

92
Q

how to calculate total body water

A

x kg * 70 mL/kg

93
Q

increased jugular venous pressure seen in what general condition?

A

HF

94
Q

a carotid bruit suggests ___

A

atherosclerosis

95
Q

p = .01 means

A

by chance or error, the results might occur 1% of the time

(probability of type I error)

96
Q

increased LDL = ___ ___ by the liver

A

decreased clearance

97
Q

at high concentrations (100), MM pharmokinetics will be ___ ___

A

zero order (constant)

98
Q

at low concentrations (100), MM pharmokinetics will be ___ ___

A

first order

99
Q

perform thoracocentesis ___ ribs below

A

2

100
Q

DS is associated with ___ pregnancy plasma protein and ___ BhCG

A

decreased
increased

101
Q

segmental transmural necrotizing arteritis

A

PN

102
Q

a mutation at the ___ ___ ___ ___ would prevent a plasmid from replicating

A

origin of DNA synthesis

103
Q

shine delgarno or kozak consensus sequence are examples of ___ ___ ___

A

ribosome binding sites

104
Q

___ sites contain restriction enzyme target sites

A

multicloning

105
Q

glucagon stimulates ___ and glycogenolysis

A

gluconeogenesis

106
Q

XX embryo with male genitals due to ___ ___

A

SRY translocation

107
Q

___ exposure has been linked to hypospadias

A

progestin

108
Q

number of mitoses per area describes tumor ___

A

grading

109
Q

amastigotes within macrophages

A

leishmaniasis

110
Q

onchocerca volvulus causes ___ ___

A

river blindness

111
Q

suramin and melarsepral treat ___

A

trypanosoma brucei

112
Q

trypanosoma brucei region

A

aftrica (sleeping sickness)

113
Q

trypanosoma cruzi region

A

south america

114
Q

albino, neutrophil giant granules

A

chediak-higashi

115
Q

bind same site as agonist but have decreased efficacy when full agonist is currently bound

A

partial agonist

116
Q

cortical thickening creating picture frame bone

A

paget disease

117
Q

epidermolysis bullosa causes blistering due to ___ ___ defect

A

anchoring fibril
(type VII collagen)

118
Q

vibrio vs HAV

A

no jaundice

119
Q

ketogenesis is ___ by glucagon

A

increased

120
Q

what is the function of long terminal repeats in HIV DNA?

A

LTRs help with integration into host

121
Q

LFA-1 is an integrin important for what neutrophil process?

A

adhesion to endothelium

122
Q

low ___ ___, ___ ___, and ___ ___ will increase the speed of anesthesia induction

A

blood solubility
cardiac output
minute ventilation

123
Q

anesthetic potency depends on ___ ___

A

lipid solubility

124
Q

MCFA supplementation is the Tx for ___ ___ deficiency

A

VLCFA dehydrogenase

125
Q

corticosteroids regulated ___

A

PLA2

126
Q

destruction of vertebral bodies/intervertebral discs without any other symptoms = suspect ___

A

TB (pott disease)

127
Q

AA change = suspect ___ mutation

A

missense

128
Q

LPS binds ___ on neutrophil surfaces

A

TLRs

129
Q

female with HTN and no other symptoms = always suspect ___

A

FMD

130
Q

portosystemic shunt causing esophageal varices include the ___ ___ and ___ veins

A

left gastric
azygos

131
Q

a transjugular intrahepatic portal shunt uses the ___ and ___ veins

A

portal
hepatic

132
Q

how does hereditary hemorrhagic telangectasia cause hypoxia

A

pulmonary AV shunting

133
Q

signs of hereditary hemorrhagic telangectasia

A

chronic hypoxia
mucosal telangectasia
digital clubbing

134
Q

complex partial vs absence seizures

A

grimacing or lip smacking in addition to staring off into space

135
Q

ratio to determine oxidative damage status of the liver

A

GSH:GSSG
(GSH is the reduced form)

136
Q

the primitive streak, notochord, and neural plate are present at ___ weeks

A

3

137
Q

coughing, wheezing, rapid breathing in young child with viral URI = suspect ___

A

asthma

138
Q

___ is used to produce ammonia in the tubules

A

glutamine

139
Q

___ is a better buffer for H+ than ___

A

deoxyHb
oxyHb

140
Q

attributable risk =

A

X - Y

141
Q

___ allows for efficient neutrophilic killing of bacteria

A

HOCl

142
Q

neostigmine overdose can lead to what?

A

desensitization of nAchR

143
Q

oxytocin activates what kind of receptor?

A

ligand-gated Ca channels
(rhodopsin GPCR)

144
Q

how to decrease the trough concentration?

A

increase time between doses

145
Q

low leptin levels = ___ person

A

obese

146
Q

___ require carnitine acylcarnatine translocase to enter the mitochondria

A

VLCFAs

(Tx with MCFAs)

147
Q

choristoma example

A

meckel diverticulum

148
Q

___ ___ is due to abnormal targeting of enzymes to lysosomes

A

I-cell disease

149
Q

fever, rash, and hepatitis a couple weeks after transplant = suspect ___

A

GVHD

150
Q

nested studies take ___ studies and turn them into ___ studies

A

case-control
cohort

151
Q

a ___ study entails multiple interventions being trialed simultaneously

A

factorial

152
Q

sarcoidosis shows a ___ pattern

A

restrictive

153
Q

mycosis fungoides is a form of ___ cell ___

A

T cell lymphoma

154
Q

why can younger people concentrate urine much better during deprivation than older people?

A

responsiveness to ADH

155
Q

where are the para-aortic lymph nodes located in women?

A

alongside ovarian vessels (infundibulopelvic ligament)

156
Q

In order to produce more ECM, ___ mRNA levels would be expected to rise

A

fibronectin

157
Q

NF-KB can be activated by ___

A

TNF-a

158
Q

presbyopia entails lens ___ and loss of ___

A

hardening
accomodation (near vision)

159
Q

presbyopia is treated by glasses with positive ___ power

A

dioptric

160
Q

I have ___ because I can’t see things at a distance

A

myopia

161
Q

myopia is ___ (sizing) and ___ (location)

A

longer
anterior

162
Q

how is myopia treated

A

glasses with negative dioptric power

163
Q

how to increase ICP

A

decrease ventilation rate (increase PaCO2)

164
Q

hypophosphatasia explained

A

alkaline phosphatase defect

165
Q

___ ___ is depleted by capsaicin (TRPV1 receptors)

A

substance P

166
Q

___, ___, and ___ promote vasodilation in the innate immune response

A

histamine
PGE2
bradykinin

167
Q

what cells are part of acute transplant rejection

A

CD8+

168
Q

what cells are part of chronic transplant rejection

A

CD4+

169
Q

tremor can be caused by what Rx?

A

albuterol (beta agonist)

170
Q

beta antagonists can cause ___ (description of skin)

A

pallor

171
Q

___ causes tachypnea during preganancy
What function does this serve?

A

progesterone
(release fetal CO2)

172
Q

aripiprazole is a ___ ___ for the D2 receptor

A

partial agonist

173
Q

beta blockers decrease HR by decreasing the rate of ___ ___ in the SA and AV nodes

A

diastolic depolarization

174
Q

utilization of host ribosomes is required for what virus?

A

Coronavirus

175
Q

AS in a younger patient (40-60) is likely due to a ___ or ___ cause

A

congenital
rheumatic

176
Q

how is paget disease differentiated from hyperparathyroidism?

A

normal Ca, PO4, and PTH levels in paget disease

177
Q

Decreased total T4, normal TSH and free T4
Cause?

A

decreased TBG

178
Q

hypotension cause for patient on CA inhibitor

A

volume loss due to diuresis

179
Q

example of hydroxy halide crystals

A

HOCl (respiratory burst)

180
Q

assembly of viral particles into mature viral capsules is inhibited by ___ ___

A

protease inhibitors

181
Q

homozygous for the deletion of survival motor neuron 1 gene (SMN1)

What disease

A

spinal muscular atrophy (AR)

182
Q

rett syndrome inheritance

A

XLD

183
Q

what artery supplies the cecum?

A

SMA

184
Q

steroid sulfatase deficiency presents with what?

A

scaling

185
Q

fever, then rash

A

HHV-6 (roseola)

186
Q

large worms in the shit

A

ascaris lumbricoides

187
Q

Apo_ mutations lead to decreased HDL

A

ApoA

188
Q

___ cells can give rise to skeletal muscle cells

A

satellite

189
Q

astrocytes store ___

A

glycogen

190
Q

type ___ collagen is found in skeletal muscle ECM

A

VI

191
Q

menstruation is due to endometrial ___

A

ischemia

192
Q

Pb inhibits ALA ___

A

dehydratase

NBME (1 decks)

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