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2015: SAM (RUSVM) > Respiratory System Intro & Nasal Disease > Flashcards

Respiratory System Intro & Nasal Disease Flashcards

1
Q

Oxygen levels in the blood, lungs and/or tissues is low

A

Hypoxia

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2
Q

Insufficient oxygenation of the blood

A

Hypoxemia

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3
Q

Respiratory stimulant when

PaO2 is less than _________

(normal 90 – 110 mmHg)

A

< 50 mmHg

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4
Q

A term used to describe increased CO2 levels, respiratory stimulant

A

Hypercapnia

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5
Q

Bluish to red-purple color in the tissues, due to increased amounts of deoxygenated or reduced hemoglobin

A

Cyanosis

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6
Q

T/F:

An animal with cyanosis will have abnormal

hematocrit values

A

FALSE!

Hematocrit is NORMAL in animals with cyanosis

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7
Q

Arterial SaO2 must = 73 and

pulse ox must =78%

(PaO2 39 - 44mmHg)

before _____ is found

A

cyanosis

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8
Q

An animal experiencing difficult or labored breathing

is said to have

A

Dyspnea

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9
Q

High pitched inspiratory noise due to

rapid flow of air passed a rigid obstruction

like a paralyzed or collapsed larynx

A

Stridor

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10
Q

Low pitched inspiratory noise

like a gurgling or snoring sound

produced as air passes a soft tissue obstruction

A

Stertor

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11
Q

The sensation of breathlessness/ difficulty breathing in the recumbent position (or when not upright), relieved by sitting or standing.

The animal will adopt a strange position, like sternal recumbency with elbows abducted, the neck extended and open mouth breathing.

A

Orthopnea

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12
Q

Where is the location?

Nasal discharge

A

Upper airways

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13
Q

Where is the location?

Sneezing/reverse sneezing

A

Upper airways

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14
Q

Where is the location?

Increased effort in inspiration

A

Upper airways

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15
Q

Where is the location?

Audible sounds (stridor/stertor)

A

Upper airways

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16
Q

Where is the location?

Inability to breathe if mouth is closed

A

Upper airways

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17
Q

Where is the location?

Pawing at face

A

Upper airways

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18
Q

Where is the location?

Cough (hallmark sign, but DDX is heart disease!)

A

Lower airways

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19
Q

Where is the location?

Respiratory distress

A

Lower airways

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20
Q

Where is the location?

Increased effort in expiration

A

Lower airways

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21
Q

Where is the location?

Crackles and wheezes audible on auscultation

A

Lower airways

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22
Q

Adventitial Sounds (Parenchymal Disease):

Snapping open of the airways

that have closed due to

fluid in or around them

A

CRACKLES

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23
Q

Adventitial Sounds (Parenchymal Disease):

causes by airflow through a narrow opening – airways are constricted/ narrowed

A

Wheezes

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24
Q

Adventitial Sounds (Parenchymal Disease):

loud sharp sound over hilus at end of expiration indicates collapse of the intrathoracic trachea, carina or mainstem bronchi

A

Snaps

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25
Q

Adventitial Sounds (Parenchymal Disease):

The sound heard with tracheal collapse

A

Goose Honks

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26
Q

Adventitial Sounds (Parenchymal Disease):

creaking/ grating sound due to roughened pleural surfaces rubbing against each other

A

Pleural friction rubs

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27
Q

Name the 5 adventitial sounds heard on pulmonary

auscultation indicating parenchymal disease

A

Crackles

Wheezes

Snaps

Goose Honks

Pleural Friction Rubs

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28
Q

The following describe which pleural disease?

Lung sounds are auscultated dorsally

Lungs floating in fluid

Muffled sounds ventrally

Heart sounds are reduced

A

Pleural Effusion

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29
Q

The following describe which pleural disease?

Absence of lung sounds dorsally due to compression

Only present in the ventral field

A

Pneumothorax

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30
Q

What structures are evaluated with

Bronchoscopy?

A

Larynx

Trachea

Bronchi

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31
Q

T/F:

Local anesthesia and a cuffed ETT are

required when performing a Nasal Flush

A

FALSE!

GENERAL anesthesia and a cuffed ETT

are required for Nasal Flush

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32
Q

What is the alternative to Nasal Flushing?

A

Cytobrush

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33
Q

What are the indications for a BAL

(Bronchoalveolar Lavage)?

A

Lung disease involving

small airway

alveoli

and/or

interstitium

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34
Q

Transtracheal vs. Endotracheal Wash/Aspirate

Which is better for a medium or large dog?

A

TT

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35
Q

Transtracheal vs. Endotracheal Wash/Aspirate

Which is better for cats?

A

Endotracheal

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36
Q

Transtracheal vs. Endotracheal Wash/Aspirate

Which requires general anesthesia?

A

Endotracheal

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37
Q

What is the landmark for a transtracheal wash/ aspirate?

A

Cricothyroid Ligament

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38
Q

Which procedure is indicated if

you suspect a nasal foreign body?

A

Nasal Flush

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39
Q

Which procedure is indicated if

you suspect airway or parenchymal disease?

A

Transtracheal or Endotracheal Wash/Aspirate

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40
Q

Which procedure is indicated if you suspect

an intrathoracic lesion in contact with thoracic wall

or

diffuse disease?

A

Transthoracic Lung Aspiration

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41
Q

Which procedure is indicated in the treatment

of Pyothorax

or

Pneumothorax when air is constantly accumulating?

A

Chest Tube

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42
Q

Which category of drug

may allow dose reduction of glucocorticoids

in some cases of allergic bronchitis?

A

Bronchodilators

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43
Q

This category of drug is used

mainly in dogs with a

dry and non-productive cough

due to airway collapse or irritant tracheitis

A

Antitussives

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44
Q

T/F:

Antitussives are good to use

in order to alleviate

all coughs

A

FALSE!

AVOID Antitussives in MOIST coughs!

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45
Q

This respiratory therapy improves

hydration of the lower airways

and

is a way to administer some antibiotics

A

Nebulization followed by Coupage

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46
Q

What are the indications for oxygen therapy?

A

To treat hypoxemia (PaO2 < 90%)

and

To decrease workload of the heart and lungs

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47
Q

What are the clinical signs of nasal disease?

A

Nasal discharge

Sneezing

Pawing at face/pain

Respiratory difficulty upon inspiration

Stertor (noisy respiration)

48
Q

A dog presents with the following:

  1. Sudden onset
  2. Acute sneezing
  3. Gagging/reverse sneezing
  4. Pawing at the nose
    1. Discharge that is serous, mucoid, and/or purulent

What is your diagnosis?

A

Nasal foreign body

49
Q

What are the 2 congenital causes of

nasal discharge?

A
  1. Ciliary Dyskinesia
  2. Nasopharyngeal Stenosis
50
Q

Infectious Rhinitis- Feline Upper Respiratory Disease Complex

What are the 2 most common agents?

A
  • Feline herpesvirus (FHV)*
  • Feline calicivirus (FCV)*
51
Q

Infectious Rhinitis- Feline Upper Respiratory Disease Complex:

Which agent is shed during times of stress?

A

Feline herpesvirus (FHV)

52
Q

What are the less common potential agents of infectious rhinitis in cats?

FHV and FCV (90%)

A
  • Chlamydophila felis*
  • Mycoplasma spp.*
  • Coronavirus*
  • Bordetella spp.*
53
Q

A cat presents with infectious rhinitis and

is displaying the following clinical signs:

Ulcerative keratitis

Punctate or Dendritic ulcers

What is your primary differential?

A

FHV

54
Q

A cat presents with infectious rhinitis

and is displaying the following clinical signs:

Ulcers on nose, tongue, and/or hard palate

Pneumonia

Lameness

What is your primary differential?

A

FCV

55
Q

A cat presents with infectious rhinitis

and is displaying the following clinical signs:

Ulcers on nose, tongue, and/or hard palate

Conjunctivitis

Chemosis

What is your primary differential?

A

Chlamydophila felis

56
Q

The outer surface of the eye (conjunctiva) may look like a big blister.

It can also look like it has fluid in it.

When severe, the tissue swells so much that eyes cannot close properly

The word for this condition is ________

A

Chemosis

57
Q

How is

Feline Herpesvirus (FHV) - Rhinotracheitis

spread?

A

Direct contact

Fomites

58
Q

Feline Herpesvirus (FHV) - Rhinotracheitis

is shed in which 3 secretions?

A

Ocular

Nasal

Pharyngeal

59
Q

What kind of nasal discharge would you

expect to see with FHV?

A

Serous then mucopurulent

due to secondary bacterial infection

60
Q

Which agent of infectious rhinitis establishes

lifelong latency?

A

FHV

61
Q

Where does FHV most commonly establish

lifelong latency?

A

Trigeminal nerve ganglia

62
Q

What are the most common sequelae

associated with FHV?

A

Chronic rhinitis/sinusitis

Chronic conjunctivitis

Epiphora

63
Q

Fibrosis of the lacrimal ducts is known as

A

Epiphora

64
Q

______% of recovered cats become

carriers and shed FHV when stressed

A

80%

65
Q

FHV causes damage to the ______

which predisposes the animal to

secondary bacterial infections in the nasal cavity

A

turbinates

66
Q

T/F:

There is a vaccine for FHV which

prevents cats from contracting most strains

A

FALSE!

It does NOT prevent infection, it only

REDUCES THE SEVERITY of infection

67
Q

Which route of administration for the

FHV vaccination

can be blocked by maternal antibodies

and does NOT prevent a carrier state

A

Parenteral (IV or IM)

68
Q

Which route of administration for the

FHV vaccination is

Useful in outbreaks

NOT blocked by maternal antibodies

May prevent a carrier state

A

Intranasal

69
Q

T/F:

Calicivirus is a DNA-virus with many isolates

and a high mutation rate

A

FALSE!

It is an RNA-virus

70
Q

Which agent of infectious rhinitis in cats can

be shed up to 75 days post-infection

in about half of all recovered cats?

A

Calicivirus

71
Q

The incubation period of Calicivirus

is short, lasting ______ days

A

2 - 4 days

72
Q

Which agent of infectious rhinitis in cats is described

by the following:

Pneumonia is more common

Can result in GI signs

Can cause lameness

A

Calicivirus

73
Q

What are the 2 syndromes associated with

Feline Calicivirus?

A

Limping Kitten Syndrome

Virulent Hemorrhagic Systemic Syndrome

74
Q

Which agent of infectious rhinitis is

an intracellular bacteria?

A

Chlamydophila felis

75
Q

What are the hallmark signs of Chlamydophila felis?

A

Conjunctivitis and Chemosis

76
Q

How can you confirm the diagnosis of

Chlamydophila felis with cytology?

A

Seeing intracytoplasmic inclusion bodies

on a conjunctival swab

77
Q

Which topical decongestant is preferred

for the treatment of congestion

associated with Cat Flu?

A

Phenylephrine

78
Q

What type of nasal discharge are you likely to see

with Bacterial Rhinitis?

A

Mucopurulent to purulent

79
Q

T/F:

Bacterial Rhinitis is a primary disease process

characterized by mucopurulent or purulent

nasal discharge

A

FALSE!

It is almost always a SECONDARY disease process!

80
Q

What type of rhinitis is seen secondary to the following:

  1. Foreign body
  2. Tooth root abscess
  3. Chronic viral infection
  4. Fungal infection
    1. Neoplasia
A

Bacterial Rhinitis

81
Q

A dog presents with sneezing and nasal ulceration with depigmentation

What is your primary differential?

A

Aspergillus fumigatus

Fungal Rhinitis!

82
Q

T/F:

In cases of aspergillosis, you should perform

a CT/MRI BEFORE performing a nasal flush

or rhinoscopy

A

TRUE

83
Q

T/F:

Radiographs are the most helpful tool

for diagnosis of fungal rhinitis

A

FALSE!

Rads cannot distinguish between

fungal rhinitis and neoplasia

CT/MRI is more helpful!

84
Q

What do you expect to see upon

rhinoscopy in a dog with aspergillosis?

A

White plaques!

85
Q

What do you expect to see on cytology

in a dog with aspergillosis?

A

Hyphae

86
Q

What is the best place to take a sample

for a C/S (culture and sensitivity) in the

case of Aspergillus nasal infection?

A

From the white plaques!

(NOT the nasal discharge!)

87
Q

The treatment for fungal rhinitis in dogs

is debridement using conazoles.

When is debridement contraindicated?

A

If the cribriform plate is damaged!

88
Q

What treatment is used in dogs with

cribriform plate osteolysis (damage)

with fungal rhinitis, where debridement is

contraindicated?

A

Systemic antifungal meds!

(Itraconazole)

89
Q

What agent of fungal rhinitis affects cats and dogs

and is commonly found in pigeon droppings?

A

C. neoformans var gattii

90
Q

Submandibular lymphadenopathy and

chorioretinitis are clinical signs associated

with this agent of fungal rhinitis

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

91
Q

A serum titer is a very reliable method for

diagnosis of this agent of fungal rhinitis

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

92
Q

Which agent of fungal rhinitis is seen in

nasal discharge?

A

Cryptococcus neoformans

93
Q

What is the agent of parasitic rhinitis in

dogs only, and is not found in cats?

A

Pneumonyssus caninum

94
Q

This is a mite that parasitizes the naropharynx

of dogs and can be treated with

Ivermectin

A

Pneumonyssus caninum

95
Q
  • Chronic inflammatory rhinitis*
  • characterized by a cell infiltration*
  • into the nasal mucosa*
  • in the absence of any obvious underlying etiology*
A

LPR (Lymphoplasmacytic Rhinitis)

96
Q

What method is used to obtain a definitive diagnosis

of LPR?

A

Histopathology on biopsy samples

97
Q

In LPR, nasal mucosa can be

red, edematous, and bleeding.

What changes are seen in the turbinates?

A

Turbinates are atrophied or destroyed!

98
Q

Which off-label treatment is used in the

tx of LPR?

A

Maropitant (Cerenia)

99
Q

Cerenia, used for the tx of LPR,

blocks __________ from binding to tissues

by antagonizing the receptors for tachykinins

which are released from degranulating mast cells

(and other inflammatory cells)

A

Substance P

100
Q

Which type of dogs are predisposed to

nasal neoplasia?

A

Dolichocephalic breeds

101
Q

When comparing fungal rhinitis to nasal neoplasia,

in which situation would airflow most likely be

NORMAL?

A

Fungal rhinitis

102
Q

This is the reason that there is decreased nasal

cavity airflow in nasal neoplasia

A

The Mass Effect

103
Q

What is the best method for diagnosing

nasal neoplasia?

A

Rhinoscopy with biopsy

104
Q

________ is required to plan treatment

for nasal neoplasia

A

Histopathology

105
Q

What is the most common type of cancer

seen in cases of nasal neoplasia?

A

Adenocarcinoma

106
Q

What is the treatment of choice for most

nasal neoplasias?

A

Radiation

107
Q

Chemotherapy is useful in the treatment

of this type of nasal neoplasia

A

Lymphoma

108
Q

Which has a better prognosis?

Adenocarcinomas or Squamous Cell Carcinomas?

A

Adenocarcinomas

109
Q

Which has a better prognosis?

Nasal sarcomas or undifferentiated carcinomas

A

Sarcomas!

110
Q

Adenocarcinoma and SCC are the most

common types of nasal neoplasia

in __________

A

DOGS

111
Q

What are the 2 most common types of

nasal neoplasia seen in Cats?

A

Adenocarcinoma

Lymphoma

112
Q

This is an immotile ciliary syndrome that is

rare but seen in many dog breeds.

It is inherited via an autosomal recessive trait.

A

Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia (PCD)

113
Q

What respiratory condition is often seen

in cases of PCD?

A

Bronchopneumonia

114
Q

What condition is seen in cases of PCD

in regards to brain and spinal cord ciliary

dysfunction?

A

Hydrocephalus

115
Q

Many animals with this condition

are infertile, due to

sperm immotility

A

PCD

116
Q

This syndrome can be seen in some dogs

with PCD and is characterized by

Situs Inversus

(chronic sinusitis, bronchiectasis,

and reversal of internal organs)

A

Kartagener Syndrome

117
Q

A young, purebred dog presents with recurrent respiratory tract infections/signs.

This is the classic presentation of

A

PCD

2015: SAM (RUSVM) (2 decks)

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