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Fire Officer 2024 > Responding to Routine Emergencies > Flashcards

Responding to Routine Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

When responding to an odor of smoke in a commercial occupancy, a telephone exchange, or a building that houses a transformer, what hazard may be present in the burning insulation?

A

Polyvinyl Chloride (PVC)

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2
Q

At an odor of smoke call, a flickering, dim, or nonfunctioning fluorescent lamp can indicate that the __________ is heating up.

A

Ballast

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3
Q

It is possible, in ballast devices manufactured before 1979, that the capacitor contains a small amount of __________-contaminated dielectric fluid.

A

PCB

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4
Q

True or False:
Removing a fluorescent lamp smaller than 8 feet will stop the flow of electricity.

A

False

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5
Q

Underwriters Laboratories didn’t require thermal protection for approved recessed lighting until what year?

A

1982

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6
Q

Since the smell of overheating rubber mimics that of an electrical problem, you should consider checking __________ at an electrical odor call.

A

The belts of major appliances.

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7
Q

If you suspect that ignited lint is the source of a smoke condition, you’ll have to check both the clothes dryer itself and the entire run of the __________.

A

Vent Duct

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8
Q

True or False:
A loose wire in a junction box may cause overheating in another box, provoking a fire remote from the cause.

A

True

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9
Q

A noninvasive way to check behind a wall for hot wires, smoldering beams, or active flaming is to use a __________.

A

Thermal Imaging Camera

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10
Q

Should the fire department open sealed electrical boxes?

A

No. Curtail the power by using the main shutoff instead.

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11
Q

In a residential building, will opening the main switch necessarily cut off all power to the home?

A

No. It’s possible that power is being pirated into the building, bypassing both the meter and the main shutoff.

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12
Q

True or False:
Some new meters may be removed w/o interrupting the flow of electricity into the building.

A

True

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13
Q

Does aluminum siding pose a threat of shock hazard?

A

Yes

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14
Q

Name 4 dangers associated with spraying water on a burning pole-mounted transformer.

A
  1. Explosion
  2. PCB Contamination
  3. Downed Wires
  4. Electrocution
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15
Q

Treat all wires as if they were __________.

A

Live

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16
Q

Is it entirely safe to use a rope or wooden pike pole to remove a downed power line from a vehicle?

A

No. Even a seemingly dry rope or pike pole can contain contaminants that might conduct electricity.

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17
Q

When power lines are down, the danger zone s/b at least __________ in either direction of the fault.

A

One Span

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18
Q

If, at the request of the utility company, the decision is made to flood an electrical manhole, the proper procedure you should follow is to __________.

A

Tie off the open butt of a hoseline near the opening, then withdraw all personnel to a safe distance before turning on the water.

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19
Q

The major problem experienced with electrical manholes in the Northeast is deterioration due to __________.

A

Salt

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20
Q

The gases generated by burning wiring are not only noxious and deadly, they are also __________ and __________.

A

Flammable and Explosive.

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21
Q

The author recommends that you routinely test for dangerous levels of __________ at every manhole incident.

A

CO

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22
Q

Who should pull the cover off a smoking manhole?

A

Appropriately trained utility personnel.

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23
Q

The most common home heating fuels are __________ and __________.

A

Oil and Natural Gas

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24
Q

Based on its viscosity, fuel oil is separated into how many grades?

A

6

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25
Q

The capacity of a fuel tank in a private dwelling is typically __________ gallons.

A

275

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26
Q

To ignite the fuel oil in the combustion chamber of an oil burner, the fuel is __________, this increasing its surface area.

A

Atomized

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27
Q

Safety devices allow an oil burner pump to operate for no more than about __________ seconds if no flame is present.

A

90

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28
Q

This oil burner emergency occurs when unburned atomized fuel is ignited at the start of the burn cycle, resulting in an explosion.

A

Delayed Ignition (Puffback)

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29
Q

The burning of pooled oil in the combustion chamber after the burner has shut down is known as __________.

A

Afterfire

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30
Q

This condition occurs when the flame repeatedly jumps away from and then returns to the burner nose cone.

A

Pulsation

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31
Q

Since the White Ghost is a potentially explosive situation, you should treat it as a __________.

A

Gas Leak

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32
Q

On arrival at an oil burner emergency, should you close the furnace door if you find it open?

A

No. Closing the furnace door can cause severe pulsation.

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33
Q

After shutting down the power and the fuel supply valve, what is the proper way to extinguish a fire in the combustion chamber of an oil burner?

A

Let it burn out on its own.

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34
Q

If smoke is filling the burner room accompanied by an oily odor, suspect __________.

A

A blocked or disconnected flue or chimney.

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35
Q

The primary threat of an oil spill in a basement is that the vapors will __________.

A

Make the occupants of the building sick.

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36
Q

Typically, on residential water heaters, the temperature-pressure valve will function if the water reaches __________ or if the pressure exceeds __________.

A

210 Degrees
150 psi

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37
Q

Name 2 symptoms of a defective temperature-pressure valve.

A

Steam or hot water discharging from the temp-pressure valve, or steam rather than water discharging from an opened hot water faucet.

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38
Q

Name 2 symptoms of a defective low-water cutoff.

A

A red-hot water heater and the smell of hot metal.

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39
Q

When the homeowner reports having heard a loud whooshing sound prior to noticing fire near the gas water heater, what problem is usually indicated?

A

Delayed Ignition

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40
Q

The natural gas intended for domestic use contains 70 to 90 percent __________, with __________ making up most of the remainder.

A

Methane
Ethane

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41
Q

Although natural gas is nontoxic, it can cause death by __________.

A

Asphyxiation

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42
Q

Typically, the odorant added to natural gas is __________.

A

Mercaptan

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43
Q

Natural gas is about __________ as dense as air.

A

2/3

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44
Q

High pressure gas transmission lines can be pressurized to as much as __________.

A

350 psi

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45
Q

Each end user has a gas regulator installed to lower the pressure down to a usable pressure of about __________.

A

1/4 psi

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46
Q

The main danger of having water in a gas line is that it can __________ in the same way that an air slug would.

A

Cause flameout

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47
Q

For every increase in temperature of 459 degrees F, the volume of air __________.

A

Doubles

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48
Q

To some extent, odorants can be absorbed by iron gas pipe, but only when the pipe is __________.

A

New

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49
Q

What device enables you to determine not only that natural gas is present, but also its concentration and whether or not it is within its flammable range?

A

Digital Flammable Gas Detector

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50
Q

Name 2 probable results of excessive gas flow to an appliance.

A
  1. The gas flame can either be blown out l, possibly resulting in a gas leak.
  2. The flame may grow, possibly to dangerous heights.
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51
Q

Blocked burner ports, accumulated dirt, and low gas pressure can all result in __________.

A

Delayed Ignition

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52
Q

Don’t extinguish a gas fire until you __________.

A

Shit off the escaping gas

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53
Q

Could keying the mic on a potable radio be enough to set off an explosion at a response to an interior gas leak?

A

Yes

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54
Q

When responding to an interior gas leak, you should position apparatus defensively against __________ and __________.

A

Explosion and Structural Collapse

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55
Q

True or False:
The hazards associated with a propane gas leak are different from those of a natural gas leak.

A

True

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56
Q

In the case of a slight leak, is a gas indicator likely to give accurate results if you slip the probe underneath the door of a locked apartment? Why?

A

No, because the gas has probably accumulated near the ceiling.

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57
Q

The shutoff found on the supply side of a gas meter is known as a __________.

A

Meter Quarter-turn Wingcock

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58
Q

True or False:
Since metal pipe is conductive, gas leaking from a metal pipe poses a static electricity hazard.

A

False. Plastic pipe, specifically because it is non-conductive, will allow a static charge to build up as gas flows freely through a break in the pipe. No static charge will build up on a conductive metal pipe.

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59
Q

Is it possible to stop the flow of gas from a small plastic pipe by folding the pipe over on itself?

A

Yes, but you must consider static electricity as a possible source of ignition and take proper precautions.

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60
Q

Freshwater weighs approximately __________ pounds per cubic foot at 40 degrees F.

A

62.4 pounds

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61
Q

By weight, how much water will be on a 30- by 45-foot roof if the water level is 3” deep?

A

30’ x 45’ = 1350 sq. ft.
1350 x 0.25’ (depth) = 337.5 cubic ft.
337.5 x 62.4 lbs = 21,060 lbs.

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62
Q

When siphoning water off a roof, the author recommends that you use a length or two of 1” rubber booster line since it will __________.

A

Resist kinking

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63
Q

One disadvantage of using an eductor is that it requires that a __________ be left at the scene of a dewatering operation.

A

Pumper

64
Q

Describe what may happen if rising water meets an electrical outlet.

A

It can cause a short that trips the circuit breaker, or it can start a fire. If the breaker doesn’t trip, the area near the submerged outlet can become electrically charged.

65
Q

True or False:
Dewatering a flooded basement removes the threat of electrocution.

A

False. Water that is still in the ceiling, in walls, and on wire and appliances can cause switches, appliances, and even countertops and floors to become electrically charged.

66
Q

True or False:
When looking at sagging plasterboard ceiling to relieve the buildup of water above it, you should use the handle of the pike pole.

A

True, since the handle of a pike pole is less likely than the hook-shaped head to cause the ceiling to collapse as you withdraw it.

67
Q

When called to the scene of a reported water main break, what should your first action be?

A

Verify that the leak is from the main.

68
Q

Is it possible to shut a hydrant too quickly? Why or why not?

A

Yes. Shutting a hydrant too quickly can create a water hammer, which may burst the water main.

69
Q

Explain why, if the source of the street flooding isn’t obvious, you should search for the location of a broken water main on foot.

A

The possibility exists that the road has been undermined and that the weight of the apparatus will collapse it.

70
Q

A FF should treat every vehicle fire as a potential __________.

A

HazMat Incident

71
Q

To avoid the hazard of shock-absorbing bumpers, how should you approach a burning vehicle?

A

From the sides.

72
Q

What 2 gases are formed within a battery as it charges?

A

Hydrogen and Oxygen

73
Q

The explosive range of hydrogen is from __________ to __________.

A

4% lower to 71% upper

74
Q

In some vehicles, particularly those with __________ engines, there may be more than one battery.

A

Diesel

75
Q

What is the principle hazard associated with the fuel lines of modern fuel-injected vehicles?

A

The fuel line, which may convey gasoline at 30 psi, will retain its pressure even after the engine has been shut off.

76
Q

Are power steering fluid and automatic transmission fluid flammable?

A

Yes, when released under pressure in the form of a spray.

77
Q

A fire impinging on a propane cylinder may lead to what type of explosion?

A

BLEVE

78
Q

Can the fuel tank of a vehicle powered by compressed natural gas experience the same type of explosion as a propane tank?

A

No. A CNG tank can’t experience a BLEVE since it contains a gas, not a liquid.

79
Q

If, after a fire in a vehicle has been put out, a thorough search of the interior and trunk of the vehicle reveals no victims, is the search complete?

A

No. There may be a pedestrian pinned under the vehicle.

80
Q

The author recommends thoroughly searching the trunk at every incident, but particularly under what condition?

A

When the vehicle is found in a remote area.

81
Q

Normally, if the burning vehicle is on a slope, you should place the apparatus _________ of it.

A

Uphill

82
Q

Name 2 ways to introduce water into the trunk besides opening or cutting the lid.

A
  1. From the passenger compartment, if the backseat has been burned out or removed.
  2. By breaking a taillight and inserting a nozzle into the hole.
83
Q

Treat a car burning inside a garage as a __________.

A

Structure Fire

84
Q

How can a vise grip be used to hold up a garage door?

A

By clamping it to the track below the doors rollers.

85
Q

When setting out flares to warn traffic of an incident site, how should they be placed?

A

To beyond the estimated stopping range of oncoming traffic, and slanting to cover the farthest lane occupied by emergency personnel.

86
Q

When responding to a food-on-the-stove call, the type of incident that you encounter depends in large degree on __________.

A

The type of food being cooked.

87
Q

True or False:
The method of forcible entry used at a food on the stove incident should be in strict accordance with SOPs so as to protect the department against legal action.

A

False. The method s/b decoded on a case by case basis.

88
Q

If you receive a number of calls for an odor of smoke at a multifamily residence, need you check out each one?

A

Yes.

89
Q

Smoke from burning food probably contains nitrogen dioxide. Name some symptoms of NO2 poisoning.

A

Nausea, stomach pains, vomiting, oxygen deficiency in the blood, altered blood pressure, headaches, delayed onset of symptoms.

90
Q

What is perhaps the best way to open a double-sash window to ventilate an apartment?

A

2/3 at the top, 1/3 at the bottom.

91
Q

If a FF encounters heat while searching for victims and the source of the smoke, it is an indication that __________.

A

It’s no longer a food on the stove call, but a structure fire.

92
Q

Is extension a possibility if you find a pot that is only smoking?

A

Yes, there may have been open flame before you arrived.

93
Q

True or False:
Spraying water into a pan of burning cooking oil may cause the oil to splatter, but it will suppress the flames.

A

False. The hot oil can vaporize, ignite, and flare up even higher.

94
Q

Is a glass of water enough to out out a fire in the oven?

A

Yes. The steam that’s generated after you close the door will probably smother the fire.

95
Q

If the shutoff typically found before the flexible connector was involved in the fire or doesn’t work, then you should __________.

A

Shut off the gas at the meter.

96
Q

After extinguishing a mattress fire in an apartment, where must you search?

A

The entire apartment, the adjoining apartments, and the apartment above, at minimum.

97
Q

Even after dousing a mattress fire with an extinguisher, you should __________.

A

Thoroughly soak the mattress with a hand line.

98
Q

To thoroughly extinguish a smoldering mattress, you should __________.

A

Cut open the mattress to extinguish fire at its core.

99
Q

True or False:
Extinguishing the fire in a foam mattress will curtail the generation of combustible gases.

A

False. Foam mattresses and those with foam pads can continue to generate combustible gases even after the active flames have been extinguished.

100
Q

To avoid an eruption of flames when pushing a mattress out a window, how should you prepare the mattress?

A

Fold the mattress in half so that the burned side is toward the fold, then tie it closed.

101
Q

True or False:
It is advisable to use an elevator when that is the fastest way to get a burned mattress out of a building.

A

False

102
Q

What is the best way to stay out of the smoke if, for whatever reason, you aren’t equipped with SCBA at a rubbish fire?

A

Use the reach of your line and attack the fire with the wind at your back.

103
Q

Why isn’t the type of occupancy an adequate indication of the hazards associated with a fire in the dumpster out back?

A

Any dumpster is prone to the illegal dumping of hazardous materials.

104
Q

True or False:
Because of the many void spaces in trash, it is better to overhaul a dumpster fire manually than hydraulically.

A

False

105
Q

The primary life hazard at a dumpster fire is that of __________.

A

The FF

106
Q

Perhaps the best way to overhaul a pile of automobiles at a junkyard fire is to use __________ in conjunction with hydraulic overhaul techniques.

A

Heavy Equipment

107
Q

The author mentions a simple way of identifying holes in the floors and stairways of derelict buildings. What is it?

A

Shine bright lights up from below.

108
Q

When directing a master stream into a derelict building, how can an IC judge whether too much water is collecting in or being absorbed by the structure?

A

By monitoring the runoff.

109
Q

What is the purpose of marking a derelict building?

A

To warn FF at future incidents of the building’s relative stability at the time it was marked.

110
Q

CO has more than __________ times the affinity for hemoglobin as oxygen.

A

200 times

111
Q

True or False:
Although burning oil and propane are well known to produce CO, natural gas does not.

A

False

112
Q

Underwriters Laboratories has set the minimums for CO detectors in its standard known as __________.

A

UL 2034

113
Q

Why wasn’t CO poisoning in the home as much of a recognized problem prior to the 1970s as it is today? Give 2 reasons.

A
  1. Improved energy efficiency has made modern homes more airtight.
  2. Many CO-related deaths and illnesses in previous years weren’t attributed to CO.
114
Q

By current statistics, how many deaths in the US are attributable to CO poisoning each year? How many illnesses?

A

About 1,500 deaths; 10,000 illnesses.

115
Q

A hemoglobin molecule has how many binding sites for oxygen?

A

4

116
Q

As the body is deprived of oxygen, the body tries to compensate by increasing the __________.

A

Breathing Rate

117
Q

Given continuous exposure to carbon monoxide, a person’s COHb level will rise until equilibrium is established with __________.

A

The ambient level of CO.

118
Q

A 3% COHb level at a mere 1,400 feet is equivalent to __________ % at sea level.

A

20%

119
Q

The smaller the victim’s body mass, the __________ and __________ the effect of CO on his system.

A

Greater and faster.

120
Q

What tissues of the body are the most quickly and most adversely affected by CO?

A

Those that require the most oxygen - e.g. the cardiovascular system and the brain.

121
Q

Is cherry red coloration of a suspected victim a reliable indicator of CO poisoning?

A

No

122
Q

Mild CO poisoning mimics the systems of __________.

A

The flu.

123
Q

With 100% oxygen and a tight fitting mask, the half-life of bloodstream CO drops to about __________.

A

80 minutes

124
Q

True or False:
Hyperbaric patients can later suffer a relapse as CO is slowly released from muscle tissue.

A

True

125
Q

The vapor density of CO is __________.

A

0.96

126
Q

The explosive range of CO is __________ to __________.

A

12.5% to 74%

127
Q

__________ fuels create the most CO, __________ fuels general less, and __________ fuels produce the least.

A

Solid > Liquid > Gas

128
Q

Why will a cold pot temporarily increase the formation of CO when it is placed on the burner of a gas stove?

A

Because it lowers the temperature of the flame.

129
Q

Before reaching operating temperature, a gas oven can give off as much as __________ ppm of CO.

A

800

130
Q

What is reverse stacking?

A

A mechanically induced downdraft.

131
Q

According to the text, a car that hasn’t been warmed up can initially give off __________ ppm of CO.

A

30,000

132
Q

In terms of percentages, approximately how many US homes are currently equipped with CO detectors?

A

6%

133
Q

Who should determine exactly how many ambulances are needed when Dispatch receives a call for a CO emergency?

A

The officer of the first arriving company.

134
Q

True or False:
The amount of CO that sets off an alarm would usually, given time, be lethal.

A

False

135
Q

To detect low-level sources, it’s important that a FF use a CO meter capable of sensing gas levels from _________ ppm to at least __________ ppm, and preferably __________ ppm.

A

0 > 200 > 999

136
Q

Which government agency sets the most stringent standards for acceptable levels of CO?

A

The EPA

137
Q

When interviewing an occupant at a CO response, you should first take readings __________.

A

At the door.

138
Q

If, after a thorough search of the house for CO and defective appliances, you find nothing, you should __________.

A

Set up a worst case scenario.

139
Q

A CO meter that can record CO activity in a home over time and later download the info don’t a computer is called a __________.

A

Datalogger

140
Q

A gas flame that isn’t properly adjusted and is giving off excess CO will be __________ or _________ in color.

A

Yellow or orange

141
Q

What sort of detector absorbs ambient CO and is based on synthetic hemoglobin contained in a small gel cell?

A

Biomemetic

142
Q

The more CO that a gel cell absorbs, the __________ it gets.

A

Darker

143
Q

Is the color of the module a sufficient indicator to tell whether a CO detector is of an old or new design?

A

No

144
Q

In a semiconductor CO detector, oxygen __________ the electrical resistance of the tin dioxide sensor, whereas CO __________ it.

A

Increases > Decreases

145
Q

What is the power source used for a semiconductor detector?

A

110 volt house current.

146
Q

As semiconductor detectors age, do them become more or less sensitive?

A

More Sensitive

147
Q

Semiconductor CO detectors may react to high levels of __________ as if they’d been exposed to CO.

A

Natural Gas

148
Q

This type of detector is composed of three electrodes in a paste-like electrolyte and a membrane that is porous only to gas.

A

Electrochemical

149
Q

The typical lifespan of any CO detector is about __________.

A

5 Years

150
Q

Originally published in April 1992, UL 2032 was revised in October of what year?

A

1995

151
Q

The 1992 version of UL 2032 required that the detectors sound an alarm when the CO present in the air would cause the COHb in a healthy adult to reach _________ percent.

A

10

152
Q

At 400 ppm, UL 2032 requires a CO detector to sound an alarm within what length of time?

A

15 Minutes

153
Q

True or False:
UL requires that detectors remain silent for a specified period of exposure to specified amounts of CO.

A

True

154
Q

The revised UL standard requires that a detector pass the rush hour test for how many days in a row?

A

Thirty

155
Q

Does the revised UL standard require all CO detectors to have a reset button?

A

Yes

156
Q

The International Approval Service (IAS) standard requires that an alarm not sound before the occupant’s COHb levels reach __________ percent.

A

5

157
Q

True or False:
CO detectors may be triggered by a thermal inversion.

A

True

Fire Officer 2024 (4 decks)

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