Responding to "Routine" Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

When responding to an odor of smoke in a commercial occupancy, telephone exchange, or a building that houses a transformer, one hazard may be present in the burning insulation?

A

Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)

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2
Q

At an odor of smoke call, flickering, Tim, or nonfunctioning fluorescent lamp can indicate that the _________ is heating up.

A

ballast

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3
Q

It is possible, in ballast devices manufactured before 1979, that the capacitor contains a small amount of ____ contaminated dielectric fluid.

A

PCB

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4
Q

True or false: removing a fluorescent lamp smaller than eight feet will stop the flow of electricity.

A

False

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5
Q

underwriter laboratories didn’t require thermal protection for approved recessed lighting until what year?

A

1982

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6
Q

since the smell of overheating rubber mimics that of an electrical problem, you should consider checking ____________at an electrical odor call.

A

the belts of major appliances

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7
Q

If you suspect that ignited lint is the source of the smoke condition, you’ll have to check both the clothes dryer itself and the entire run of the

A

vent duct.

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8
Q

True or false: a loose wire in a junction box may cause overheating in another box, provoking a fire remote from the cause.

A

True

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9
Q

a non-invasive way to check behind the wall for hot wires, smoldering beams, or active flaming is to use a

A

TIC

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10
Q

should the fire department open sealed electrical boxes?

A

No

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11
Q

in a residential building, will opening the main switch necessarily cut off all power to the home?

A

No

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12
Q

true or false: some new meters may be removed without interrupting the flow of electricity into the building.

A

True

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13
Q

does aluminum siding pose a threat of shock hazard?

A

Yes

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14
Q

name four dangers associated with spraying water on a burning pole mounted transformer.

A
  1. Electrocution,
  2. PCB contamination,
  3. Explosion,
  4. Down wires
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15
Q

treat all wires as if they were

A

live

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16
Q

Is it entirely safe to use a rope or a wooden Pike pole to remove a downed power line from a vehicle?

A

No

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17
Q

when power lines are down, danger zone should be at least ________in either direction of the fault.

A

one span between poles

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18
Q

If, at the request of the utility company, the decision is made to flood in electrical manhole, the proper procedure you should follow is to

A

tie off the butt end of an open hose and remove all personnel to a safe distance.

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19
Q

The major problem experienced with electrical manholes in the North East is deterioration due to

A

salt corrosion

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20
Q

The gases generated by burning wiring are not only noxious and deadly, they are also _______and ________.

A

flammable and explosive

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21
Q

The author recommends that you routinely test for dangerous levels of ____at every manhole incident.

A

CO

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22
Q

Who should pull the cover off of a smoking manhole?

A

appropriately trained utility personnel.

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23
Q

The most common home heating fuels are ___and _______.

A

oil and natural gas.

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24
Q

Based on its viscosity, fuel oil is separated into how many grades?

A

6

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25
Q

the capacity of the fuel tank in a private dwelling is typically ___ gallons.

A

275 gallons.

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26
Q

To ignite the fuel oil in the combustion chamber of an oil burner, the fuel is _____, thus increasing its surface area.

A

atomized

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27
Q

Safety devices allowing oil burner pump to operate for no more than about ___seconds if no flames present.

A

90 seconds

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28
Q

This oil burner emergency occurs when unburned atomized fuel is ignited at the start of the burn cycle, resulting in an explosion. ____________.

A

Delayed ignition - Puff back.

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29
Q

The burning of pooled oil in the combustion chamber after the burner has shut down is known as ________.

A

afterburner.

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30
Q

This condition occurs when the flame repeatedly jumps away from and then returns to the burner nosecone. ________

A

Pulsation

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31
Q

since the white ghost is a potentially explosive situation, you should treat it as a _________

A

gas leak.

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32
Q

On arrival at an oil burner emergency, should you close the furnace door if you find it open? __________________.

A

No, closing the door causes severe pulsation.

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33
Q

After shutting down the power in the fuel supply valve, what is the proper way to extinguish a fire in the combustion chamber of an oil burner? __________________

A

Let it burn out on its own.

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34
Q

If smoke is filling the burner room accompanied by an oily odor, suspect _______________________

A

a blocked or disconnected flue or chimney.

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35
Q

The primary threat of an oil spill in the basement is that the vapors _____________________

A

will make the occupants of the building sick.

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36
Q

Typically, on residential water heaters, the temperature or pressure valve will function if the water reaches _________ or if the pressure exceeds ______.

A

210 degrees F or if the pressure exceeds 150psi.

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37
Q

Name two symptoms of a defective temperature - pressure valve. 1. ____________ 2. ______________.

A
  1. Steam or hot water discharging from the temp - pressure valve.
  2. Steam coming from the faucet.
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38
Q

Name two symptoms of a defective low-water cutoff. 1. _______, 2. __________.

A
  1. Red hot water heater,

2. Smell of hot metal.

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39
Q

When the homeowner reports having heard a loud whooshing sound prior to noticing fire near the gas water heater, what problem is usually indicated? ____________

A

Delayed ignition (Puff back)

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40
Q

The natural gas intended for domestic use contain 70 to 90 percent ________, with _______making up most of the remainder.

A

methane, with ethane

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41
Q

Although natural gas is non-toxic, it can cause death by ________.

A

asphyxiation.

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42
Q

Typically, the odorant added to natural gas is ________.

A

Mercaptan.

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43
Q

Natural gas is about ___ as dense as air.

A

2/3

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44
Q

High-pressure gas transmission lines can be pressurized to as much as _______.

A

350 PSI.

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45
Q

Each end-user has a gas regulator installed to lower the pressure down to a usable pressure of about ___ PSI.

A

1/4 PSI.

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46
Q

The main danger of having water in a gas line is that he can cause ________in the same way that an air slug would.

A

flameout

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47
Q

For every increase in temperature of 4590F, the volume of air ________.

A

doubles.

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48
Q

To some extent, odorants can be absorbed by iron gas pipe, but only when the pipe is ____.

A

new.

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49
Q

What device enables you to determine not only that natural gas is present, but also its concentration and whether or not it is within its flammable range?

A

Digital flammable gas detectors

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50
Q

name the two probable results of excessive gas flow to an appliance. 1. ________ 2. _____________.

A
  1. Blowout

2. Flame may grow too high.

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51
Q

Blocked burner ports, accumulated dirt, and low gas pressure can all result in _____________.

A

delayed ignition.

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52
Q

Don’t extinguish a gas fire until you ________________.

A

shut off the escaping gas.

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53
Q

Could keying the mic on a portable radio be enough to set off an explosion at a response to an interior gas leak?

A

Yes

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54
Q

when responding to an interior gas leak, you should position apparatus defensively against _______and ____________.

A

explosion and structural collapse.

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55
Q

True or false: the hazards associated with a propane gas leak are different from those of a natural gas leak.

A

True

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56
Q

in the case of a slight leak, is a gas indicator likely to give accurate results if you slip the probe underneath the door of a locked apartment? Why?

A

No, gas accumulates near the ceiling.

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57
Q

The shutoff found on the supply side of a gas meter is known as a _________________

A

meter 1/4 turn wingcock.

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58
Q

True or false: since metal pipe is conductive, and gas leaking from a metal pipe poses a static electricity hazard.

A

False (Plastic pipe is nonconductive and static can build up).

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59
Q

It is possible to stop the flow of gas from a small plastic pipe by folding the pipe over on itself? ______________________.

A

Yes, but you must consider static electricity

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60
Q

Fresh water weighs approximately ____ pounds per cubic foot at 40 degrees F.

A

62.4

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61
Q

By weight, how much water will be on a 30X45 foot roof if the water level is 3” deep?

A

1,350 sqft X 0.25’ = 21,060 pounds

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62
Q

when siphoning water off a roof, the author recommends that you use a length or two of one inch rubber booster lines since it will _______.

A

resist kinking.

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63
Q

One disadvantage of using an inductor is that it requires that a ________be left at the scene of a dewatering operation.

A

pumper

64
Q

Describe what may happen if rising water meets an electrical outlet. It can - ____, ____________, ____.

A

It can - short, electrical hazard, fire.

65
Q

True or false: dewatering a flooded basement removes the threat of electrocution.

A

False

66
Q

true or false: when poking a sagging plasterboard ceiling to relieve the built-up of water above it, you should use the handle of the Pike pole.

A

True, less likely to snag the ceiling.

67
Q

Is it possible to shut a hydrant too quickly?

A

Yes

68
Q

when called to the scene of a reported water main break, what should your first action be?

A

Verify that the leak is from the main.

69
Q

Explain why, if the source of the street flooding isn’t obvious, you should search for the location of a broken water main on foot.

A

It’s possible that the road has been undermined and the weight of the apparatus will collapse the road.

70
Q

A firefighter should treat every vehicle fire has a potential ___________.

A

hazmat incident.

71
Q

To avoid the hazard of shock absorbing bumpers, how should you approach a burning vehicle?

A

From the sides.

72
Q

What two gases are formed within a battery as it charges? ______and _______.

A

Hydrogen and oxygen.

73
Q

Explosive range of hydrogen is from ___________to _________.

A

4% lower to 71% upper.

74
Q

In some vehicles typically those with ________engines, there may be more than one battery.

A

diesel

75
Q

What is the principle hazard associated with the fuel lines of modern fuel injected vehicles?

A

A fuel line at 30 PSI will retain its pressure even after the engine is shut off.

76
Q

Our power steering fluid and automatic transmission fluid flammable?

A

Yes

77
Q

a fire impinging on a propane cylinder may lead to what type of explosion?

A

BLEVE.

78
Q

Can the fuel tank of a vehicle powered by compressed natural gas experience the same type of explosion as a propane tank?

A

No, no BLEVE because it contains a gas and not a liquid.

79
Q

If, after a fire in a vehicle has been put out, a thorough search of the interior and trunk of the vehicle reveals no victims, is the search complete?

A

No, always check under the vehicle for victims.

80
Q

The author recommends thoroughly searching the trunk at every incident, but particularly under what condition?

A

When the car is found in remote areas.

81
Q

Normally, the burning vehicle is on a slope, you should place the apparatus ______of it.

A

uphill

82
Q

Name two ways to introduce water into the trunk besides opening or cutting the lid.
1. _________, 2. ________________

A
  1. Through the backseat,

2. Breaking a taillight and inserting the nozzle.

83
Q

Treated car burning inside a garage as a

A

structure fire.

84
Q

How can a vice grip be used to hold up a garage door?

A

By clamping it on the track below the rollers.

85
Q

When setting out flares to warn traffic of an incident site, how should they be placed?

A

Beyond the stopping range of oncoming traffic, and slanting to cover the farthest lane occupied by emergency vehicles.

86
Q

when responding to a food-on-the-stove call, the type of incident that you encounter depends in large degree on _________________

A

the type of food being cooked.

87
Q

True or false: the method of forcible entry used at a food on the stove incident should be in strict accordance with SOP’s so as to protect the department against legal action.

A

False Case-by-case basis

88
Q

if you receiving a number of calls for an odor of smoke at a multifamily residence, need to check out each one?

A

Yes

89
Q

smoke from burning food probably contains nitrogen dioxide. Name some of the symptoms of NO2 poisoning. ___, ________, ____________, ________, _________, _________

A

N/V, stomach pains, O2 deficiency in blood,

headache, altered B/P, delayed onset of symptoms.

90
Q

You what is perhaps the best way to open a double sash window to ventilate an apartment? ____________, _______________.

A

2/3 at the top, ½ at the bottom.

91
Q

If a firefighter encounters heat while searching for victims and the source of the smoke, it is an indication that_________________.

A

it’s now a structure fire.

92
Q

Is extension a possibility if you find a pot that is only smoking?

A

Yes, there may have been opened flame P TOA.

93
Q

true or false: spraying water into a pan of burning cooking oil may cause the oil to splatter, but it will suppress the flames.

A

False, the hot oil can vaporized, ignite, and flareup even higher.

94
Q

Is a glass of water enough to put out a fire in an oven?

A

Yes, the steam generated after you close the door will probably smother the fire.

95
Q

shut off the gas at the meter.

A

shut off the gas at the meter.

96
Q

After extinguishing a mattress fire in an apartment, where must you search? _________, the __________, and __________at minimum.

A

Entire apartment, the adjoining apartment, and apartment above at minimum.

97
Q

Even after dousing a mattress fire within extinguisher, ____________________________.

A

you should thoroughly soak a mattress with a hand line.

98
Q

To thoroughly extinguish a smoldering mattress you should _______.

A

cut it open.

99
Q

True or false: extinguishing the fire in a foam mattress will curtail the generation of combustible gases.

A

False

100
Q

to avoid eruption of flames when pushing mattress out a window, how should you prepare the mattress? _______________, _______________, then _______.

A

Fold the mattress in half, Burnside inside, then tie it up.

101
Q

True or false: it is advisable to use an elevator when that is the fastest way to get a burned mattress out of the building.

A

False

102
Q

What is the best way to stay out of the smoke if, for whatever reason, you aren’t equipped with a SCBA at a rubbish fire?

A

Use the reach of your line and keep the wind at your back.

103
Q

Why isn’t the type of occupancy an adequate indication of the hazards associated with a fire in the dumpster out back? .

A

Any dumpster is prone to illegal hazmat dumping.

104
Q

True or false: because of the many void spaces in trash, it is better to overhaul a dumpster fire manually than hydraulically.

A

False

105
Q

the primary life hazard at a dumpster fire is that of _________.

A

firefighter

106
Q

perhaps the best way to overhaul a pile of automobiles at a junkyard fire is to use ___________in conjunction with hydraulic overhaul techniques.

A

heavy equipment

107
Q

The author mentions a simple way of identifying holes in the floor’s and stairways of derelict buildings. What is it?

A

Shine bright lights up from below.

108
Q

When directing a master stream into a derelict building, how can an incident commander judge whether too much water is collecting in or being absorbed by the structure?

A

By monitoring the runoff.

109
Q

What is the purpose of marking a derelict building?

A

To warn firefighters at future incidents of the building’s relative stability at the time it was marked.

110
Q

Carbon monoxide has more than ____the affinity for hemoglobin as oxygen.

A

200X

111
Q

True or false: although burning oil and propane are well known to produce carbon monoxide, natural gas does not.

A

False

112
Q

Underwriters Laboratories has set the minimums for CO detectors in its standard known as _________.

A

UL 2034.

113
Q

Why wasn’t CO poisoning in the home as much of a recognized problem prior to the 1970s as it is today? Give two reasons.
1. _________________, 2._________________.
illnesses – _________ Deaths – _______

A
  1. Modern homes are airtight,
  2. Many CO deaths and illnesses weren’t attributed to CO.

illnesses – 10,000 Deaths – 1,500

114
Q

A hemoglobin molecule has how many binding sites for oxygen?

A

4

115
Q

as the body is deprived of oxygen, the body tries to compensate by increasing the ____________.

A

breathing rate.

116
Q

Giving continuous exposure to carbon monoxide, a person’s COHb level will rise until equilibrium is established with the _________.

A

ambient level of CO.

117
Q

A 3% COHb level at a mere 1,400 feet is equivalent to ____ COHb at sea level.

A

20%

118
Q

The smaller the victim’s body mass, the ________and _______the effect of CO on his system.

A

greater and faster

119
Q

What tissues of the body are the most quickly in most adversely affected by carbon monoxide? ______________, and _____.

A

Cardiovascular system, and brain.

120
Q

Cherry red coloration of a suspect victim a reliable indicator of CO poisoning?

A

No, late sign.

121
Q

Mild CO poisoning mimics the symptoms of ______.

A

the flu.

122
Q

With 100% oxygen and a tight-fitting mask, the half-life of blood stream CO drops to about ___________.

A

80 minutes.

123
Q

True or false: hyperbaric patients can later suffer a relapse of CO is slowly released from the muscle tissue.

A

True

124
Q

The vapor density of carbon monoxide is ____.

A

.96

125
Q

explosive range of carbon monoxide is _____ to ____.

A

12.5 to 74%.

126
Q

_______fuels create the most carbon monoxide,
_______fuels generate less, and
___ fuels produced the least.

A

Solid
liquid
gas

127
Q
  1. Why will a cold pot temporarily increase the formation of CO when it is placed on the burner of a gas stove?
A

Because it lowers the temp of the flame.

128
Q
  1. Before reaching operating temperature, a gas oven can give off as much as ______ of carbon monoxide.
A

800 ppm

129
Q

What is reverse stacking?

A

Mechanically induced downdraft.

130
Q

According to the text, a car that hasn’t been warmed up can initially give off __________ or more of carbon monoxide.

A

30,000 ppm

131
Q

In terms of percentages, approximately how many U.S. homes are currently equipped with CO detectors?

A

6%

132
Q

who should determine exactly how many ambulances are needed when dispatch received a call for a CO emergency?

A

The officer of the first arriving fire company.

133
Q

True or false: the amount of CO that sets off an alarm would usually, given time, be lethal.

A

False

134
Q

to detect low-level sources, it is important that a firefighter use a CO meter capable of sensing gas levels from _____to at least _____, and preferably _______.

A

0 ppm
200 ppm,
999 ppm.

135
Q

Which government agency sets the most stringent standards for acceptable levels of CO?

A

EPA

136
Q

when interviewing an occupant at a CO response, you should first take readings_______.

A

at the door.

137
Q

If, after a thorough search of the house for CO and defective appliances, you find nothing, you should ___________________

A

set up a worst-case scenario.

138
Q

Carbon monoxide meter they can record CO activity in a home over time and later download information into a computer is called a ____________.

A

datalogger.

139
Q

A gas flame that isn’t properly adjusted and is giving off excess CO will be _______or ________in color.

A

yellow or orange

140
Q

What sort of detector absorbs ambient CO and is based on synthetic hemoglobin contained in a small gel cell? .

A

Biomimetic.

141
Q

The more CO that the gel cell absorbs, the ________it gets.

A

darker

142
Q

Is the color of the module a sufficient indicator to tell whether a CO detector is of an old or new design?

A

No

143
Q

in a semiconductor detector, oxygen _________the electrical resistance of the tin dioxide sensor, whereas carbon monoxide ________it.

A

increases, decreases

144
Q

What is the power source used for a semiconductor detector?

A

110 volt house current.

145
Q

As semiconductor detectors age, do they become more or less sensitive?

A

More

146
Q

semiconductor detectors may react to high levels of __________as if they had been exposed to CO.

A

natural gas

147
Q

This type of detector is composed of three electrodes in a pastelike electrolyte in a membrane that is porous only to gas. __________

A

Electrochemical

148
Q

the typical lifespan of any carbon monoxide detector is about ________.

A

5 years.

149
Q

Originally published in April 1992, UL 2034 was revised in October of what year?

A

1995

150
Q

the 1992 version of the standard required that the detectors sound an alarm when the CO present in the air would cause the COHb in a healthy adult to reach ____.

A

10%.

151
Q

At 400 ppm, UL 2034 requires a CO detector to sound an alarm within what length of time?

A

15 minutes

152
Q

true or false: UL requires that detectors remain silent for a specified period of exposure to specified amounts of CO.

A

True

153
Q

revised UL standard requires that a detector pass the rush-hour test for how many days in a row?

A

30

154
Q

does the revised standard require all CO detectors to have a reset button?

A

Yes

155
Q

the International Approval Service (IAS) standard requires that an alarm not sound before the occupants COHb levels reach ____.

A

5%.

156
Q

True or false: carbon monoxide detectors may be triggered by a thermal inversion.

A

True