resuscitation Flashcards

1
Q

Q: What is the initial dose of adrenaline in adult cardiac arrest?

A

A: 1 mg IV/IO every 3-5 minutes.

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2
Q

Q: Name the 5 H’s in reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

A

Hypovolemia
Hypoxia
Hydrogen ion (acidosis), Hyper-/hypokalemia
Hypothermia.

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3
Q

Q: Name the 5 T’s in reversible causes of cardiac arrest.

A

Tension pneumothorax
Tamponade (cardiac)
Toxins
Thrombosis (pulmonary)
Thrombosis (coronary)

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4
Q

Q: What is the target temperature for post-arrest targeted temperature management?

A

32-36°C for at least 24 hours.

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5
Q

Q: When should you consider terminating resuscitation efforts in asystole?

A

After 20-30 minutes of ACLS with no reversible cause identified and no ROSC.

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6
Q

Q: What rhythm requires immediate defibrillation?

A

A: Ventricular fibrillation (VF) or pulseless ventricular tachycardia (VT)

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7
Q

Q: What is the initial biphasic defibrillation energy for VF?

A

A: 200 J (or manufacturer’s recommendation).

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8
Q

Q: What drug is used for torsades de pointes in cardiac arrest?

A

Magnesium sulfate 1-2 g IV.

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9
Q

Q: What is the compression rate in adult CPR?

A

A: 100-120 per minute.

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10
Q

Q: What is the compression depth in adult CPR?

A

A: 5-6 cm (about 2 inches).

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11
Q

Q: What is the role of capnography in cardiac arrest?

A

A: Confirms ETT placement and monitors CPR quality (target ETCO2 >10 mmHg).

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12
Q

Q: What is the recommended ventilation rate during CPR with an advanced airway?

A

A: 10 breaths per minute (1 every 6 seconds).

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13
Q

Q: What is a common cause of PEA in trauma?

A

A: Hypovolemia from hemorrhage.

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14
Q

Q: What is the post-ROSC blood pressure target?

A

A: MAP ≥65 mmHg.

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15
Q

Q: When is amiodarone indicated in cardiac arrest?

A

A: For refractory VF/pulseless VT after 3 shocks (300 mg IV bolus).

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16
Q

Q: What is the role of sodium bicarbonate in cardiac arrest?

A

A: Reserved for hyperkalemia or TCA overdose 1 mEq/kg IV.

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17
Q

Q: What ECG finding suggests hyperkalemia as a cause of arrest?

A

A: Peaked T waves or sine wave pattern.

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18
Q

Q: What is the compression-to-ventilation ratio in 2-rescuer infant CPR?

A

A: 15:2.

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19
Q

Q: What is the priority after ROSC?

A

optimise oxygenation and ventilation

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20
Q

Q: What are the 4 types of shock?

A

hypovolemic, cardiogenic, distributive, obstructive

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21
Q

Q: What is the hallmark of distributive shock?

A

low systemic vascular resistence (SVR)

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22
Q

Q: What is a common cause of obstructive shock?

A

pulmonary emoblism or tension pneumothorax

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23
Q

Q: What is the initial fluid bolus for hypovolemic shock?

A

20ml/kg crystalloid (normal saline)

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24
Q

Q: What vasopressor is first-line for septic shock?

A

noradrenaline (norepinephrine)

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25
Q

Q: What is the target MAP in septic shock?

A

≥65 mmHg

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26
Q

Q: What bedside test differentiates cardiogenic from distributive shock?

A

Echocardiography (poor LV function in cardiogenic).

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27
Q

Q: What is the treatment for anaphylactic shock?

A

IM adrenaline 0.3-0.5mg 1:1000

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28
Q

Q: What is a sign of inadequate perfusion in shock?

A

Prolonged capillary refill (>2 seconds).

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29
Q

Q: What is the role of lactate in shock?

A

Marker of tissue hypoperfusion; >2 mmol/L suggests severity.

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30
Q

Q: What fluid is preferred in hemorrhagic shock?

A

blood, packed red cells, plasma, platelets

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31
Q

Q: What is the dose of adrenaline in anaphylaxis?

A

0.01mg/kg IM (max 0.5mg) of 1:1000 solution

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32
Q

Q: What ECG finding suggests cardiogenic shock?

A

ST elevation: acute MI

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33
Q

Q: What is the treatment for tension pneumothorax causing shock?

A

urgent needle decompression (2nd ICS, midclavicular line)

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34
Q

Q: What inotrope is used in cardiogenic shock?

A

dobutamine or milrinone

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35
Q

Q: What is the formula for MAP?

A

MAP = DBP + 1/3 (SBP-DBP)

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36
Q

Q: What is a sign of neurogenic shock?

A

bradycardia with hypotension (spinal cord injury)

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37
Q

Q: What is the initial management of hemorrhagic shock?

A

control bleeding, transfuse blood products

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38
Q

Q: What is the role of vasopressin in shock?

A

A: Adjunct in refractory septic shock (0.03 units/min).

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39
Q

Q: What is the mortality risk of untreated septic shock?

A

Increases by 7-10% per hour without antibiotics.

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40
Q

What are the steps of rapid sequence intubation (RSI)?

A

Preparation, Preoxygenation, Pretreatment, Paralysis, Positioning, Placement, Post-intubation care

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41
Q

What is the dose of suxamethonium for RSI?

A

1-2 mg/kg IV

42
Q

What is the dose of rocuronium for RSI?

A

1-1.2 mg/kg IV

43
Q

What is the LEMON mnemonic for difficult airway?

A

Look externally, Evaluate 3-3-2, Mallampati, Obstruction, Neck mobility

44
Q

What is the rescue airway device in a failed intubation?

A

Laryngeal mask airway (LMA)

45
Q

What is the indication for a surgical airway?

A

Can’t intubate, can’t ventilate (CICV) scenario

46
Q

Where is a cricothyroidotomy performed?

A

Cricothyroid membrane (below thyroid cartilage, above cricoid)

47
Q

What is the preoxygenation goal in RSI?

A

SpO2 ≥95% for 3-5 minutes

48
Q

What induction agent is used in hypotensive patients?

A

Ketamine (1-2 mg/kg IV)

49
Q

What is the reversal agent for rocuronium?

A

Sugammadex (2-16 mg/kg IV)

50
Q

What is the BURP maneuver?

A

Backward, Upward, Rightward Pressure on the larynx to aid visualization

51
Q

What is the maximum attempts at intubation before switching to a rescue device?

A

3 attempts

52
Q

What is the dose of propofol for RSI?

A

1-2 mg/kg IV

53
Q

What is a sign of successful ETT placement?

A

Bilateral chest rise and ETCO2 waveform

54
Q

What is the pediatric ETT size formula?

A

(Age/4) + 4 (uncuffed)

55
Q

What is the complication of prolonged suxamethonium use?

A

Hyperkalemia

56
Q

What is the first-line sedative for post-intubation care?

A

Propofol or midazolam

57
Q

What is the role of apneic oxygenation?

A

Maintains oxygenation during intubation (nasal cannula at 15 L/min)

58
Q

What is the treatment for laryngospasm?

A

Positive pressure ventilation, deepen sedation

59
Q

What is the depth of ETT insertion at the teeth in adults?

A

21-23 cm (women), 23-25 cm (men)

60
Q

What is the qSOFA score?

A

RR ≥22, SBP ≤100 mmHg, altered mental status (2+ suggests sepsis)

61
Q

What is the initial fluid bolus in septic shock?

A

30 mL/kg crystalloid within 3 hours

62
Q

What is the first-line antibiotic for suspected sepsis?

A

Broad-spectrum (e.g., piperacillin-tazobactam)

63
Q

What is the time goal for antibiotic administration in sepsis?

A

Within 1 hour of recognition

64
Q

What is the lactate clearance goal in sepsis?

A

≥10% reduction in 2-4 hours

65
Q

What is the vasopressor of choice if fluids fail in septic shock?

A

Noradrenaline

66
Q

What is the definition of septic shock?

A

Sepsis + hypotension requiring vasopressors + lactate >2 mmol/L

67
Q

What is the role of corticosteroids in septic shock?

A

Hydrocortisone (200 mg/day) if refractory to vasopressors

68
Q

What is a common source of sepsis in the elderly?

A

Urinary tract infection

69
Q

What is the target ScvO2 in sepsis?

A

≥70% (central venous oxygen saturation)

70
Q

What is the SIRS criteria?

A

2+ of: Temp >38°C or <36°C, HR >90, RR >20 or PaCO2 <32, WBC >12 or <4

71
Q

What is the treatment for neutropenic sepsis?

A

Broad-spectrum antibiotics (e.g., meropenem) within 1 hour

72
Q

What is the complication of delayed sepsis treatment?

A

Multi-organ dysfunction syndrome (MODS)

73
Q

What is the role of source control in sepsis management?

A

Identify and eliminate the source of infection

74
Q

What is the role of source control in sepsis?

A

Drain abscesses, remove infected devices ASAP

75
Q

What is the pediatric fluid bolus in sepsis?

A

20 mL/kg crystalloid

76
Q

What is the sign of end-organ dysfunction in sepsis?

A

Oliguria, elevated creatinine, or confusion

77
Q

What is the dose of noradrenaline in septic shock?

A

0.01-3 mcg/kg/min IV

78
Q

What is the role of albumin in sepsis?

A

Considered in severe hypoalbuminemia (<20 g/L)

79
Q

What is the mortality rate of septic shock?

A

20-40% with optimal care

80
Q

What is the diagnostic test for sepsis source?

A

Blood cultures (2 sets) before antibiotics

81
Q

What are the components of the ATLS primary survey?

A

Airway, Breathing, Circulation, Disability, Exposure

82
Q

What is the massive transfusion protocol ratio?

A

1:1:1 (PRBC:FFP:platelets)

83
Q

What is the dose of tranexamic acid in trauma?

A

1 g IV over 10 min, then 1 g over 8 hours

84
Q

What is the target SBP in permissive hypotension?

A

80-90 mmHg until bleeding controlled

85
Q

What is the eFAST exam sequence?

A

RUQ, LUQ, pelvis, subxiphoid, lungs

86
Q

What is the treatment for cardiac tamponade in trauma?

A

Pericardiocentesis or thoracotomy

87
Q

What is the lethal triad in trauma?

A

Hypothermia, Acidosis, Coagulopathy

88
Q

What is the indication for emergency thoracotomy?

A

Penetrating chest trauma with arrest <15 min

89
Q

What is the fluid of choice in trauma resuscitation?

A

Blood products (avoid excessive crystalloid)

90
Q

What is the GCS score for coma?

91
Q

What is the treatment for tension pneumothorax in trauma?

A

Needle decompression followed by chest tube

92
Q

What is the role of pelvic binding?

A

Stabilizes pelvic fractures to reduce bleeding

93
Q

What is the target temperature in trauma resuscitation?

A

> 36°C (prevent hypothermia)

94
Q

What is the sign of aortic injury on CXR?

A

Widened mediastinum

95
Q

What is the management of flail chest?

A

Analgesia, oxygen, consider PPV if hypoxic

96
Q

What is the dose of IV fluids in pediatric trauma?

A

20 mL/kg bolus of isotonic crystalloid

97
Q

What is the dose of IV fluids in pediatric trauma?

A

20 mL/kg bolus

98
Q

What is the purpose of damage control surgery?

A

Control bleeding and contamination, delay definitive repair

99
Q

What is the sign of hypovolemic shock in trauma?

A

Tachycardia, hypotension, cool skin

100
Q

What is the treatment for traumatic brain injury with herniation?

A

Hyperventilation, mannitol (0.5-1 g/kg IV)

101
Q

What is the role of CT in trauma?

A

Identifies occult injuries (e.g., head, chest, abdomen)