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Renal-Endocrine > Retake > Flashcards

Retake Flashcards

1
Q

Angiotensin II directly increases water reabsorption in which tubule?

A

the proximal tubule

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2
Q

Aldosterone directly increases water reabsorption in which tubule?

A

the distal tubule

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3
Q

Aldosterone is produced by which organ?

A

the adrenal cortex

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4
Q

Aldosterone acts to increase the expression and activity of which transporters?

A

ENaCs and Na/K-ATPases

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5
Q

What kind of transporter is the Na/H transporter?

A

an antiport

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6
Q

Bicarb reabsorption from the tubular lumen requires what transporter activity?

A

Na/H antiport to supply protons for carbonic anhydrase

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7
Q

Ca-ATPases are located on which surface of tubular epithelial cells?

A

the basolateral

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8
Q

Which tubular epithelial cells are primarily responsible for regulating pH?

A

intercalated cells in the distal and collecting tubules

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9
Q

Describe proton and bicarb movement across the tubular epithelim in a state of acidosis.

A
  • protons derived from CO2 by intracellular carbonic anhydrase are pumped into the tubular lumen by H-ATPases and H/K-ATPases
  • the bicarb produced by carbonic anhydrase is reabsorbed through the Cl/3HCO3- antiport
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10
Q

Describe proton and bicarb movement across the tubular epithelium in a state of alkalosis.

A
  • carbonic anhydrase splits CO2 in intercalated cells
  • protons are reabsorbed by H-ATPases and H/K-ATPases on the basolateral surface
  • bicarb is excreted via Cl/3HCO2- antiports no the apical surface
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11
Q

What three compounds are used to buffer urine?

A

bicarb, ammonia, and phosphate

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12
Q

Give the equation for the UAG. What is considered normal?

A

Na + K - Cl with a negative value being normal

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13
Q

What is furosemide?

A

a loop diurective that blocks NKCC transporters

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14
Q

What are thiazides?

A

Na/Cl transport inhibitors that function in the distal tubule

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15
Q

Thiazides are best used for what clinical purposes?

A

long-term use of a diurectic given their limited SEs

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16
Q

What is spironolactone?

A

a K-sparing diuretic that acts on aldosterone and Na/K-ATPases in the collecting tubule

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17
Q

What is acetazolamide?

A

a carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

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18
Q

Where does acetazolamide fucntion?

A

the proximal tubule

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19
Q

Acetazolamide blocks reabsorption of what molecule?

A

bicarbonate

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20
Q

What is mannitol?

A

an osmotic diuretic

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21
Q

In which clinical scenario would you use mannitol?

A

the acute treatment of severe edema

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22
Q

Clearance of a substance that is subject to reabsorption ___ as the concentration of that substance increases?

A

clearance increases

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23
Q

Give the equation for estimating tubular reabsorption.

A

GFR x P - U x V

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24
Q

Give the equation for estimating tubular secretion.

A

U x V - GFR x P

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25
Q

How do we estimate renal plasma flow?

A

using the clearance of PAH

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26
Q

How do we estimate renal blood flow?

A

RPF/1-hematocrit

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27
Q

Which renal neoplasia is often exacerbated by pregnancy?

A

angiomyolipomas

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28
Q

What is the primary risk factor for RCC?

A

smoking

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29
Q

Stallate scars are a feature of which renal neoplasia?

A

oncocytomas

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30
Q

Oncocytomas arise from which renal structure?

A

collecting duct

31
Q

Clear cell RCCs are derived from which renal structure?

A

proximal tubules

32
Q

A cancer of the renal pelvis is like a ____

A

urothelial carcinoma

33
Q

What are the components of nephrotic syndrome?

A
  • proteinuria
  • hypoalbuminemia
  • edema
  • hyperlipidemia
34
Q

What are the components of nephritis?

A
  • hematuria
  • proteinuria
  • hypertension
  • urine sediment
35
Q

Hypocomplementemia and history of recent infection are characteristic of which glomerular disorder?

A

PIGN

36
Q

Subepithelial humps are a histological features of what glomerular disorder?

A

PIGN

37
Q

What is the histopathology of primary IgAN?

A

mesangial expansion and cellular proliferation

38
Q

What is the main cause of secondary IgAN?

A

cirrhosis and liver disease

39
Q

Which glomerular disorder is morphologically indistinguishable from IgAN?

A

Henoch-Schonlein purpura

40
Q

How do we differentiate IgAN from Henoch-Schonlein purpura?

A

Henoch-schonlein purpura is accompanied by systemic vasculitis and skin pain

41
Q

Which nephritis-causing disorder shows linear IgG in the GBM?

A

goodpasture syndrome

42
Q

Describe the histopathologic featuers of diabetic nephropathy.

A
  • GBM thickening
  • diffuse mesangial expansion
  • KW nodules
43
Q

Congo red staining will show what sort of glomerular disorder?

A

amyloidosis

44
Q

Minimal change disease primarily affects which age group?

A

children

45
Q

Damage to foot processes is a characteristic of what glomerular disease?

A

minimal change disease and FSGN

46
Q

Minimal change disease is responsive to what treatment?

A

steroids

47
Q

How can we differentitate minimal change disease from FSGN?

A

FSGN does not respond to steroids while minimal change disease does, additionally, sclerosis is not a feature of minimal change disease

48
Q

What is collapsing glomerulopathy?

A

a subtype of FSGS related to HIV, drug use, and itiopathic causes

49
Q

What is the characteristic histopathologic feature of membranous glomerulopathy?

A

diffuse global thickening of teh GBM

50
Q

Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis is caused by what?

A

abnormal complement activation

51
Q

HCV and HBV are causes of what secondary nephritis?

A

membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis

52
Q

The pineal gland secretes ____.

A

melatonin

53
Q

C cells are part of which endocrine gland?

A

the thyroid

54
Q

Three layers of the adrenal cortex

A

glomerulosa, fasciculata, reticularis

55
Q

Where are chromaffin cells located?

A

the adrenal medulla

56
Q

Which neoplasia is related to heightened epinephrine release?

A

pheochromocytoma

57
Q

Elevated PTHrp is indicative of what cause of hypercalcemia?

A

a malignancy

58
Q

A ___ carcinoma is indistinguishable from an adenoma until it metastasizes.

A

pituitary

59
Q

Rathke’s pouch remnants can give rise to what pituitary neoplasia?

A

craniopharyngioma

60
Q

What is bromocryptine?

A

a DA antagonist used to treat acromegaly

61
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

A

primary hypoadrenalism

62
Q

What is CRH?

A

the hypothalamic mediator that triggers ACTH release

63
Q

What is congenital adrenal hyperplasia?

A

a 21-OH deficiency

64
Q

What is Sheehan’s syndrome?

A

diminished pituitary functioning due to reduction in perfusion, commonly during and after birth

65
Q

How does metformin function?

A

stimulate increased insulin production

66
Q

Which drugs sensitize the periphery to insulin naturally secreted by the pancreas?

A

thiazolidinedines

67
Q

Which diabetic drug is contraindicated for those with renal disease?

A

metformin

68
Q

How do sulfonylureas treat diabetes?

A

by stimulating extra production

69
Q

Which thyroid cancer is highly associated with MEN1?

A

medullary carcinoma of thryoid

70
Q

Which thyroid carcinoma invades the trachea?

A

anaplastic

71
Q

Where does leptin come from?

A

adipocytes

72
Q

Leptin does what to apetite?

A

decrease apetite

73
Q

What is the long-acting form of insulin?

A

glargine

Renal-Endocrine (2 decks)

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