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BCSC High Yield Review > Review > Flashcards

Review Flashcards

1
Q

conjunctival xerosis in VAD caused by ->

A

deficiency of mucin produced by goblet cells (degeneration of goblet cells)

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2
Q

Can cause hydration of the cornea

A

Hypotony -> reduced compressive force

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3
Q

Maps seen in epithelial basement membrane dystrophy show this staining

A

NEGATIVE staining

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4
Q

Dellen staining

A

positive or pooling of dye

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5
Q

Effect of tetracycline on anticoagulants

A

potentiate anticoagulant effect

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6
Q

Treatment options for ocular rosacea

A

Tetracycline (SE no anticoagulant)

Azithromycin (no cardio problems - may cause irregular heart rhythm)

Erythromycin - low adverse reactions

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7
Q

Diffuse punctate staining + whorled epithelium with normal schirmer/TBUT

A

Toxic keratitis -> switch to PF alternatives

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8
Q

Extra row of eyelashes from ducts of meibomian glands

A

Distichiasis (congenital AD or acquired)

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9
Q

Cornea >13mm diagnosis and associated problem during surgery

A

megalocornea -> zonular instability

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10
Q

Type of eye a/w increased risk for choroidal effusion during cataract surgery

A

nanophthalmia

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11
Q

Condition most commonly a/w posterior embryotoxon

A

Normal eyes

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12
Q

Corneal finding in children with untreated congenital syphilis

A

interstitial keratitis develops 6 to 12 yo with progressive corneal edema, ABNORMAL DEEP STROMAL VASCULARIZATION adjacent to descemet membrane

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13
Q

Medication that causes chalky white deposits that adhere to corneal epithelial defects

A

topical fluoroquinolone especially ciprofloxacin

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14
Q

Band keratopathy made of what substance?

Workup labs for unexplained band keratopathy should include

A

calcium hydroxyapatite

Calcium and phosphate tests -> elevated phosphate can drive precipitation of calcium hydroxyapatite (renal patient)

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15
Q

Vision loss in terrier marginal degeneration

A

high against-the-rule, oblique or irregular ASTIGMATISM

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16
Q

Monitor patient with cystinosis for –>

Tx for cystinosis –>

A

Nephropathy -may lead to kidney failure by 10 years of age

Topical cysteamine for cornea

Oral cysteamine for posterior segment (retinopathy, optic neuropathy)

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17
Q

History you must elicit for keratinized epithelium, cellular debris, corynebacterium xerosis

A

restrictive diet
alcoholism
chronic lipid malabsorption (bowel resection, cystic fibrosis)

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18
Q

Surrounded by capsid of primarily glycoproteins more resistant to alcohol

A

Adenoviruses -> diluted bleach

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19
Q

Varicella-zoster vaccine reduces the incidence of zoster by –>

A

50% in new cases of zoster and 66% postherpetic neuralgia

Immunity lasts only 5 years

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20
Q

follicular conjunctivitis with eyelid nodule with central umbilication would show this pathology

A

eosinophilic intracytoplasmic inclusions (Henderson-Patterson bodies) within epidermal cells surrounding a necrotic core

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21
Q

Pathology of herpetic vesicle

A

Vacuolized cytoplasm with multinucleate cells

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22
Q

Foamy histiocytes surrounding blood vessels

A

xanthelasma

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23
Q

treatment for gram-negative intracellular diplococci

A

intramuscular ceftriaxone 1 g for gonococcal conjunctivitis caused by neisseria gonorrhoeae

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24
Q

bandlike or stellate tarsal scarring superior + corneal scarring, trichiasis

A

Trachoma caused by bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis (Serotypes A-C)

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25
Q

Tx for fungal keratitis due to infection with filamentous fungi

A

Fusarium –> Natamycin

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26
Q

Dense white-blood-cell reaction following length of corneal nerve

A

Radial perineuritis

MARKING “L” cornea

M: Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia
medullary carcinoma of the thyroid
Pheochromocytoma
Mucosal neuromas

A: Acanthamoeba
R: Refsum's disease (phytanic acid/Riley Day)
K: Keratoconus
I: Icthyosis
N: Neurofibromatosis
G: Grafts (failed) Glaucoma (infantile)
L: Leprosy
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27
Q

Cause contact dermatoblepharitis

A

topical medication

Type IV delayed hypersensitivity reaction begin 24-72 hours following instillation of topical agent

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28
Q

Tx for chronic atopic dermatitis or atopic keratoconjunctivitis

A

Oral and topical T-cell inhibitors - Tacrolimus

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29
Q

Tx for surface squamous neoplasia

A

interferon-alpha2b 1 million IU/mL given 4 times daily until resolution (2 to 4 months)

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30
Q

Tx for 360 degree conjunctivalization of cornea after unilateral chemical burn

A

Simple gimbal epithelial transplantation (SLET)

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31
Q

Management when uveal prolapse occurs during acute open-globe repair

A

reposit tissue

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32
Q

Dieffenbachia cause keratoconjunctivitis by

A

calcium oxalate deposition

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33
Q

Cornea donors younger than 2 years old not used because

A

extremely steep and flaccid

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34
Q

Leads to myopic shift after cataract surgery with BCVA 20/20

A

anterior capsular contraction syndrome/lens phimosis

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35
Q

Rate of cataract surgery in developed country

A

10,000 per million population per year

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36
Q

Human lens changes with age

A

increasingly curved, more refractive power. Increase in water-insoluble proteins.

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37
Q

How is metabolic waste removed from the lens

A

aqueous humor

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38
Q

Protect the corneal endothelium with this agent in patient with corneal guttae

A

DISPERSIVE ophthalmic viscosurgical device (OVD)

Cohesive agent would be easily expelled during phaco

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39
Q

Helmholtz theory of accomodation

A

most of change in lens shape occurs at central anterior surface of the lens

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40
Q

What change occurs in the lens in the presence of high levels of glucose

A

Sorbitol pathway activated

Aldose reductase is key enzyme in this pathway

Hexokinase reaction is the rate-limiting step in glucose phosphorylation

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41
Q

Terminal differentiation

A

elongation of lens epithelial cells into lens fibers

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42
Q

Sx of cortical cataracts

A

glare

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43
Q

histology of PSC

A

posterior migration of lens epithelial cells and enlargement

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44
Q

Lamellar membrane whorls seen on EM for this cataract

A

nuclear cataract

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45
Q

Cataract a/w chalcosis

A

“sunflower” cataract

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46
Q

Cataract in galactosemia

A

“oil droplet”

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47
Q

Determining AL with immersion technique or contact application most useful in this setting

A

Dense vitreous hemorrhage
Corneal scarring
PSC

Biometry still possible with silicone oil or aphakia - need adjustment

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48
Q

Protect the corneal endothelium with this agent in patient with corneal guttae

A

DISPERSIVE ophthalmic viscosurgical device (OVD)

Cohesive agent would be easily expelled during phaco

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49
Q

Tx for shallow anterior chamber 2/2 ciliary block

A

aqueous suppressants + cycloplegia

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50
Q

IOL most likely to cause negative dysphotopsia

A

smaller, square-edge optic designs

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51
Q

Equivalent in blood of tissue-bound mast cells

A

Basophils

When they leave bloodstream and go to tissue they become mast cells

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52
Q

May present as peripheral necrotizing retinochoroiditis resembling acute ARN

A

Treponema pallidum Syphilis

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53
Q

Risk factor in patient with WNV-associated uveitis increased risk of WNV mortality

A

DM

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54
Q

Coin-shaped lesions circinate stellate KP

A

CMV anteiror uveitis

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55
Q

HSV1/HSV2 Corneal finding

A

Diffuse stellate KP

+/- granulomatous or non-granulomatous KP

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56
Q

Candidemia with decreased vision exam creamy yellowish chorioretinal lesions in posterior pole. Tx?

A

Oral voriconazole

excellent penetration, no vitreous involvement

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57
Q

m/c ocular manifestation of coccidiodomycosis

A

phlyctenular granulomatous conjunctivitis

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58
Q

Percentage chance that PVRL willl develop intracranial disease

A

60-75%

Primary vitreoretinal lymphoma (PVRL) is a subset of primary central nervous system lymphoma (PCNSL)

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59
Q

Band keratopathy histology

A

deposition of calcium hydroxyapatite at level of bowman membrane

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60
Q

Virus a/w PCNSL and PVRL

A

Epstein-Barr HHV-4

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61
Q

Immune response to parasitic infections

A

Th2-mediated response

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62
Q

Immune response in acute anterior uveitis, giant papillary conjunctivitis and VKH

A

Th1-mediated response

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63
Q

antigenic site on antibodies

A

idiotopes

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64
Q

antigenic sites on foreign molecules

A

epitopes

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65
Q

Controls the immunoregulatory processes of the retina and choroid

A

reitnal pigment epithelium (RPE)

Modulate T-cell activity and convert effector cells into regulatory cells

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66
Q

Population who are positive for HLA-B27 and those with Acute Anteiror Uveitis (AAU)

A

8% HLA-B27

0.012% develop AAU (1 in 667)

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67
Q

HLA-DR4

A

VKH, SO

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68
Q

Tumor necrosis factor alpha inhibitors and side effects

A 
Adalimumab
Infliximab
Certolizumab
Golimumab
Etanercept

CNS demyelination
Lymphoma
HBV reactivitation

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69
Q

Therapy that may induce antichimeric antibodies

A

Infliximab - 75% receiving 3+ infusions developed antinuclear antibodies - drug-indused lupus syndrome

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70
Q

Treatment for recurrent noninfectious refractory anterior scleritis

A

systemic steroids

prednisone 1 mg/kg/day

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71
Q

Scleritis you must r/o infectious etiology

A

NODULAR anterior scleritis especially if necrosis

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72
Q

Tx for TINU

A

responsive to high-dose oral corticosteroids

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73
Q

Ankylosing spondylitis 90% HLA-B27 - systemic concern

A

Pulmonary apical fibrosis –> CXR

Aortic valvular insufficiency –> Cardiac echogram

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74
Q

Initial scleritis followed by chronic headaches, tracheomalacia, focal segmental glomerulonephritis BRAO or BRVO or CRAO/CRVO

A

Granulomatosis with polyangiitis - necrotizing granulomatous vasculitis of upper and lower respiratory tract

Urinalysis (85%) with glomerulonephritis

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75
Q

Anti-cyclic citrullinated antibody test

A

anti-CCP antibody dianosis of RA with high specificity

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76
Q

Sarcoid, Behcet and VKH can show involvement of this system

A

CNS

NOT in MFC + panuveitis

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77
Q

White dot syndrome or chorioretinopathy a/w infectious etiology

A

serpiginous choroiditis or geographic/helicoid choroidopathy –> Mycobacterium tuberculosis

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78
Q

Testing preliterate children what optotype has best calibration and reliability

A

HOTV and LEA symbols

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79
Q

Type of deviation in infantile esotropia

A

comitant deviation -does not vary by more than a few prism diopters in different positions of gaze or with either eye

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80
Q

lateral muscular branch supplies

A

LR, SR, SO, LPS

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81
Q

medial muscular branch

A

IR, MR, IO

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82
Q

EOM orbital layer vs global layer

A

orbital layer –> inserts on muscle pulley

global layer –>tendon inserts on sclera to move globe

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83
Q

agonist –>

synergist –>

antagonist –>

A

agonist - primary muscle moving the eye in a direction

synergist - muscle of same eye accts with agonist to produce same movement

antagonist - muscle in same eye as agonist that actis in direction opposite to that of agonist

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84
Q

EOM that has only a primary action and no secondary or tertiary action

A

medial and lateral rectus muscles

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85
Q

in complete third nerve palsy, what action of superior oblique muscle exacerbates abducted position in paretic eye

A

TERTIARY - abduction

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86
Q

moderate amblyopia treatment patching vs pharmacologic treatment

A

equal

87
Q

right exotropia in ROP

A

positive angle kappa eg temporal dragging of macula in cicatricial ROP which can simulate exotropia

88
Q

How to test for horizontal deviation using Maddox rod

A

place rod cylinders horizontally in front of the right eye (180 degree meridian) Fixating on point source of light sees a vertical line with right eye and the point of light with left

89
Q

exodeviation at distance is larger than deviation at near by 10 pd but distance and near become similar after 30-60 minutes of binocular occlusion patch test

A

pseudodivergence excess intermittent exotropia

90
Q

stereopsis worsens after

A

alignment and VA testing are dissociating - perfrom sensory testing first

91
Q

Y pattern

A

exodeviation is greater in upgaze - you will see overelevation of the eye on adduction and slight upgaze

overelevation on horizontal gaze - true IO overaction

92
Q

Surgery for V-pattern esotropia

A

bilateral MR recession with inferior transposition

MALE
Medial rectus to apex, lateral rectus to empty space

93
Q

pattern of strabismus addressed by bilateral weakening of IO muscles

A

V pattern - caused by IO overaction

A pattern SO overaction

94
Q

Duane retraction syndrome associated with

A

Goldenhar syndrome (hemifacial microsomia, ocular dermoids, preauricular skin tags, eyelid colobomas)

95
Q

hearing loss + RP + white forelock

A

Waardenburg syndrome

96
Q

Type 1 duane retraction syndrome

A

poor abduction and esotropia

97
Q

Type 2 duane retraction syndrome

A

poor adduction and exotropia

98
Q

Type 3 duane retraction syndrome

A

poor abduction and adduction; either esotropia or exotropia

99
Q

Botulinum toxin type A most effective for

A

small-angle esotropia

100
Q

Anomoly represented by choroidal coloboma

A

DYSRAPHISM - failure to fuse

101
Q

Process in anophthalmia

A

Agenesis - developmental failure

102
Q

Hypoplasia

A

developmental arrest

103
Q

poor visual behavior in 5-month old child without nystagmus

A

Cerebral visual impairment

pathology posterior to lateral geniculate nucleus –> nystagmus not present

104
Q

blepharophimosis-ptosis-epicanthus inversus syndrome inheritance

A

sporadic or AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT

blepharophimosis
congenital ptosis
telecanthus
epicanthus inversus

105
Q

Crouzon syndrome vs Apert syndrome

A

Apert –> extreme syndactyly (can’t move fingers APERT)

both have hypertelorism proptosis, inferior scleral show

106
Q

most common strabismus a/w craniosynostosis

A

v-pattern exotropia

107
Q

neonate with chemosis, discharge 3-4 days of life

A

neisseria gonorrhoeae

108
Q

neonate 1 week age with minimal-moderate discharge possible psuedomembrane

A

chlamydial conjunctivitis

109
Q

neonate with conjunctivitis at second week of life

A

HSV

110
Q

Early manifestation of SJS

A

mucopurulent conjunctivitis to corneal

111
Q

effect of apraclonidine in patient with Horner syndrome

A

Reverses anisocoria - causes dilation of affected pupil but no effect on normal pupil.

112
Q

pathophysiology in primary congenital glaucoma

A

abnormal development of neural crest-derived tissue of anterior chamber angle –> decreased aquous outflow

113
Q

Anterior chamber angle of normal infant eye differs from adult eye

A

Schwalbe line is less distinct
TM less highly pigmented
Junction between scleral spur and ciliary body is less easily seen

114
Q

PSC seen in association with what dz

A

NF2

115
Q

m/c etiology of AAU in child

A

JIA - 15-47%
Antinuclear antibody positivity
RF negative

116
Q

Type 1 ROP

A

Zone I any stage with plus
Zone I stage 3 w/o plus
Zone II stage 2 or 3 with plus

117
Q

Type 2 ROP

A

Zone I stage 1 or 2 w/o plus

Zone II stage 3 w/o plus

118
Q

What percentage of Rb can arise from somatic nonhereditary mutation of both alleles of RB1 in a retinal cell

A

60% - somatic nonhereditary mutations of both alleles of RB1 in retinal cell

40% - germline mutation in 1 of 2 alleles of RB1 either is inherited from an affected parent (10% of all Rb cases) or occurs spontaneously in 1 of the gametes

119
Q

Optic nerve hypoplasia should undergo MRI to evaluate for

A

ectopic posterior pituitary bright spot at upper infundibulum –> pituitary hormone defiicencies

absence of septum pellucidum

agenesis of corpus callosum

septo-optic dysplasia

120
Q

m/c ocular manifestation of abusive head trauma

A

RETINAL HEMORRHAGE 80%

seen in all layers unilateral or bilateral, m/c posterior pole

121
Q

Abnormal number of crossed fibers in the optic chiasm

A

ocular albinism

prevent stereopsis and cause strabismus

asymmetric VEP

122
Q

characteristic feature of pinhole camera

A

infinite depth of field
inverted image
lengthy exposure

123
Q

direction of monochromatic light as it passes through a prism

A

toward the Base

Light toward the BASE

124
Q

concept of magnification appropriate for astronomical telescope

A

Angular magnification

125
Q

Each line on VA in ETDRS

A

0.10 LogMAR between lines so that a 3-line change in acuity corresponds to a change of 0.30 LogMAR

126
Q

Far point of a hyperopic eye?

A

behind the eye

emmetropic –> optical infinity

127
Q

cause of positive dysphotopsias

A

internal reflections within the intraocular lens itself

128
Q

Modulation transfer function of IOL

A

higher MTF signify higher image quality

Monofocal IOL demonstrate highest modulation transfer funtion MFT peaks

129
Q

Reduction in efficacy of astigmatism correction in toric lens

A

as little as 10 degrees

130
Q

Diffractive multifocal lenses dissipate about ___ of the light entering the pupil

A

20%

131
Q

Refractive procedure minimizes optical aberrations

A

phakic intraocular lens

132
Q

Wavefront aberration is correctable with spectacles

A

positive defocus (myopia)

133
Q

property of light used by scanning laser polarimeter to measure thickness of NFL

A

polarization

134
Q

Diagnosis of Charles Bonnet syndrome

A

Vivid recurrent visual hallucinations

Some degree of vision loss

no other neuro signs/sx

Full insight that what is seen is not real

135
Q

Legal blindness due to VF constriction in the US

A

Equal or less than 20 degrees around central fixation measured with a Goldmann III4e target

136
Q

2 visual functions displayed on contrast sensitivity curve

A

spatial frequency and contrast threshold

137
Q

Vitreous attaches to ILM via

A

fibronectin and Laminin

138
Q

most specific for RPE cell death

A

FAF

139
Q

measures central retinal ganglion cell function

A

pattern electroretinogram PERG

140
Q

assesses health of RPE

A

EOG

141
Q

direct measure of macular function

A

multifocal ERG

142
Q

test integrity of afferent pathway

A

visual evoked potential

143
Q

Pelli-Robson

A

evaluates contrast sensitivity on logarithmic scale

144
Q

FDA approval for Verteporfin

A

CNV a/w AMD, myopia, POHS

145
Q

Genes for AMD

A

ARMS2 and CFH

146
Q

BRVO not at AV crossing

A

vasculitis

147
Q

inheritance of VHL

A

AD

148
Q

complication of retinal cavernous hemangioma that may need tx

A

VH

149
Q

initial ROP screen born at 29 weeks

A

4-6 weeks after birth

150
Q

AZOOR affects this part of retina

A

outer retinal layer

151
Q

Zone 1 ROP evaluate in

A

1 week

152
Q

unilateral RP

A

DUSN

153
Q

Definition of pleiotropy

A

single gene may lead to multiple phenotypes

154
Q

TIMP3 gene causes early onset drusen + CNV

A

Sorsby macular dystrophy

155
Q

CYP4V2 gene crystalline deposits in retina with GA

A

Bietti Crystalline dystophy

156
Q

Batten disease has

A

bull’s eye maculopathy

157
Q

Initial sign of familial amyloidosis

A

vitreous opacities

158
Q

a/w angle closure glaucoma

A

anterior persistent fetal vasculature (PFV)

159
Q

siderosis bulbi

A

peripheral retinal pigmentation

160
Q

Must be calculated using Goldmann equation

A

UVEOSCLERAL FLOW RATE

outflow facility –> tonography

aqueous humor formation rate –> fluorophotometry

Episcleral venous pressure –> venomanometry

161
Q

false-positive in perimetry

A

responds even though no visual stimulus was presented

162
Q

PCG this can still change even though IOP appears to be controlled

A

Axial length

163
Q

PCG after successful surgery should be monitored for

A

Life!

164
Q

beta blocker less likely to result in pulmonary adverse effects

A

betaxolol - selective B1

165
Q

Where does bleeding originate in suprachoroidal hemorrhage

A

short or long posterior ciliary arteries as they enter the suprachoroidal space from the intrascleral canal

166
Q

Percentage of treated patients s/p laser trabeculoplasty expected to maintain lower IOP

A

50%

167
Q

best candidate for trab with MMC

A

patient with previous failed trab without antifibrotics

168
Q

most success with laser trabeculopasty

A

intolerant to multiple medications and whose current IOP above target pressure

LTP less effective in aphakic or Ps patients compared to phakic

169
Q

Placido disk-based corneal topographer uses

A

image of a series of concentric rings reflected off the cornea

170
Q

Variable that will affect the depth of laser ablation required to treat a specific degree of myopia

A

optical zone diameter

Ablation depth = degree of myopia (D) x Optical Zone diameter ^2 /3

171
Q

Condition prevents a 25-year old from being a good PRK candidate

A

Pregnancy –> wait 3 months after delivery and cessation of breast feeding

172
Q

Cycloplegic refraction recommended for myopic LASIK to prevent

A

overcorrection

perform manifest and cycloplegic refraction close together

173
Q

Discontinue rigid CL for how long prior to surgery

A

3 weeks

soft CL 3 days to 2 weeks

174
Q

Arcuate keratotomy changes that may result in overcorrection

A

incision placed at smaller optical zone, increased length or depth of incision

175
Q

complication of RK after 10 years

A

progressive hyperopia

176
Q

intrastromal corneal ring segments made of

A

PMMA

177
Q

Alloplastic corneal inlays can be used to treat

A

presbyopia

178
Q

Mechanism of action of presbyopic inlays

A

pinhole effect

179
Q

important preoperative step prior to laser ablation in LASIK

A

cover the eye not being treated to block fixation

180
Q

wavefront-optimized ablation

A

improved contrast sensitivity

181
Q

Haze after PRK

A

deposits from increased keratocyte activity

182
Q

Excimer laser vision overcorrection more common in

A

older individuals

183
Q

Vitamin used in crosslinking

A

riboflavin B2 generates singlet oxygen

184
Q

Corneal inlays are approved by the FDA to treat

A

early to moderate presbyopia

185
Q

Tx for post-lasik ectasia

A

RGP CL

186
Q

leads to phthisis bulbi

A

low IOP

SAD - Shrinkage, Atrophy, Disorganization

187
Q

glaucoma a/w angle recession

A

damage to TM

188
Q

Mutation in nevi of Ota

A

GNAQ and GNA11 genes found in 50%-85% of blue nevi and uveal melanomas

189
Q

gene mutation in 80% of uveal melanoma with poor prognosis (class 2 tumors)

A

BAP1

190
Q

Gene a/w cutaneous melanomas

A

BRAF

191
Q

anterior segment histological findings in PCG

A

hypoplastic scleral spur and anomalous insertion of ciliary muscle –> arrested development of anterior chamber elements

192
Q

Hemolytic glaucoma caused by accumulation of what material in TM

A

hemosiderin-laden macrophages

193
Q

nanophthalmos is a/w with

A

normal lens

short axial length 15-20 mm, thick sclera, normal or slightly enlaarged lens

predisposted to Uveal effusion and glaucoma

194
Q

Alizarin red

A

stains calcium

195
Q

Stains for acanthamoeba

A

calcofluor white and acridine orange

196
Q

Nodular fasciitis is what type of process

A

reactive process

197
Q

embryologically germ cell layer from

A

surface ectoderm

198
Q

periretinal membranes in PVR are composed of

A

RPE cells

muller cells, fibrous astrocytes, macrophages, fibroblasts, myofibroblasts

199
Q

ocular fundus finding that identifies carriers of gardner syndrome genetic mutation

A

CHRPE

4 or more lesions in each eye of patient with gardner syndrome or APC mutation

200
Q

Aniridia is a/w what other ocular finding

A

CORNEAL PANNUS

cataract, foveal hypoplasia

201
Q

Lipid stains

A

oil red O or Sudan black B

202
Q

Gene translocation in rhabdomyosarcoma

A

FOXO1

203
Q

NF1 associated tumor will have what histology

A

ON glioma –> low grade juvenile pilocytic astrocytoma –> rosenthal fibers –> deeply eosinophilic filaments, degenerated cell processes

204
Q

Psammoma bodies

A

meningiomas

205
Q

staghorn vascular spaces

A

hemangiopericytomas and SFTs

206
Q

Verocay bodies

A

fibrils that resemble sensory corpuscles in antoni a spindle cell pattern in schwannomas (neurilemomas)

207
Q

cells that would stain positive for hemosiderin in a CNS hemorrhage

A

microglial cells - the CNS hisiocytes that have phagocytic function the “macrophages” of the CNS

208
Q

Coats disease

A

UNILATERAL

retinal vasculopathy (retinal telangiectasis with exudative maculopathy and/or retinopathy) boys younger than 10 yo

209
Q

m/c secondary tumor in Rb survivors

A

Osteosarcoma 40% arising within field of radiation and 36% outside field of radiation in patients treated for Rb

210
Q

If parent has bilateral Rb, what is child risk of developing Rb

A

45%

211
Q

Rb with any retinal lesion of any size within 3 mm of the fovea without focal or diffuse vitreous seeds is this class

A

group B

212
Q

m/c initial therapy ofr medulloepithelioma

A

enucleation

213
Q

tx of choice for metastatic carcinoma to choroid

A

individually tailored tx

chemo+radiation

prior and current chemo and radiation affect treatment

214
Q

m/c finding on eye exam in patients with leukemia

A

retinal hemorrhages typically white-centered hemorrhages are m/c

Typically have anemia and thrombocytopenia.

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