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1
Q

If not already in a NOTAM, inform pilots of the following available aerodrome conditions that may affect their safety:

A
  • New and pertinent information that differs from the current ATIS message
  • Construction or maintenance work on or near the manoeuvring area
  • Rough, flooded, or slippery parts of the manoeuvring area, and braking action (including Canadian Runway Friction Index [CRFI], if it differs from ATIS information) reports
  • Unserviceability or malfunction of any aerodrome equipment, such as the aerodrome lighting system
  • Wildlife and bird activity
  • Other pertinent conditions
  • Obstructions or debris on or near the manoeuvring area, for example, dry snow, piles of snow, fragments of blown tires, rocks, or branches
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2
Q

Provide airport control service to:

A
  • Airport traffic operating on the manoeuvring area
  • VFR aircraft operating within the control zone or TRA
  • IFR aircraft for which the tower has control responsibility
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3
Q

Provide air traffic services to aircraft on a “first come, first served” basis, and give priority as indicated below and in the following sections.
Give priority to:

A
  1. A pilot who declares an emergency
  2. An aircraft that appears to be in a state of emergency, but is apparently unable to inform you
  3. A pilot who reports the aircraft may be compelled to land because of factors affecting the safe operation of the aircraft, other than minimum fuel or a fuel emergency
  4. Medical evacuation flights
  5. Military or civilian aircraft identified by the radiotelephony call sign RESCUE and the designator RSCU followed by an appropriate flight number
  6. Open Skies Treaty flights with designators F and D
  7. Military aircraft departing on either operational air defence flights or planned and coordinated air defence exercises, unless an emergency condition prevails or may be caused by the departure
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4
Q

How is medevac displayed?

A

Indicated by red (+) symbol

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5
Q

How is hospital transfer and US military (air evac) flights priority granted?

A

Flights are granted priority on request

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6
Q

SAR time
VFR flight plan:
VFR flight itinerary:
IFR flight plan:
IFR flight itinerary:

A

VFR flight plan: 1 hr
VFR flight itinerary: 24 hrs
IFR flight plan: 1 hr
IFR flight itinerary: 24 hrs

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7
Q

What will happen is pilot fails to close a flight plan or flight itinerary

A

will initiate SAR action

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8
Q

When must pilot close
Flight plan:
Flight itinerary:

A

Flight plan:
an arrival report for a flight plan shall be submitted to an ATC unit, an FSS (or a FIC) or a CARS as soon as practicable after landing but not later than:
(a) the SAR time specified in the flight plan; or
(b) where no SAR time is specified in the flight plan, one hour after the last reported ETA.

Flight itinerary:
ensure that an arrival report is filed with an ATC unit, an FSS (or a FIC), a CARS, or, where the flight itinerary was filed with a responsible person, the responsible person as soon as practicable after landing but not later than: (a) the SAR time specified in the flight itinerary; or
(b) where no SAR time was specified in the flight itinerary, 24 hours after the last reported ETA.

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9
Q

Base wildlife or bird activity information on any of the following:

A
  • A visual observation
  • A pilot report
  • A report from other reliable sources
  • Observation of targets on a situation display confirmed by a visual observation or a pilot report
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10
Q

Define movement area

A

The part of an aerodrome intended to be used for the surface movement of aircraft and that includes the manoeuvring area and aprons.

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11
Q

Define manoeuvring area

A

The part of an aerodrome, other than an apron, that is intended to be used for the takeoff and landing of aircraft and for the movement of aircraft associated with takeoff and landing

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12
Q

2 conditions controller must issue airport information even if ATIS is In broadcast:

A
  • Pilot does not acknowledge receipt of the current ATIS broadcast on initial contact
  • ATIS message cannot be kept current due to rapidly changing conditions
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13
Q

What is included in ATIS? (name the 9 things in order)

A
  1. Aerodrome name
  2. Message code letter
  3. Weather information
  4. Type of instrument approach in use, including information on simultaneous parallel or converging operations
  5. Landing runway (both IFR and VFR, including information on hold short operations and the stopping distance available)
  6. Departing runway (both IFR and VFR)
  7. Aerodrome conditions that may affect the arrival or departure of aircraft (RSC/ CRFI/ bird activity)
  8. Restriction/ suspension of landings or takeoffs
  9. Instruction that aircraft are to acknowledge receipt of the ATIS broadcast on initial contact with the ATS Unit.
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14
Q

Record a new ATIS message if any of the following occurs:

A
  • A new METAR or SPECI is received.
  • An applicable SIGMET, AIRMET or PIREP is received, updated, or cancelled.
  • The altimeter setting changes by ± 0.04 inches or more since the last recorded altimeter data.
  • The type of IFR approach is changed.
  • A runway is changed.
  • An applicable NOTAM is received, updated, or cancelled.
  • A change in runway conditions is reported.
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15
Q

If the ATIS message cannot be kept current due to ………., record ………

A

rapidly changing conditions
a message that all or part of the information will be issued by the unit

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16
Q

Difference between runway ownership and runway occupancy

A

Runway ownership:
- Tower/Ground can only give ownership of a runway, never take it. Controller do not need permission to use the runway they own.
- Indicate runway ownership (tower or ground) on EXCDS (status bar turns red when giving ownership away/ activate RODS)
Runway occupancy:
- Use of a runway that the controller does not own with permission & coordination with the other controller
- ground controller must coordinate with the tower controller any time they want to use an active runway belonging to the tower controller, such as to allow an aircraft or vehicle to cross it or use it for another reason, RODS are activated for the duration of this activity

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17
Q

Steps when relieving another controller from an operating position: (9)

A
  1. If the position is equipped with an electronic log‑on system that records time preparing to accept responsibility for the control position, and time on duty in the position, log on according to unit directives.
  2. Observe operational situations and equipment
  3. Listen to communications.
  4. Observe current and pending traffic.
  5. Verify the position relief checklist.
  6. Correlate information.
  7. Inform the controller being relieved that the position has been reviewed and request a verbal briefing.
  8. Exchange all pertinent data and ask questions, as appropriate, to ensure understanding.
  9. After the verbal briefing, state, or otherwise indicate clearly to the controller being relieved, that position responsibility has been transferred.
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18
Q

When being relieved from your operating position:

A
  • Provide a verbal briefing to the relieving controller using the position transfer checklist.
  • If the communication system permits, record the verbal briefing.
  • Remain with the relieving controller for monitoring purposes.
  • When combining a position, perform the post‑relief overlap procedures at the position where the operation was combined.
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19
Q

During position relief, the controller being relieved is responsible for the position until:

A

the relieving controller is confident that they have all the information they need about the traffic situation and officially accept responsibility for the position.

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20
Q

Calm-wind runways offer operational advantage because: (4)

A
  • Their length
  • The approach (often due to Wx)
  • Taxi distance
  • Noise abatement
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21
Q

List the relation between windsock indicator angle and windspeed (3)

A

Horizontal: 15 knots or above
5 degree below horizontal: 10 knots
30 degree below horizontal: 6 knots

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22
Q

You may assign a runway with a tailwind component provided:

A
  • Runway is dry
  • You indicate the wind direction and speed to the pilot
  • The tailwind component, including gust, does not exceed 5 knots
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23
Q

When can you omit the unit name and or function?

A

Once communication is established with a pilot, you may:
* If your position has only one function and there is no likelihood of misunderstanding, you may omit the unit name and function.
* If your position has more than one function, you may omit the unit name, but must state the function in each transmission.

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24
Q

When/ how can you abbreviate aircraft call signs?

A

Telephony designator + last 4 characters of registration: shorten to, telephony designator + last 2 characters of registration

Private/ without telephony designator: shorten to last 3 characters of registration

Wake category suffixes HEAVY/ SUPER may be omitted (after initial contact)

25
Q

Altitude and speed restriction of air taxi:

A

The movement of a helicopter or vertical takeoff and landing aircraft (VTOL) above the surface of an aerodrome but normally not above 100 | ft AGL.
The aircraft may proceed via flight at airspeeds of more than 20 kt.

26
Q

Phraseology for departure from E apron southbound for helicopter, Rwy 09 active

A

“Alpha Lima Tango, Southbound departure, remain south of runway 09, takeoff your discretion east apron”

27
Q

Performance characteristics differences between helicopter and fixed wing:

A
  • Speed (some types are faster than some light single aircraft)
  • Circuit width is generally smaller
  • Take-off procedures
  • Landing procedures (including the approach)
  • Wake turbulence
  • Hovering capability (or capability to reduce speed significantly)
  • Autorotation
28
Q

What is code 60?

A

Area other than a published runway within the airport boundary

29
Q

What is code 66?

A

Area within the control zone or TRA but outside the airport boundary

30
Q

During perception phase list events that can lead to lost of situational awareness

A

*Tunnel vision
* High workload
* Complex/detailed problems
* Distractions and interruptions
* Unaware of the impact/significance of changes
* Passive, complacent behavior

31
Q

PIREP should be relayed in the following format:

A
  • Position
  • Time
  • Altitude
  • Type of aircraft
  • Meteorological conditions observed
32
Q

Forward PIREPs to:

A
  • Position designated for disseminating weather information (if applicable)
  • Concerned pilots
  • Appropriate FIC
  • Other concerned sectors/ units
33
Q

Transfer of control of an aircraft between Tower and Ground Control positions is considered to have taken place as described below:
Departing aircraft:
Arriving aircraft:

A

Departing Aircraft:
Unless otherwise coordinated, the aircraft is holding short of the departure runway, communication transfer from Ground to Tower has taken place, and the FDE has been transferred to the receiving controller in EXCDS.

Arriving Aircraft:
When the aircraft has exited the active runway, and communication transfer from Air to Ground has taken place and the FDE has been transferred to the receiving controller in EXCDS.

34
Q

What is the phraseology for cancelling take off clearance?

A

“(aircraft id), TAKE-OFF CLEARANCE CANCELLED [reason]”
“(aircraft id), ABORT ABORT, (aircraft id), ABORT ABORT [reason]

35
Q

What methods are used to identify an aircraft?

A
  • Identification is transferred by a handoff.
  • The appropriate change in the PPS is observed after the aircraft is instructed to operate the aircraft’s transponder ident feature.
  • The appropriate change in the PPS is observed after the pilot is instructed to change from one code to another.
  • Instruct pilot to change transponder to “standby”
    ◦ After the pilot is instructed to change the transponder to “standby” the PPS disappears/changes to a PSR symbol.
    ◦ When the pilot is requested to return the transponder to normal operation, the PPS reappears/changes to an SSR symbol.
  • The position of the PPS is consistent with the position of the aircraft observed visually.
  • The aircraft is observed on situation display at a position that is:
    ◦ Within one mile of the departure end of the take-off runway
    ◦ Consistent with the time of takeoff and the route of flight or assigned heading of the aircraft
  • The aircraft’s position over a fix or an OMNI and DME NAVAID is consistent with a position report received directly from the pilot, and, aircraft’s track is consistent with the route of flight or reported heading of the aircraft.
  • The aircraft is observed on the situation display: Its position, relative to OMNI and DME NAVAIDs indicated on the situation display, is consistent with a position report received directly from the pilot in the form of a DME fix. Its track is observed to be consistent with the route of flight or reported heading of the aircraft
  • The aircraft carries out a specified identifying turn of at least 30°, and the following apply:
    ◦ Only one aircraft is observed to have carried out the specified turn.
    ◦ The track is observed to be consistent with the heading or track of the aircraft both before and after completion of the turn.
36
Q

For successive departures from the same runway, you may authorize the second aircraft to take off, provided that one of the following applies before the second aircraft begins its take-off roll:

A
  • The first aircraft has departed and turned to clear the departure path.
  • The first aircraft has departed and reached a point on the departure path where it will not conflict with the second aircraft.
37
Q

If the pilot chooses to land, take off, or manoeuvre without clearance and traffic permits:

A
  • Acknowledge the pilot’s intentions
  • Provide landing, take-off, or manoeuvring information (include wind/ altimeter/ traffic)
  • Notify the airport operator
  • Complete an Aviation Occurrence Report
38
Q

Release the aircraft from tower frequency without specifying another frequency in any of the following situations:

A
  • A VFR aircraft is leaving the control zone
  • An IFR aircraft has an assigned SID that contains
    communications transfer instructions
  • An IFR aircraft is leaving the control zone, and direct
    communications cannot be established on an IFR frequency
39
Q

Where it is necessary for the purposes of the operation in which the aircraft is engaged, a pilot-in-command may operate an aircraft at an altitude of less than 2,000 feet over an aerodrome, where it is being operated:

A

(a) in the service of a police authority
(b) for the purpose of saving human life
(c) for fire-fighting or air ambulance operations
(d) for the purpose of the administration of the Fisheries Act or the Coastal Fisheries Protection Act
(e) for the purpose of the administration of the national or provincial parks
(f) for the purpose of flight inspection
(g) for the purpose of aerial application or aerial inspection
(h) for the purpose of highway or city traffic patrol
(i) for the purpose of aerial photography conducted by the holder of an air operator certificate
(j) for the purpose of helicopter external load operations; or
(k) for the purpose of flight training conducted by the holder of a flight training unit operator certificate

40
Q

Except in the case of an aircraft performing an overhead break, what 2 conditions must be met to issue a clearance

A
  • You are satisfied that the aircraft is on approach to the correct runway.
  • The require runway separation exist
41
Q

If communicating with two or more aircraft that are using the same flight number or similar-sounding call signs, advise each of the aircraft concerned of the other’s presence.
If further clarification is required, do one of the following:

A
  • For emphasis, restate the telephony designator of the aircraft after the flight number.
  • Add the type of aircraft to the call sign
  • Instruct one of the pilots to use the aircraft’s registration.
  • Instruct one of the pilots to use the telephony designator followed by at least the last two characters of the aircraft registration
42
Q

Controller may use the following strategies to reduce runway incursions:

A

A. Get the readback.
B. Scan the manoeuvring area continuously.
C. Give short taxi instructions.
D. Know who the unfamiliar pilot is and provide him with continuing direction as he progresses on the airport. The pilot might request this as “progressive taxi”.
E. Give specific clearances. Do not use conditional instruction
F. Always use a clear unambiguous method to indicate that a runway is temporarily obstructed.
G. When practical, issue the initial IFR clearance before the aircraft begins to taxi.
H. Issue the runway designator when authorizing a runway crossing or when issuing a hold short instruction for any runway. This includes runways that are not in use.
I. Use extreme caution when directing aircraft to oblique or angled taxiways that limit the ability of the flight crew to see the landing runway threshold or final approach area.

43
Q

Define runway incursion

A

Any occurrence at an aerodrome involving the incorrect presence of an aircraft, vehicle, or person on the protected area of a surface designated for landing and takeoff of aircraft

44
Q

Before issuing clearances or instructions to airport traffic, and, to the extent possible, at frequent intervals, visually scan the manoeuvring area thoroughly, as follows:

A
  • Be systematic.
  • Scan at least twice to overcome “object hypnosis” (seeing only things that move).
  • Move your eyes from one point to another (rather than in one continuous sweep).
  • Scan from left to right.
  • Be aware that you can only focus on a small area at a time (approximately the area that would be covered by your fist when your arm is extended in front of you).
45
Q

Scanning the Runway and RPA
Before a departing aircraft begins its take-off roll or a landing aircraft crosses the runway threshold ….

A

ensure that the runway and the RPA are free, or will be free, of all
known obstacles including taxiing aircraft and ground traffic.

46
Q

Ground visibility is reported by any of the following:

A
  • An ATC unit
  • An FSS or FIC
  • A community aerodrome radio station (CARS)
  • An automated weather observation system (AWOS)
  • A radio station that is ground-based and operated by an air operator
47
Q

Define prevailing visibility

A

The maximum visibility value common to sectors comprising one-half or more of the horizon circle.

48
Q

Can you round to nearest 5 knots when reading the wind on digital instrument?

A

no

49
Q

When can tower visibility override AWOS?

A
  • an airport controller determines the AWOS is providing unreliable visibility data, the controller may override the AWOS visibility if the AWOS is reported as unserviceable and an AOR is filed.
50
Q

Define CAVOK

A

(a) No cloud below 5000 ft, or below the highest minimum sector altitude (MSA), whichever is higher, and no cumulonimbus
(b) A visibility of 6 SM or more
(c) No precipitation, thunderstorm, shallow fog, or drifting snow

51
Q

Initial clearance format (7)

A
  1. Aircraft call sign
  2. Unit identification
  3. Runway identification
  4. Wind information
  5. Altimeter information
  6. Clearance details
  7. Other information
52
Q

You may clear the arriving aircraft to land behind a departure provided:

A

you are satisfied that by the time the arriving aircraft reaches the runway threshold, the following occur:
The departure is airborne and either:
-Turned off runway heading
-At a sufficient distance from the arriving aircraft that they will not conflict in the event of a missed approach.

53
Q

What happens when an aircraft conducts a go around?

A

-The aircraft will overfly the runway while climbing to circuit altitude and enter the pattern on the crosswind.

54
Q

Assign an altitude restriction to VFR aircraft to separate them from:

A
  1. Specific airspace
  2. Specific IFR or VFR traffic flow
  3. Other aircraft
55
Q

For successive arrivals on the same runway, you may authorize the second aircraft to land, provided that one of the following applies before the second aircraft crosses the landing threshold:

A
  • The first aircraft has landed and taxied off the runway
  • The first aircraft has landed or is over the landing runway, and the following conditions apply:
    ◦ The first aircraft is at a sufficient distance from the threshold to allow the second aircraft to safely complete its landing roll
    ◦ The first aircraft will taxi off the runway without stopping or backtracking.
    ◦ The pilot of the second aircraft has been advised of the first aircraft’s position and intentions.
56
Q

What is control service?

A

Issue clearances and instructions as necessary to maintain a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic under the control of your unit.

57
Q

What are the three fundamentals for safe, orderly, and expeditious control (control services/ separation basics)?

A

Planning
Executing
Monitoring

58
Q

What is the position transfer checklist?

A
  1. Runways (Runway in use & IFR approach)
  2. Equipment (Radio, Communications, ATIS, NAVAIDs etc.)
  3. Weather (METAR, SPECI, PIREP, AIRMETs, SIGMETs)
  4. NOTAMs (Runway conditions, RSC/CRFI etc / or none)
  5. Traffic (Aircraft/ vehicles location & intention)

Test 1 (1 decks)

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