Respiratory System Flashcards

1
Q

In a healthy young subject (blood Hb concentration of 15g/dl), what is the concentration in atmospheric air for O2 and CO2?
(Symbol and value)

A

Fi02= 0.209 (20.9%)

FiCO2= 0.0004 (0.04%)

NB. subscript 2

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2
Q

In a healthy young subject (blood Hb concentration of 15g/dl), what is the partial pressure in alveolar air for O2 and CO2?
(Symbol and value)

A
PAO2= 13.3 kPa (100 mmHg)
PACO2= 5.3 kPa (40 mmHg)

NB. subscript A and 2

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3
Q

In a healthy young subject (blood Hb concentration of 15g/dl), what is the partial pressure in arterial blood for O2 and CO2?
(Symbol and value)

A
PaO2= 13.3 kPa (100 mmHg)
PaCO2= 5.3 kPa (40 mmHg)

NB. subscript a and 2

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4
Q

In a healthy young subject (blood Hb concentration of 15g/dl), what is the partial pressure in mixed venous blood for O2 and CO2?
(Symbol and value)

A
PvO2= 5.3 kPa (40 mmHg)
PvCO2= 6.1 kPa (46 mmHg)

NB. subscript v and 2

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5
Q

What percentage of deaths in the UK are due to respiratory diseases?

A

20%

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6
Q

What are the main causes of respiratory related deaths?

A
Cancer
Pneumonia
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Pulmonary circulatory disease
Pneumoconioses
Asthma
Other respiratory diseases
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7
Q

What is the UK’s biggest cancer killer?

A

Lung cancer

Very small 5 year survival rate

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8
Q

COPD is expected to be the (number) biggest cause of mortality by 2020

A

3rd

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9
Q

What fraction of people visit their GP at least once a year because of a respiratory condition?

A

1/3

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10
Q

How are lung diseases classified?

A

AIRWAY DISEASES
Local obstruction
Generalised obstruction

SMALL LUNG DISORDERS (RESTRICTIVE)
Disease within the lung
Disease outside the lung

INFECTIONS

PULMONARY VASCULAR DISORDERS

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11
Q

List examples of airway diseases (local and generalised obstruction)

A
LOCAL
Sleep apnoea (6x risk RTA)
Laryngeal carcinoma
Thyroid enlargement
Vocal cord dysfunction
Relapsing Polychondritis
Tumours
Post tracheostomy stenosis
Foreign bodies
Bronchopulmonary dysplasia
CHRONIC
Asthma
COPD
Bronchiectasis
Cystic Fibrosis
Obliterative Bronchiolitis
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12
Q

List examples of small lung (restrictive) diseases (disease within/outside the lung)

A
WITHIN
Sarcoidosis
Asbestosis
Extrinsic Allergic Alveolitis 
Fibrosing Alveolitis
Eosinophilic pneumonia
Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (35% increase in diagnosis 2000-> 2008, 3 year median survival) 
OUTSIDE
Pleural effusions
Pneumothorax
Scoliosis
Respiratory muscle weakness
Obesity (increases resp workload, increases i)
Mesothelioma (asbestos)
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13
Q

List examples of lung infections

A

Tuberculosis (infection rate rising in London)
Infective bronchitis
Pneumonia
Empyema

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14
Q

List examples of pulmonary vascular disorders

A

Pulmonary emboli= clots in the lung may complicate immobility and be fatal e.g. associated with child birth, (more common >40y)

Pulmonary hypertension

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15
Q

What is the most common symptom associated with lung disease?

A

Breathlessness – also known as DYSPNOEA; a sensation of difficult, laboured or uncomfortable breathing

Cough
Sputum production 
Haemoptysis
Chest discomfort 
Wheeze or musical breathing 
Stridor (harsh/grating sound)
Hoarseness 
Snoring history /Daytime sleepiness 
Weight loss
Anorexia
Fever
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16
Q

To aid diagnosis, what should you ask about (regarding lung diseases)?

A

Onset (acute, gradual)
Circumstances (on exertion, at rest, at night, lying flat, associated symptoms)
Degree

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17
Q

What may cause breathlessness?

A

Lung Disease
Heart Disease
Pulmonary Vascular Disease
Neuromuscular disease (e.g. diaphragm weakness
Systemic Disorders (e.g. anaemia, hyperthyroidism, obesity)
{Psychogenic Factors}

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18
Q

What are the 5 stages for MRC dyspnoea grading?

A
  1. Normal
  2. Able to walk and keep up with people of similar age on the level, but not on hills or stairs
  3. Able to walk for 1.5Km on the level at own pace, but unable to keep up with people of similar age
  4. Able to walk 100m on the level
  5. Breathless at rest or on minimal effort
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19
Q

What are the 2 main processes impaired by lung disease?

A

Disturbed gas exchange

Damaged respiratory mucosa

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20
Q

Outline gas exchange in the lungs

A

Small organisms meet their oxygen demand via diffusion, whereas larger organisms e.g. a resting adult cannot meet their requirements via diffusion alone

Breathing delivers warmed humidified air to specialised gas exchange surfaces

The heart delivers deoxygenated blood to the pulmonary capillaries

Gas exchange between the air and blood occurs by diffusion

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21
Q

How much oxygen does a resting adult need per minute?

A

250ml oxygen

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22
Q

Outline how damage to respiratory mucosa can lead to lung disease

A

Cell walls of epithelial cells are broken down, damaging and destroying the cilia so patients may have a reduced number of cilia as well as ineffective cilia

Damaged cilia are less effective at removing mucus from airways

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23
Q

How do enzymes lead to damaged respiratory mucosa?

A

Activity of enzymes e.g. neutrophil elastase – released from neutrophils which are attracted into the airways by cigarette smoke, bacterial products etc.

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24
Q

How is the respiratory system examined clinically?

A

Chest X ray
MRI
Spirometer
(Observation, palpating)

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25
Q

What does spirometry do?

A

Tests how well you can breathe
Can help diagnosis of different lung diseases e.g. COPD
Deep breath in, blow out as fast as possible into spirometer (small machine attached by a cable to mouth piece)

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26
Q

Why are some symptoms of lung disease hard to diagnose?

A

Overlap with lung and cardio conditions

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27
Q

Describe the nasal cavities

A

Nearly triangular cross-section

Fairly smooth medial and inferior walls

Elaborate lateral wall (respiratory epithelium covers 3 scroll-like plates of bones called conchae)

Nasal mucus and hair present

High resistance to airflow (because need to conserve heat and water)

Paranasal air sinuses present

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28
Q

How is nasal resistance affected by exercise?

A

During exercise, nasal resistance to flow means the respiratory muscles cannot propel air through the nose fast enough

Open-mouth breathing takes over with an increased loss of water and exposure to airborne particles

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29
Q

What do nasal mucus and hairs do?

A

Nasal mucus and hairs help exclude a range of airborne particles from flying insects to quite fine dust and particulate pollutants

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30
Q

Describe how nasal cavities are involved in inspiration and expiration

A

‘Conditioning the air’

Inspired air passes through these warm, moist plates-> become warmed and humidified
This protects lower parts of the respiratory tract from cold shock and drying

Nasal lining becomes cooled in this process so, during expiration, nasal lining cools the expired air and also retrieves water by condensation

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31
Q

Describe the paranasal air sinuses

A

Four sets of blind-ended ‘out-pocketings’ of the lateral walls of the nasal vaities

Slow air turnover

Little role in heat and water transfer

Probably function to:

  • Reduce weight of facial bones
  • Provide a ‘crumple zone’ in facial trauma
  • Act as resonators for the voice
  • Insulate sensitive structures from rapid temperature fluctuations
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32
Q

Why is infection of the maxillary sinus common?

A

Opening is high up

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33
Q

What are the lower airways?

A

Trachea
Bronchi
Bronchioles (initially surrounded by smooth muscle, but end as respiratory bronchioles from which alveoli are direct or indirect buds)

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34
Q

What are the walls of the larynx, trachea and bronchi held open by?

A

Plates or crescents of cartilage

Non-mineralised, supporting but flexible

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35
Q

What are the nasal cavities and pharynx held open by?

A

Attachments to nearby bones

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36
Q

What do alveoli and bronchioles contain to prevent collapse?

A

Microscopic air spaces (alveoli and bronchioles) contain a surfactant phospholipid

Prevents collapse caused by surface tension forces

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37
Q

What is the role of the pharynx?

A

After air is conditioned, passes down back of nasal cavity

Final part of airway before oesophagus

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38
Q

What are the 3 parts of the pharynx?

A

Nasopharynx= posterior to nasal cavity (Eustachian tube opening)

Oropharynx= posterior to tongue, consists of lymphoid tissue

Laryngopharynx= after epiglottis

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39
Q

How is food channeled to the oesphagus?

A

Posteriorly along the oropharynx

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40
Q

What is the anatomy of the larynx?

A

Cartillagenous structure
Supported from roof of mouth by hyoid bone
Associated with lateral carotids
Superior and posterior to thyroid gland, superior to trachea

Entire structure is membrane lined (forms complete sheath inside trachea)

Arytenoid cartilage to control entry to larynx

Allows air into lower airways but excludes liquids and solids

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41
Q

What respiratory structure develops differently in men and women?

A

Larynx

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42
Q

What is the arytenoid cartilage?

A

Attached to vocal ligaments
Open and close entry to larynx
Act as sphincter (prevent entry to lower airways)

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43
Q

When is the arytenoid cartilage open and closed?

A

Open= during inspiration

Closed= during phonation

Vocal folds partially open and air is passed through= sound is made (mechanism of vocalisation in the mouth)

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44
Q

What is the role of the larynx?

A

Modulation of sound

Without larynx, voice would be monotonous and low pitch

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45
Q

What effect does the closure of the larynx vocal folds have on the thorax and abdomen?

A

Closure-> increased pressure in thorax and abdomen

Can lead to expulsive force (during sneezing, childbirth and vomiting)

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46
Q

What is the structure of the trachea?

A

Regular cartilage arrangement
Approx 20 horseshoe shaped cartilage rings (keep trachea open)
Rings= not continuous at posterior surface

Anterior surface lined with epithelium
Posterior surface consists of trachealis muscle (anterior to oesophageal muscle, needed for swallowing)

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47
Q

What is the tracheobronchial tree?

A

Bronchi held open by cartilage horseshoes and plates

Bronchiolar and alveolar surface tension reduced by surfactant

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48
Q

What is the surface marker for where the trachea branches?

A

Sternal angle at T4

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49
Q

What is the dimorphism between the primary bronchi?

A

Right side is larger and more vertical

-> More things inhaled into right lung

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50
Q

What do the secondary and tertiary bronchi do?

A

Secondary bronchi supply each lung lobe

Within each lobe, tertiary bronchi then supply each pulmonary segment

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51
Q

With branching of the bronchi, number of cartilage rings …… and amount of smooth muscle ……

A

With branching of the bronchi, number of cartilage rings DECREASE and amount of smooth muscle INCREASES

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52
Q

What separates the two pleural cavities?

A

Mediastinum

Central partition of tissue

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53
Q

What does the mediastinum contain?

A
Trachea
Oesophagus
Heart
Great arteries and veins
Various important nerves and lymph vessels
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54
Q

What is the pleura?

A

Thin, shiny, moist layer of tissue
Covers each lung and inside of pleural cavities
Allows each lung to slide smoothly within its pleural cavity during breathing

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55
Q

Describe the surfaces of each lung

A

Costal surface= convex, facing the ribs
Mediastinal surface= moulded to mediastinum
Diaphragmatic surface= inferior, concave

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56
Q

What is the diaphragm?

A

Sheet-like dome-shaped muscle
- Centre of dome bulges up because of pressure difference between pleural and abdominal cavities

Separates thoracic and abdominal cavities

Margin attached to costal margin

Highest in expiration

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57
Q

Where is the highest part of each lung?

A

Apex

2-3cm above clavicle in adult (in root of neck)

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58
Q

How do the chest wall muscles, diaphragm, ribs, pleural cavities, pleura and lungs have a role in breathing?

A

Contraction of diaphragm-> pulls domed centred down-> increases height of pleural cavities

Contraction of the intercostal muscles-> pulls ribs upwards towards relatively fixed first rib-> ribs slope down towards their anterior ends

Lifting movement-> expansion of pleural cavities (depth and width) -> decreased pleural pressure

Decreased pleural pressure means air flows through airways into lungs (which expand with increase in pleural cavity)

Lower part of each lung expands downwards to occupy much of the costo-diaphragmatic recess

Breathing normally passive

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59
Q

What is the costo-diaphragmatic recess?

A

Lowest region of each pleural cavity

In expiration, contains no lung because margin of diaphragm is pressed closely against lower part of rib cage

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60
Q

What are the diaphragm’s motor nerves?

A

C3, 4, 5

‘Keep the diaphragm alive’

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61
Q

What are airways?

A

Air-filled spaces/tubes which take air from outside to alveoli

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62
Q

What are alveoli?

A

Microscopic spaces lined by very thin simple squamous epithelium through which O2 and CO2 exchange takes place

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63
Q

What are alveolar capillaries?

A

On the pulmonary circuit

Bring deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart via the pulmonary trunk and pulmonary arteries

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64
Q

What are the upper airways?

A

Nasal cavities
Nasopharynx
Laryngopharynx
Larynx

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65
Q

What are the cellular layers separating alveolar air from blood?

A
Air
Alveolar wall
Epithelial basement membrane
(Interstitial space)
Capillary basement membrane 
Endothelial cells of capillary
Blood
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66
Q

How thick is the alveolar-capillary membrane?

A
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67
Q

What does the interstitial space between the basement membranes between alveolar air and blood contain?

A

Pulmonary capillaries
Elastin
Collagen

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68
Q

How is the respiratory tract protected against drying, cold and inhaled particles?

A

Inspired air passes through the conchae are warmed and humidified on route

Protects lower parts of respiratory tract from cold, shock and drying

This process cools nasal cavities, so during expiration the expelled air is cooled and water is retrieved by condensation

Nasal mucus and hairs exclude airborne particles

During exercise, nasal resistance to air flow becomes too great and open mouthed breathing takes over (less protection)

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69
Q

How do alveoli resist collapse?

A

Trachea and bronchi are held open by cartilage
Bronchi are held open by cartilage horseshoes and plates
Bronchiolar and alveolar surfce tension reduced by surfactant

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70
Q

How is blood circulated through the lungs?

A

Double circulation in body (pulmonary for deoxy, systemic for oxy)

PULMONARY
Deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium via the inferior and superior vena cava

Atrial systole forces the blood into the right ventricle (through tricuspid valve)

Ventricular systole ejects the blood into the pulmonary trunk (through pulmonary valve) which branches in pulmonary arteries

Pulmonary arteries branch further into arterioles and capillaries within each lung-> carries blood close to alveolar so gas exchange can occur

Oxygenated blood returns to heart via venules and pulmonary veins which enter the heart at the left atrium

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71
Q

What is minute ventilation?

A

Volume of air expired in 1 minute (VE)

NB. E in subscript

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72
Q

What is respiratory rate?

A

Frequency of breathing per minute (RF)

NB. F in subscript

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73
Q

What is alveolar ventilation?

A

Volume of air reaching the respiratory zone (Valv)

NB. alv in subscript

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74
Q

What is respiration?

A

The process of generating ATP either with an excess (aerobic) and a shortfall (anaerobic) of oxygen

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75
Q

What is anatomical dead space?

A

Capacity of the airways incapable of undertaking gas exchange

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76
Q

What is alveolar dead space?

A

Capacity of the airways that should be able to undertake gas exchange but cannot (e.g. hypoperfused alveoli)

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77
Q

What is physiological dead space?

A

Equivalent to the sum of alveolar and anatomical dead space

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78
Q

What is hypoventilation?

A

Deficient ventilation of the lungs

Unable to meet metabolic demand

Results in increased PO2- acidosis

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79
Q

What is hyperventilation?

A

Excessive ventilation of the lungs atop of metabolic demand

Results in reduced PCO2- alkalosis

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80
Q

What is hyperpnoea?

A

Increased depth of breathing (to meet metabolic demand)

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81
Q

What is hypopnoea?

A

Decreased depth of breathing (inadequate to meet metabolic demand)

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82
Q

What is apnoea?

A

Cessation of breathing (no air movement)

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83
Q

What is dyspnoea?

A

Difficulty in breathing/shortness of breath

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84
Q

What is bradypnoea?

A

Abnormally slow breathing rate

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85
Q

What is tachypnoea?

A

Abnormally fast breathing rate

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86
Q

What is orthopnoea?

A

Positional difficulty in breathing (when lying down)

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87
Q

What type of structure is the chest wall?

A

Chest wall= a rigid support structure composed mostly of the ribcage, sternum and intercostal muscles that naturally recoils outwards

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88
Q

What type of structures are the lungs?

A

Lungs= soft tissue structures are very elastic that naturally recoil inward (large SA for gas exchange)

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89
Q

What is the mechanical relationship between the chest wall, pleural membranes and the lung?

A

The chest wall has a tendency to spring outwards, and the lung has a tendency to recoil inwards

These forces are in equilibrium at end-tidal expiration (at functional residual capacity; FRC), which is the ‘neutral’ position of the intact chest

To further inspire (or expire), requires the equilibrium to be temporarily imbalanced

The lungs are surrounded by a visceral pleural membrane

The inner surface of chest wall is covered by a parietal pleural membrane

The pleural cavity is between the visceral and parietal pleura

The chest wall and lungs have their own physical properties that in combination dictate the position, characteristics and behaviour of the intact chest wall

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90
Q

What is the pleural cavity?

A

Between the visceral and parietal pleura

The gap between pleural membranes is a fixed volume and contains protein-rich pleural fluid

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91
Q

How can chest and lung recoil be expressed in equations considering inspiratory and expiratory muscle effort?

A

Chest recoil = lung recoil

Inspiratory muscle effort + chest recoil > lung recoil

Chest recoil

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92
Q

Why is the pleural cavity being breached a serious problem?

A

E.g. perforated or punctured

Bad because lung relies on the pleural fluid to operate normal lung mechanics

Thoracic wall-lung relationship is delicate (imbalance-> dysfunction)

E.g. haemothorax or pneumothorax

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93
Q

What is a haemothorax?

A

Accumulation of blood in the pleural cavity-> impedes lung function

Blood can’t enter pleural cavity as fast as air-> slow accumulation of fluid

Gradually reduces the space the lung has to inflate into, increases the effort required to inhaled to a given volume-> limits the overall volume achievable

Requires draining

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94
Q

What is pneumothorax?

A

Puncture in thoracic cavity that breaches the pleural cavity

‘Tension’ caused by normally negative pressure caused by constant inward recoil of the lung tissue

Outward recoil of the chest wall is suddenly compromised

This means the resistance (or link) between the two forces disappears

Allows lung to recoil and chest wall to expand

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95
Q

What is functional residual capacity (FRC)?

A

Lung volume at end of quiet expiration

RV+ERV = FRC

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96
Q

What is residual volume (RV)?

A

Lung volume at end of forced expiration

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97
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)?

A

Maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after normal inspiration

From TV to TLC

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98
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

A

Maximum amount of air that can be exhaled after normal expiration

From TV to RV

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99
Q

What is tidal volume (TV)?

A

Volume of air breathed in or out during normal respiration

NB. T is subscript

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100
Q

What is total lung capacity (TLC)?

A

When taking maximum inspiration

TV+RV+IRV+ERV= TLC

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101
Q

What is vital capacity (VC)?

A

Amount of air that can be forced out of the lungs after maximal inspiration

IRV+VT+ERV= VC

NB. T (in VT) is subscript

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102
Q

What does peak flow test?

A

Tests airway resistance (how fast can air be expired)

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103
Q

What does time-volume curve test?

A

Tests airway resistance and FVC

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104
Q

What does flow volume loop test?

A

Tests airway resistance, flow rates, TV, IRV, ERV and FVC

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105
Q

What is transmural pressure?

A

Pressure inside - pressure outside = transmural pressures

-ve= leads to inspiration
\+ve= leads to expiration
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106
Q

What is negative pressure breathing?

A

Palv is reduced below Patm

-> Healthy breathing

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107
Q

What is positive pressure breathing?

A

Patm is increased above Palv

-> Ventilation CPR

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108
Q

What is ventilation?

A

Quiet breathing

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109
Q

What is tidal breathing?

A

Predominantly diaphragm-induced (syringe movement)

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110
Q

What muscles are involved in maximum ventilation?

A

Full inspiratory muscle recruitment involved

Syringe and bucket handle movement

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111
Q

How does ventilation happen?

A

At FRC, mechanical forces of the lung are in equilibrium
Equilibrium needs to be imbalanced to generate airflow (and stimulate ventilation)

So atmospheric/intrapulmonary pressure is increased (positive pressure) or intrapleural pressure is decreased(negative pressure)

The respiratory musculature decrease intrathoracic pressure (diaphragm contracts downward towards the abdomen and the external intercostals pull the ribcage outwards and upwards) by creating a partial vacuum

Lung is elastic and expandable tissue stretches to fill the space (while maintaining intrapleural volume) assuming airway is clear

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112
Q

Which 3 pressures fluctuate and are important to determine whether inspiration or expiration?

A

Atmospheric pressure (Patm)

Intrapleural pressure (Ppl or PIP)

Intraalveolar pressure (PAlv)

(NB. After P, letters are subscript)

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113
Q

What is transmural pressure?

A

Pressure across tissues

Refers to the pressure inside relative to the pressure outside

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114
Q

What is transpulmonary pressure?

A

Difference in pressure between the alveolar sacs and the pleural cavity

PTP= Ppl-Palv

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115
Q

What is transthoracic pressure?

A

Difference between the pleural cavity and the atmosphere

PTT= Patm - Ppl

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116
Q

What is the transrespiratory system pressure?

A

Difference between the alveolar sacs and the atmosphere

PRS= Patm-Palv

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117
Q

At rest, when the lung capacity is at FRC, what is the PRS?

A

Transrespiratory system pressure
PRS= 0

Recoil forces of the lung tissue and chest wall are balanced

Volume can increase (inspiration > FRC) or decrease (expiration

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118
Q

How do you initiate inspiration in negative pressure breathing?

A

Inspiratory muscles contract (principally diaphragm and other deeper muscles)

Ppl (intrapleural pressure) decreases as the thoracic pleura expands

To prevent this decrease, in pressure the visceral pleura is pulled outwards which inflates the lungs (negative pressure breathing)

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119
Q

How do you initiate inspiration in positive pressure breathing?

A

Increase in alveolar pressure

Stimulates an expansion of lung tissue against the resistance of the thoracic wall

Leads to increased increased pleural pressure which causes an expansion of the chest wall (prevent Palv rising too high)

NB.

  • Intrapleural volume fixed and resistant to change (because its a fluid and not a gas)
  • Intrapleural pressure not equal from base to apex (base pressure is -3 cmH20, apex is -7 cmH20)…. So average is -5 cmH20
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120
Q

What factors affect lung volumes and capacities?

A

Body size (height affects more than weight)
Sex (male larger than female)
Age (older= more diseased)
Disease (pulmonary, neurological)
Fitness (innate e.g. born in Andes, training)

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121
Q

What effect does obstructive disease have on RV, TV, IRV, ERV, TLV, FRC, VC?

A
↔↑RV
↔↑TV 
↓↔IRV
↓↔ERV
↔↑ TLC
↔↑FRC
↓↔VC
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122
Q

What effect does restructive disease have on RV, TV, IRV, ERV, TLV, FRC, VC?

A
↓ RV
↔↓TV
↓IRV
↔↓ERV
↓TLC
↓FRC
↓VC
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123
Q

Describe the respiratory tree

A

Airway network of progressively bifurcating smaller tubes across 23 ‘generations’

Air is warmed, humidified, slowed and mixed as it passes down the respiratory tree

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124
Q

What is the conducting zone of the respiratory tree?

A

Where the velocity dramatically slows as the cross-sectional area increases

Functions= defence (mucus secreted), speech (vocal folds in larynx) and preparation of air for gas exchange (warming and humidifying)

16 generations
No gas exchange
150ml in adults at FRC
ANATOMICAL DEAD SPACE

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125
Q

What is the respiratory zone of the respiratory tree?

A

Respiratory bronchioles have occasional sacs off the sides that provide a surface for gas exchange

Further down the airway the concentration of these alveolar sacs increases dramatically

These respiratory sacs are called alveoli (parenchymal tissue of the airways)

7 generations
Gas exchange
350ml in adults
Air reaching here is equivalent to ALVEOLAR VENTILATION

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126
Q

What is non-perfused parenchyma?

A

Alveoli without a blood supply
No gas exchange
0ml in adults
ALVEOLAR DEAD SPACE

Parenchyma = functional subunit

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127
Q

What is dead space?

A

Generic term that describes parts of the airways that don’t participate in gas exchange

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128
Q

What is physiological dead space?

A

Anatomical + alveolar dead space

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129
Q

What is anatomical dead space?

A

Entirety of the conducting airways and upper respiratory tract

Can’t be measured using standard spirometry, use dilution test

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130
Q

How is a dilution test carried out?

A

Known volume of inert gas (e.g. helium) that is inspired and expired into a closed circuit

After enough breathing to equilibrate it with the air already in airway-> measure sample of the original volume for concentration of inert gas

To calculate VD use:
Ratio of inert gas to original concentration
Spirometry data

NB. Tubing connected to the airway increases the volume of anatomical dead space

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131
Q

What is alveolar dead space?

A

Includes respiratory tissues unable to participate in gas exchange, usually due to absent or inadequate blood flow

Healthy individuals, volume is effectively 0

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132
Q

What is physiological dead space?

A

Sum of anatomical and alveolar dead space volumes

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133
Q

How does alveolar ventilation happen?

A

Primary function of breathing (or mechanical ventilation)

Increasing depth of breathing is more effective at increasing alveolar ventilation

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134
Q

What is the value of alveolar ventilation during tidal (subconscious) breathing?

A

Equal to the difference between tidal volume and dead space

Valv= VT - VD

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135
Q

For every generation further down the airway, what happens to pressure and velocity of airflow?

A

Divergence in path associated with 50% decrease in pressure and velocity of airflow

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136
Q

Why you can’t get a longer snorkel to swim deeper?

A

More dead space (snorkel functions as extension of lung)

This means more times greater than resting TV and typical TLC

Poiseuille’s law:
Resistance= 8nl/πr4 (n with arrow down)

Boyle’s= P gas is proportional to 1/(v gas)

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137
Q

What does there need to be to ensure effective and sustainable gas exchange?

A

Ventilation= fresh sample of atmospheric air (alveolar ventilation) in the alveolar sac

Perfusion= Adequate perfusion (pulmonary capillary)

Need to be in close proximity (shorter diffusion distance)

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138
Q

What happens when there is a proportional imbalance between ventilation and perfusion ?

A

Compromise pulmonary gas exchange

Ventilated alveoli with no blood supply= wasted ventilation

Pulmonary capillaries that perfuse non-ventilated alveoli= wasted perfusion

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139
Q

Where in the lung is ventilated more readily and why?

A

Ventilation (V)in healthy upright individual…

Base ventilates more readily
Because of effect of gravity on the transpulmonary pressure
Makes the basal lung tissue more compliant (distensible)

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140
Q

Explain the difference between transpulmonary pressure in the apex, base and middle of the lung

A

APEX
PA > Pa > Pv

MIDDLE
Pa > PA > Pv

BASE
Pa > Pv > PA

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141
Q

How does perfusion (Q) vary in the lung?

A

Gravity affects distribution of blood flow

As pulmonary circulation flows at a low pressure, the vessels perfusing the base of the lung receive a greater proportion of blood flow (least resistant)

At rest, apex receives very little perfusion

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142
Q

How can the ratio of ventilation to perfusion be interpreted?

A

Ideally, blood would only flow to ventilated parts of the lung

Ratio shows ventilation volume per litre of perfusion

High V/Q associated with poorly perfused regions

Low V/Q associated with poorly ventilation regions

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143
Q

What factors alter the V/Q ratio?

A

Exercise stimulates increased cardiopulmonary effort to increase oxygen supply to meet escalating demand in the skeletal musculature
So RF, VE and Q increase proportionately

Increased force of ventilation-> improves apical ventilation-> increased pressure in the pulmonary circulation-> increases perfusion of apical capillary beds

Slight discrepancy between the base and apex of the lung, more subtle than at rest

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144
Q

What role does gravity have on ventilation and perfusion?

A

Favours V and Q of the basal lung versus the apical lung

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145
Q

Where in the lung is more likely to have ‘wasted perfusion’ and ‘wasted ventilation’?

A

Basal lung has ‘wasted perfusion’

Apical lung has ‘wasted ventilation’

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146
Q

What are common lung function tests?

A

Volume-time curve
Peak expiratory flow
Flow-volume loop

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147
Q

How does the volume-time curve work?

A

PROTOCOL

  1. Patient wears nose clip
  2. Patient inhales to TLC
  3. Patient wraps lips round mouthpiece
  4. Patient exhales as hard and fast as possible
  5. Exhalation continues until RV is reached or six seconds have passed
  6. Visually inspect performance and volume time curve- repeat if necessary
  7. Look out for:
    a. Slow starts
    b. Early stops
    c. Intramanouever variability
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148
Q

How does peak expiratory flow work?

A

PROTOCOL

  1. Patient wears nose clip
  2. Patient inhales to TLC
  3. Patient wraps lips round mouthpiece
  4. Patient exhales as hard and fast as possible
  5. Exhalation doesn’t have to reach RV
  6. Repeat at least twice (take highest measurement)
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149
Q

How does flow-volume loop work?

A
  1. Patient wears noseclip
  2. Patient wraps lips round mouthpiece
  3. Patient completes at least one tidal breath
  4. Patient inhales steadily to TLC
  5. Patient exhales as hard and fast as possible
  6. Exhalation continues until RV reached
  7. Patient immediately inhales to TLC
  8. Visually inspect performance and volume time curve and repeat if necessary

Look out for:

a. Inconsistencies with clinical picture
b. Interrupted flow data

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150
Q

List common airway problems

A
Mild obstructive disease
Severe obstructive disease
Restrictive disease
Variable extrathoracic obstruction
Variable intrathoracic obstruction
Fixed airway obstruction
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151
Q

What is the shape of the curve for mild obstructive disease?

A

Displaced to the left (indented exhalation curve)

RV and TLC are higher than normal
Because of mild breakdown in lung parenchymal tissue and hyperinflation of lungs
More air retained in lungs at RV (can’t be emptied)
Mild ‘coving’ (indentation) on the expiratory loop that suggests obstruction of the smaller airways

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152
Q

What is the shape of the curve for severe obstructive disease?

A

Shorter curve
Displaced to the left
Indented exhalation curve

Like mild, except the features of the loop are more pronounced
The RV is larger (more hyperinflation) and the ‘coving’ is deeper
Also, the height of the curve is lower, showing a lower peak expiratory flow rate (due to obstruction)

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153
Q

What is the shape of the curve for restrictive disease?

A

Displaced to the right
Narrower curve

Overall shape of the curve is preserved, however it is narrower on the x-axis (indicating a smaller TLC) and shorter on the y-axis (indicating impaired flow rates for inspiration and expiration)

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154
Q

What is the shape of the curve for the variable extrathoracic curve?

A

Blunted inspiratory curve (bottom too short)
Otherwise normal

This curve shows a complete normal expiratory curve, but an impeded (flattened) inspiratory curve
This is due to an obstruction outside thorax (perhaps the upper airway)

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155
Q

What is the shape of the curve for the variable intrathoracic curve?

A

Blunted expiratory curve (top too short)
Otherwise normal

This curve shows a complete normal inspiratory curve, but an impeded (flattened) expiratory curve
This is due to an obstruction within the thorax (perhaps the trachea)

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156
Q

What is the shape of the curve for the fixed airway obstruction?

A

Loop shows mixed characteristics of variable intra and extra obstruction

Blunted inspiratory and expiratory curves
Otherwise normal

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157
Q

What part of the lung/chest is in a partial vacuum?

A

Pleural cavity

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158
Q

What are the different mechanical forces involved in tidal and maximal ventilation?

A

Tidal breathing is predominantly diaphragm-induced (syringe movement)

Maximum ventilation involves full inspiratory muscle recruitment (syringe and bucket handle movement)

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159
Q

In gas transport/exchange, how are descriptions denoted?

I.e. how would you say volume of carbon monoxide bound to haemoglobin in the alveolar blood?

A

Prefix e.g. P, F, S, C, Hb

Middle (subscript) e.g. I, E, A, a, v (with line across top), P, D

Suffix e.g. O2, CO2, N2, Ar, CO, H20

SO…..
HbACO (A subscript)

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160
Q

In gas transport/exchange, what are these prefixes; P, F, S, C, Hb?

A

P= partial pressure (kPa or mmHg)

F= fraction (% or decimal)

S= Hb saturation (%)

C= content (mL)

Hb= volume bound to Hb (mL)

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161
Q

In gas transport/exchange, what are these middle (subscript) initials; e.g. I, E, A, a, v (with line across top), P, D

A

I= inspired

E= expired

A= alveolar

a= arterial

v (with line across top)= mixed venous

P= peripheral

D= dissolved

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162
Q

In gas transport/exchange, what are these suffixes; e.g. O2, CO2, N2, Ar, CO, H20?

A

O2= oxygen

CO2= carbon dioxide

N2= nitrogen

Ar= argon

CO= carbon monoxide

H20= water

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163
Q

List the key gas laws relevant in gas transport

A
Henry
Fick
Dalton
Boyle 
Charles

‘Charles found Henry drinking beer’

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164
Q

What is Dalton’s law?

A

The pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of partial pressures of gases in that mixture

Describes the pressure composition of the atmosphere

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165
Q

What is Fick’s law?

A

Molecules diffuse from regions of high conc to low conc at a rate

PROPORTIONAL TO:
P1-P2= the conc gradient
A= surface area for exchange
D= diffusibility of the gas

INVERSELY PROPORTIONAL TO:
T= thickness of the exchange surface

Describes factors affecting diffusion of molecules across a membrane

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166
Q

What is Henry’s law?

A

At a constant temperature, the amount of given gas that dissolves in a given type and volume of liquid is:

DIRECTLY PROPORTIONAL TO:
a= solubility of the gas
P= partial pressure of gas in equilibrium with that liquid

Describes how gas solubility in blood is proportional to pressure

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167
Q

What is Boyle’s law?

A

At a constant temperature, the volume (V) of a gas is indirectly proportional to the pressure (P) of the gas

Describes how gas volume decreases with increasing pressure

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168
Q

What is Charles’ law?

A

At a constant pressure, the volume (V) of a gas is proportional to the temperature (T) of that gas

Describes how gas volume increases with increasing temperature

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169
Q

What is atmospheric gas made up of?

A
  1. 2% nitrogen
  2. 9 % oxygen
  3. 9% argon
  4. 04% carbon dioxide
  5. 01% neon, xenon, helium and hydrogen
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170
Q

What is the barometric pressure (PB) at sea level?

A

101.3 kPa (760 mmHg)

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171
Q

How can the partial pressure of a gas (PGas) be calculated within a mixture?

A

Barometric pressure x gas proportion (as decimal) = kPa

E.g. 101.3 kPa x 0.209 = 21.2 kPa
= PO2 at sea level

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172
Q

What percentage of oxygen is in supplemental/therapeutical oxygen and how is it administered?

A

Up to 100%

Nasal cannula or full face mask

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173
Q

Depending on the concentration and flow rate of therapeutical oxygen, how much could the fraction of inspired oxygen (FI02) be increased to?

A

Above 60%

So amount of oxygen that will dissolve in the blood increases

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174
Q

What happens when noxious or polluted air is inspired?

A

Dangerous

Low oxygen in the mixture or chemicals that interrupt normal physiology (e.g. CO)

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175
Q

What happens to barometric pressure as altitude increases?

A

Ambient PB reduces

Fractions in inspired air are unchanged but reduced overall pressure

So PBIO2 at sea level= 21.2 kPa
PBIO2 at 4000m= 61.3 kPa
BUT still 20.9% oxygen
I.e. 20.9% of a smaller cake

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176
Q

What PO2, PCO2 and PH20 are found at sea level, in the conducting airways and in the respiratory airways

A

DRY AIR AT SEA LEVEL
PO2= 21.3
PCO2= 0
PH20= 0

CONDUCTING AIRWAYS
PO2= 20
PCO2= 0
PH20= 6.3

RESPIRATORY AIRWAYS
PO2= 13.5
PCO2= 5.3
PH20= 6.3

All in kPa
Air is warmed, humidified, slowed and mixed down respiratory tree

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177
Q

What is the total oxygen delivery at rest?

A

16ml/min

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178
Q

What is resting VO2?

A

Approx 250ml/min

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179
Q

Why is there a need for a more effective transport mechanism for oxygen than just relying on dissolved oxygen?

A

Total oxygen delivery at rest=16ml/min

Resting VO2= approx 250ml/min

Dissolved oxygen alone is not enough

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180
Q

Describe a monomer of haemoglobin

A

Ferrous iron ion (Fe 2+, haem-) at the centre of a tetrapyrrole porphyrin ring
Connected to a protein chain (-globin)
Covalently bonded at the proximal histamine residue

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181
Q

What are the 4 variants of haemoglobin

A

Alpha chain + haem = Hbα

Beta chain + haem = Hbβ

Delta chain + haem = Hbδ

Gamma chain + haem = Hbγ

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182
Q

How many monomers of haemoglobin form a haemoglobin molecule?

A

4-> tetramer

So can carry 4 oxygen molecules

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183
Q

What are the 3 most common variants of haemoglobin tetramer molecules?

A

HbA (2 Hbα & 2 Hbβ)= Adult Hb; 98%

HbA2 (2 Hbα & 2 Hbδ)= Adult Hb normal variant; ~2%

HbF (2 Hbα & 2 Hbγ)= Foetal Hb; trace amounts

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184
Q

What does it mean that haemoglobin is an allosteric protein?

A

As more molecules of oxygen bind, there is a greater attraction for other oxygens to bind

Cooperativity-> high affinity

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185
Q

What is methahaemoglobin?

A

If the ferrous iron (Fe 2+) is further oxidised by nitrites (-> Fe 3+, ferric form) then the haemoglobin becomes methaemoglobin (MetHb)

MetHb doesn’t bind oxygen so can cause functional anaemia

  • Normal Hct
  • Normal PCV
  • Impaired O2 capacity
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186
Q

Describe the oxygen dissociation curve

A

Relationship between PO2 and oxygen in solution is simple and linear BUT Hb is more efficient than this

Across the physiological range of the lungs, Hb remains almost fully saturated (very shallow relationship)

At respiring tissues, there is a steep relationship (between PO2 and Hb saturation)

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187
Q

Why is haemoglobin very efficient at loading oxygen in the lungs and unloading oxygen at respiring tissues?

A

Lungs: LARGE change in PO2 = SMALL change in HbO2

Tissues: SMALL change in PO2 = LARGE change in HbO2

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188
Q

What causes a rightward shift in the oxygen dissociation curve?

A

Increased temperature
Acidosis (Bohr effect)
Hypercapnia
Increased 2,3- DPG

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189
Q

What causes a leftward shift in the haemoglobin oxygen dissociation curve?

A

Decreased temperature
Alkalosis
Hypocapnia
Decreased 2,3- DPG

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190
Q

What is the PO2 on the oxygen dissociation curve that corresponds to 50% binding called?

A

P50
Used as an index of oxygen affinity
Found on one of the steepest parts of the ODC (so highly susceptible to changes)

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191
Q

What is the normal P50 for adult Hb?

A

3.3 kPa

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192
Q

What haemoglobin concentration does the oxygen dissociation curve assume?

A

15g/dL

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193
Q

What causes the haemoglobin concentration to change?

A

Polycythaemia= condition where concentration of RBCs in the blood is much higher than normal, usually when the Hct/PCV is >55%

Anaemia
NB. severely anaemic patient may still have a normal pulse oximetry because can still fully saturate their Hb
.
Carbon monoxide= colourless, odourless poisonous gas (usually due to incomplete fuel combustion)

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194
Q

Why does CO affect haemoglobin concentration?

A

Hb has a greater affinity for CO than oxygen (250 times greater)

Hb will preferentially bind CO in the lungs, which reduces the number of binding sites for oxygen-> reducing oxygen content in the blood (causing a functional anaemia)

Also, binding CO pushes Hb into the tense state, reducing its ability to unbind any oxygen it is carrying

NB. Inhaling gas solution of 0.2% CO will occupy 80% haem binding sites

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195
Q

What does the HbCO dissociation curve look like?

A

HbCO ODC is displaced downwards (less capacity to bind O2) and leftwards (greater affinity for bound oxygen)

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196
Q

How does polycythaemia affect haemoglobin concentration?

A

RBC conc is much higher than normal

This stretches the ODC upwards, meaning that for a given PO2 there is no change in HbO2 saturation but a marked increase in blood oxygen content

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197
Q

How does anaemia affect haemoglobin concentration?

A

ODC pushed downwards as there is a lower concentration of haemoglobin, markedly reducing the overall oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

Pulse oximetry may be same (can fully saturate their Hb)

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198
Q

What is the principal factor controlling the haemoglobin-oxygen relationship?

A

The partial pressure of dissolved oxygen

Although small by proportion (1.5%) it is pivotal in O2 transport

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199
Q

What does the ODC of foetal haemoglobin look like?

A

Greater affinity than adult HbA to ‘extract’ oxygen from mothers blood in placenta

So ODC shits to left

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200
Q

What does the ODC of myoglobin look like?

A

Much greater affinity than adult HbA to ‘extract’ oxygen from circulating blood and store it

So ODC shifts very far to left (almost vertical by Y axis), more left than foetal haemoglobin

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201
Q

What does foetal haemoglobin (HbF) consist of?

A

2 alpha chains
2 gamma chains

Greater affinity for oxygen than adult haemoglobin

In utero, HbF proportion is dominant (switches to HbA post-partum)

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202
Q

What is the P50 for HbF?

A

2.4 kPa

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203
Q

Why does methaemoglobin only occur in low quantities in healthy people?

A

Redox reactions constantly liberating or binding electrons

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204
Q

What is methaemoglobinaemia?

A

MetHb concentration is >1%

Functional anaemia (Hct and PCV normal, oxygen carrying capacity impaired)

100% MetHb would result in death (dissolved oxygen can’t support metabolic demands)

Familial methaemoglobinaemia is genetically recessive medical condition-> blue tinge of skin

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205
Q

What is myoglobin (Mb)?

A

Not a haemoglobin variant
Another oxygen-binding molecule
Consists of a haem molecule bound to a protein chain

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206
Q

What are the main differences between Mb and Hb?

A

Mb is a monomeric molecule (i.e. one haem group, one protein chain and one molecule of bound O2

Mb is a principally a storage molecule (Hb is a transport molecule) found in myocytes (myoglobin)

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207
Q

Why is meat fresh red/pink in colour?

A

High concentration of myoglobin

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208
Q

What is the P50 for Mb?

A

Very low

Approx 0.37 kPa

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209
Q

In respiratory gas transport, how is mixed venous blood involved in oxygen loading?

A

Blood in the venous circulation is often referred to as deoxygenated, despite the blood still containing 75% of the oxygen that arterial blood has

So known as mixed venous, and by using the symbol v̄

Blood retains 75% of its oxygen because metabolic demand for oxygen is low at rest

Using the ODC, this gives a PVO2 of 5.3 kPa (40 mmHg)

PAO2 is 13.5 kPa, and when deoxygenated blood reaches the respiratory exchanges surface it rapidly equilibrates with alveolar gas (0.25 s)

Oxygen passively diffuses down a concentration gradient (Fick’s Law)

During oxygenation, it passes from the alveolar space, into the pulmonary epithelial cells, into the interstitial space, into vascular endothelial cells, into the plasma, into red blood cells, and then binds to molecules of Hb that are not fully saturated

After equilibration, post-alveolar PaO2 is equal to PAO2 (which is 13.5 kPa) and SaO2 will be 100%

Post-alveolar venules converge into pulmonary veins but some deoxy blood enters circulation from bronchial venous drainage (before draining into the left atrium and being pumped into the systemic circulation)

This deoxygenated blood dilutes the PaO2 to 12.7 kPa (95 mmHg) and the SaO2 to 97%

In total, oxygen content (CaO2) is still slightly more than 20 mL/dL which is a delivery rate of about 1000 mL/min (assuming a cardiac output (Q̇) of 5 L/min)

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210
Q

In respiratory gas transport, how is mixed venous blood involved in oxygen unloading?

A

Arterial blood leaving heart remains unchanged (after oxygen loading) until it reaches systemic capillary beds, where tissue PO2 is considerably lower than PaO2

This gradient promotes diffusion of oxygen from the plasma into the endothelial cells, into interstitium, respiring cells, and mitochondria

As soon as the PaO2 starts to decrease, oxygen unloads from Hb (according to the ODC) and follows the dissolved oxygen down the concentration gradient and out of the circulation

Once the blood enters the venous circulation the PO2 has been reduced 5.3 kPa and SV̄O2 to 75%

CaO2 is reduced to 15 mL/dL, which is a 5 mL/d reduction from the pre-capillary vessel

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211
Q

In respiratory gas transport, how is mixed venous blood involved in oxygen flux?

A

Assuming a 5 L/min cardiac output, this represents a 250 mL/min rate of oxygen utilization

This is termed the oxygen consumption and is denoted by V̇O2

Blood is then returned to the right side of the heart where it is pumped back to the lungs and the cycle restarts

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212
Q

In respiratory gas transport, how is mixed venous blood involved in carbon dioxide loading?

A

CO2 is much more soluble (about 20x greater) than oxygen and diffuses into plasma very quickly

But in an aqueous solution (like plasma) CO2 will combine with H2O to form carbonic acid (H2CO3)

H2CO2= a weak acid that dissociates into a proton (H+) and bicarbonate (HCO3-)

Although very slow, this can cause the pH to fall significantly below the tightly regulated set-point of 7.4

Like oxygen, CO2 diffuses down the concentration gradient, so when plasma PCO2 begins to rise, CO2 begins to diffuse into erythrocytes

Once inside, the conversion of CO2 and H2O to carbonic acid is accelerated by the enzyme carbonic anhydrase

Bicarbonate is pumped out of the erythrocyte by an AE1 exchanger, which imports chloride ions to maintain membrane electroneutrality

The influx of chloride is associated with an influx of H2O – keeps the cell hydrated (water pumped out cell in form of bicarbonate)

To prevent an intracellular decrease in pH, excess protons are buffered by globin chains of haemoglobin molecules– certain residues are active proton accepters (e.g. Histamine)

Some intraerythrocytic CO2 binds to haemoglobin, but not to the haem molecule like oxygen; instead it combines with the amine group and the N-terminal of globin chains (-NH2 to -NHCOOH) adding a carboxyl group

When this occurs the haemoglobin molecule becomes carbamino-haemoglobin (HbCO2)

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213
Q

In respiratory gas transport, how is mixed venous blood involved in carbon dioxide unloading?

A

Similar to oxygen, CO2 in solution will diffuse into the alveoli first, which will trigger the reversal of all of the other binding mechanisms

Bicarbonate will re-enter erythrocytes and be re-associate with H+ to form carbonic acid, which the carbonic anhydrase enzyme will convert back into CO2 and H2O

Less oxygen bound, the more carbon dioxide will bind (and vice versa)

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214
Q

How long are pulmonary transmit time and gas exchange time?

A

Pulmonary transmit time= 0.75s

Gas exchange time= 0.25s

Oxygen less soluble, takes slightly longer

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215
Q

What is the main difference between carbon dioxide and oxygen transport?

A

The major difference between oxygen and carbon dioxide transport is that CO2 is much more soluble (about 20x greater) and diffuses into plasma very quickly

BUT in an aqueous solution (like plasma) CO2 will combine with H2O to form carbonic acid (H2CO3); a weak acid that dissociates into a proton (H+) and bicarbonate (HCO3-)

Very slow reaction but can cause the pH to fall significantly below the tightly regulated set-point of 7.4

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216
Q

What enzyme catalyses the reaction from CO2 and H2O to carbonic acid?

A

Carbonic anhydrase

Catalyses the reaction by a factor of 5000x and subsequent H2CO3 dissociates into H+ and HCO3- ions

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217
Q

Summarise how respiratory gases are transported in the blood

A

O2 transported in solution (~2%) or bound to Hb (~98%)

CO2 transported in solution, as bicarbonate (HCO3-) and as carbamino compounds (e.g. HbCO2)

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218
Q

What is the basic structure of the airways?

A

Conduit pipes to:
Conduct oxygen to the alveoli
Conduct carbon dioxide out of the lung

Cartilaginous or alveolar

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219
Q

What facilitates the functions of the airways?

A

Mechanical stability (cartilage)
Control of calibre (smooth muscle)
Protection and ‘cleansing’

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220
Q

How many generations of branches are there from trachea to alveolar sacs?

A

23
Cartilage quantity decreases
Smooth muscle increases

NB. cartilage ring incomplete and slightly offset, smooth muscle and nervous innervation complete

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221
Q

Why are the C shaped cartilages not set?

A

If set and stacked, there would be less tensile strength

This means can’t see the whole C

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222
Q

What happens to mucus when muscle contracts?

A

Muscle contracts-> squeezes mucus onto airway surface

Unknown process

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223
Q

What type of airways cells are found in ….?

Lining
Contractile
Secretory
Connective
Neuroendocrine
Vascular
Immune
A

Lining= ciliated, intermediate, brush, basal

Contractile= smooth muscle (airways, vasculature)

Secretory= goblet, mucous, serous

Connective= fibroblast, interstitial cell (elastin, collagen, cartilage)

Neuroendocrine= nerves, ganglia, neuroendocrine cells, neuroepithelial bodies

Vascular= endothelial, pericyte, plasma cell (and smooth muscle)

Immune= mast cell, dendritic cell, lymphocyte, eosinophil, macrophage, neutrophil

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224
Q

What do goblet cells contain?

A

Mucin granules

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225
Q

What do ciliated cells contain?

A

Many mitochondria

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226
Q

What cells are in the submucosal glands in the airway?

A

Mucous and serous acini

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227
Q

What is secreted by mucous and serous cells?

A

Mucous cells secrete mucins (mucin granules contain mucin in highly condensed form)

Serous cells secrete antibacterials (e.g. lysozyme)

Glands also secrete salt and water (Na ions and Cl ions)

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228
Q

What is the function of epithelial cells?

A

Secretion of mucins, salt and water
(Mucus + plasma , mediators etc.)

Physical barrier

Production of inflammatory and regulatory mediators (NO, CO, chemokine, cytokines, proteases, prostaglandins)

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229
Q

What is the ciliary structure?

A

9 + 2 arrangements of microtubules

Metachronal rhythm (beats out of sync-> moves mucus in one direction instead of backwards and forwards)

Mucus flakes= could be artefact of imaging or just how it works in people without lung conditions

With conditions-> thick mat of mucus

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230
Q

Describe the response of the smooth muscle in airways to inflammation

A

Structure- hypertrophy, proliferation

Tone (airway calibre)- contraction, relaxation

Secretion (mediators, cytokines, chemokines)

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231
Q

What is the secretory response of smooth muscle cells to inflammation?

A

Inflammation-> bacterial products and cytokines which act on smooth muscle cell

NOS-> NO
COX-> prostaglandins
Inflammatory cells recruitment (chemokines
cytokines and adhesion molecules)

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232
Q

What is the humoral control of the function of the airway cells?

A

Regulatory and inflammatory mediators:

  • Histamine
  • Arachidonic acid metabolites (e.g. prostaglandins, leukotrienes)
  • Cytokines
  • Chemokines

Reactive gas species
- Proteinases

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233
Q

Describe the tracheo-bronchial circulation (of the airway circulation)

A

1-5% of cardiac output

High blood flow (100-150 ml/min/100g tissue)

Bronchial arteries arise from sites on:
Aorta, intercostal arteries and others

Blood returns from tracheal circulation via systemic veins

Blood returns from bronchial circulation to both sides of heart via bronchial and pulmonary veins

Contributes to warming and humidification of inspired air

Clears inflammatory mediators and inhaled drugs

Provides airway tissue and lumen with inflammatory cells

Supplies airway tissue with proteinaceous plasma

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234
Q

Describe the 3 types of nerve that control the function of airway cells

A

Parasympathetic- cholinergic (ACh)

Sympathetic- adrenergic (adrenaline and noradreanline)

Sensory

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235
Q

What do cholinergic neurons do to control airways?

A

Principle motor control of airway (constriction)

Cholinergic nerves-> ACh onto muscarinic receptors on:

  • Blood vessels
  • Smooth muscle cells
  • Submucosal glands
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236
Q

Why do the airways rely on the adrenal gland?

A

Little/no adrenergic nerves

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237
Q

List cells in regulatory-inflammatory cells in airways

A
Eosinophil
Neutrophil
Macrophage
Mast cell
T lymphocyte
Structural cells e.g. smooth muscle, may also be regulatory-inflammatory cells
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238
Q

List mediators in regulatory-inflammatory cells in airways

A
Histamine
Serotonin
Adenosine
Prostaglandins
Leukotrienes
Thromboxane
PAF
Endothelin
Cytokines
Chemokines
Growth factors
Proteinases 
Reactive gas species
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239
Q

What functions do the mediators have on on regulatory-inflammatory cells in airways?

A

Smooth muscle (airway, vascular: contraction, relaxation)

Secretion (mucins, water etc.)

Plasma exudation

Neural modulation

Chemotaxis

Remodelling

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240
Q

What respiratory diseases are associated with loss of airway control?

A

Loss of control-> respiratory disease

Asthma, COPD, cystic fibrosis
Airway inflammation, airway obstruction
Airway remodelling

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241
Q

What is the prevalence of asthma, COPD and CF?

A

Asthma – 5% of population

COPD – 4th cause of death in UK/USA

CF – 1:2000 Caucasians

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242
Q

What is asthma?

A

Increased airway responsiveness to a variety of stimuli -> airway inflammation and obstruction

Airway obstruction varies over short periods of time, is reversible

Dyspnea, wheezing, coughing

Varying degrees (mild to severe)

Airway inflammation-> re-modelling

Bronchoconstriction

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243
Q

What is bronchoconstriction?

A

Airway wall is thrown into folds, mucus plug in lumen

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244
Q

What is the mucosa in the lung?

A

Epithelium and underlying matrix

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245
Q

What is the structure of the mucosa?

A

From the large conducting airway to the alveoli

The structure is optimised for gas exchange (s.a. approximately size of tennis court)

Gas exchange units form a sponge-like structure which are intimately linked with the airways

The cross-sectional area of the lung increases peripherally

The gas exchange units are linked with surfactant

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246
Q

What lines the gas exchange units and why?

A

Surfactant
Phospholipid-rich surface active material that prevents lung collapse on expiration (immunological functions)

Secreted in the peripheral link and accounts for about 1 wine glass of fluid
Forms a very thin layer covering the respiratory units

Without it, the surface tension of the different gas exchange units will increase-> collapse of the lung

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247
Q

Describe the healthy lung?

A

HEALTHY LUNG
Epithelium forms a continuous barrier, isolating the external environment from the host

Produces secretions to facilitate mucociliary clearance

Protects underlying cells as well as maintain reduced surface tension

Metabolises foreign and host-derived compounds which may be carcinogenic – important for smokers

Releases mediators – controls number of inflammatory cells that reach the lung

Triggers lung repair processes

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248
Q

Describe the lung in COPD?

A

IN COPD
Increased number of goblet cells (known as hyperplasia) and increased mucus secretion

Between the goblet cells, ciliated cells push the mucus towards the throat

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249
Q

What proportion of epithalial cells are the goblet cells?

A

1/5

In large, central and small airways

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250
Q

What do goblet cells do?

A

Synthesise and secrete mucus

Mucus is complex, very ‘thin’ sol phase overlays cells, thick gel phase at air interphase

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251
Q

What happens to goblet cells in smokers?

A

Goblet cell number at least 2x
Secretions increase
More viscoelastic secretions

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252
Q

What does the modified gel phase do?

A

Traps cigarette smoke particles but always traps and harbours microorganisms
Enhances chance of infection

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253
Q

What does mucus contain?

A

Mucin proteins, proteoglycans and gycosaminoglycans, released from goblet cells and seromucous glands

Serum-derived proteins, such as albumin and alpha 1-antitrypsin, also called alpha 1-proteinase inhibitor, an inhibitor of polymorphonuclear neutrophil proteases

Antiproteases synthesised by epithelial cells e.g. secretory leucoprotease inhibitor

Antioxidants from the blood and synthesised by epithelial cells and phagocytes - uric acid and ascorbic acid (blood), glutathione (cells)

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254
Q

What is the purpose of mucin proteins, proteoglycans and glycosaminoglycans in mucus?

A

Gives mucus viscoelastcity

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255
Q

What is the purpose of serum-derived proteins e.g. albumin in mucus?

A

Combats microorganism and phagocyte proteases

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256
Q

What is the purpose of antiproteases in mucus?

A

Combats microogranism and phagocyte proteases

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257
Q

What is the purpose of antioxidants from the blood in mucus?

A

Combats inhaled oxidants e.g. cigarette smoke, ozone

Counteracts excessive oxidants released by activated phagocytes

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258
Q

What percentage of epithelial cells are ciliated cells?

A

80%

Found in large, central and small airways

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259
Q

How do cilia beat?

A

Metasynchronously

Push mucus forward engaging when vertical

Then circle around to original position in order to prevent the movement of the mucus backward as well as forward

Tips of cilia in sol phase of mucus pushes mucus towards epiglottis

Usually swallowed but expectorate

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260
Q

What happens to ciliated cells in smokers with bronchitis?

A

BRONCHIOLAR CILIATED CELLS

Depleted
Beat asynchronously
Reduced mucus clearance, bronchitis and respiratory infections occur
Airways obstructed by mucus secretions

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261
Q

Which lung condition associated with COPD is more easily reversed than other illnesses?

A

Bronchitis

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262
Q

Describe small airways

A

reduces peripheral gas exchange)

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263
Q

What are clara cells?

A

Club cells (non-ciliated, bronchiolar exocrine epithelial cells)

In large, central and small airways, bronchi and bronchioles

Found in most conducting and transitional airways (they increase proportionally distally)

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264
Q

What is the role of clara cells?

A

Metabolism, detoxification and repair

Contain phase I (incl. cytochrome P450 oxidases) and phase II enzymes

Major role of these enzymes is in xenobiotic metabolism (metabolism of foreign compounds deposited by inhalation)

Phase I enzymes are designed to metabolise foreign compounds into a format that enables phase II enzymes to react and neutralise the toxic agent

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265
Q

What is the problem with Phase I enzymes in clara cells?

A

Phase I enzymes are designed to metabolise foreign compounds into a format that enables phase II enzymes to react and neutralise the toxic agent; BUT they often activate a precarcinogen to a carcinogen

E.g: Benzopyrene (BP) is a precarcinogen in the particulate tar phase of cigarette smoke

One cytochrome P450, labelled CYPIA1 (also called aryl hydrocarbon hydroxylase), oxidases BP to benzopyrene diol epoxide (BPDE) which is a potent carcinogen

Phase II enzymes include glutathione S-transferase, which enables conjugation of BPDE to a small molecule that neutralises its activity

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266
Q

Why is CYPIA1 (one cytochrome P450) dangerous for smokers?

A

Smokers with lung cancer have a polymorphism of CYPIA1 that results in high levels (extensive metabolism -> extensive production of potent carcinogen)

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267
Q

Why is not having glutathione S-transferase likely to cause problems?

A

Some individuals are “null” for glutathione S-transferase i.e. they do not synthesise glutathione transferase and cannot neutralise BPDE

268
Q

What happens if an individual who smokes has the CYPIA1 extensive metaboliser gene and the null glutathione gene?

A

40 times more likely to get lung cancer

These cells also make and release high levels of antiproteases e.g. secretory leukoproteinase inhibitor (SLPI)

They also synthesise and secrete lysosyme - enzyme that can lyse microorganisms

They synthesis and release antioxidants e.g. glutathione, superoxide dismutase

269
Q

What can happen to alveoli in susceptible subject smokers?

A

Holes may develop
Alveoli may become larger
-> Reduction in surface area available for gas exchange

Seen as elastic tissue loss (so expansion during breathing is reduced-> exacerbates dead space)

Also fibrotic regions form in emphysema

270
Q

What does the alveolar wall consist of and how are they susceptible to damage?

A

2 types of epithelial cells= type II and type II

Type II cells are more susceptible to damage than type I (but type I will be damaged more often)

Epithelial type II cells are only found in alveoli (cover 5% of alveolar surface)

271
Q

What do Type II cells contain?

A

Lamellar bodies which store surfactant prior to release onto the air-liquid interface

-> Secrete surfactant

Synthesises and secretes antiproteases

272
Q

Where are type I and type II cells positioned?

A

In the corners of the alveoli

Embedded in interstitium with apical membranes facing the air

Type II very close to capillaries

273
Q

What cell is a precursor to alveolar type I cells?

A

Type II cells

They divide and differentiate to replace damaged type I cells

274
Q

What percentage of the alveolar surface is type I cells?

A

95%

275
Q

What is the ratio of type I and type II cells?

A

I:II = 1:2

276
Q

What are stromal cells (myo) fibroblasts?

A

Make EC matrix
Collagen, elastin to give elasticity and compliance
Divide to repair

277
Q

What is in an alveolar unit?

A
Type I epithelial cells
Type II epithelial cells
Stromal cells fibroblasts
Macrophages
Capillary endothelium
278
Q

What is the difference between type I and type II epithelial cells?

A

TYPE I
Large (80um)
Very thin to allow gas exchange

TYPE II
Cuboidal (10um)
Secrete surfactant
Repair/progenitor cells
Precursor of type I cells
279
Q

What is the difference between fibroblasts in normal repair and in abnormal repair?

A

NORMAL
Growth factors help normal repair
Type I cell death (and GFs)-> fibroblasts at capillary endothelium

ABNORMAL (e.g. emphysema)
Necrosis of EP1 cells-> abnormal repair->
-Type II cell proliferation
-Stromal/fibroblast cell proliferation (elevated GFs)
- Connective tissue synthesis

280
Q

Summarise the functions of secretory epithelium

A

Goblet cell, Clara cells, Type II cells

Secrete protective lining layer to trap deposited particles (surfactant and mucus)

Synthesise and release antioxidants (glutathione, superoxide dismutase)

Synthesise and secrete antiproteinases (secretory leukoproteinase inhibitor (SLPI))

Release lysosyme

Carry out xenobiotic metabolism (e.g. process and detoxify foreign compounds such as carcinogens in cigarette smoke)

Contain cytochrome P450, phase I and II enzymes etc.

281
Q

What are polymorphonuclear neutrophils and where are they found?

A

Usually only about 5% of lower respiratory tract phagocytes

Higher proportion in conducting/large airways

Store high levels of potent proteases in granules

These are released on activation

Smoker’s lungs contain high levels of these released proteases

Release very potent oxidative molecules such as hydroxyl anions during activation

282
Q

What happens to number of neutrophils and macrophages in smokers?

A

Increase significantly in number, 5-10-fold and proportionally (up to 30% of total phagocytes) in smokers and more so during infection

Phagocytosis, antimicrobial defence, synthesis antioxidants (e.g. glutathione), xenobiotic metabolism

(Smokers lungs also contain high levels of the released proteases)

283
Q

What proteases are secreted by macrophages and neutrophils?

A
Neutrophil= serine proteinases e.g. neutrophil elastase (NE)
Macrophage= metalloproteinases e.g. MMP-9

Substrates: proteins, connective tissue, elastin, collagen

Activate other proteases (e.g. NE degrades and activates MMP)

Inactivate other proteases (e.g. MMP degrades and inactivates alpha-1-antitrypsin)

Activate cytokines/chemokines and other pro-inflammatory mediators

284
Q

What do oxidants secreted by macrophages and neutrophils do?

A

Neutrophil and macrophage-> oxidants-> antimicrobial

Generate highly reactive peroxides
Interact with proteins and lipids
Inactivate alpha-1 antitrypsin
Fragment connective tissue

285
Q

What do chemokines secreted by macrophages and neutrophils do?

A

Neutrophil and macrophage-> secrete mediators

Chemokines- IL-8 (neutrophil), MCP-1 (monocytes)
Cytokines- IL-1B, TNFa (inflammation)
Growth factors- VEGF, FGF, TFGB (cell survival, repair and remodelling)

286
Q

What happens to neutrophils and macrophages in a COPD lung?

A

Neutrophils predominate in the large airways

Macrophages predominate in the alveolar region

287
Q

What do neutrophils and macrophages release/generate?

A

Proteases
Cytokines and chemokines
Growth factors
Oxidants

288
Q

Outline the histopathology of emphysema?

A

Classic emphysema is centre-lobular (centre of each lobule marks the site of initial infection)

Fibroblasts lie adjacent to epithelial cells lining the alveoli, and are available for proliferation following infection

Infection -> chronic damage (TI cell death)-> alveolar fibrosis (repair mechanism)

Increased type II epithelial cells

Increased number of fibroblasts – make lots of connective tissue

Communication between the type II cells and fibroblasts determines whether repair mechanisms proceed normally or abnormally (e.g. interstitial fibrosis)

Increased collagen deposition

ABNORMAL REPAIR–> irreversible damage

289
Q

What effect does smoking have on TII and TI cells?

A

Blocks proliferation and differentiation of TII cells into TI cells, as well stimulating apoptosis/necrosis of both TI and TII cells

Also blocks communication between TII cells and fibroblasts, therefore blocking repair mechanisms

290
Q

How do procarcinogens in smoking cause damage?

A

Contains procarcinogens which are activated by phase I enzymes

In normal metabolism, phase II enzymes then make these water soluble so that they can be metabolised and excreted

Smoking overloads the pathway, and may inactivate the enzyme, therefore the carcinogen may undergo DNA binding, adduct formation, no repair and mutation

291
Q

What are the main causes of lung cancer?

A

Tobacco (carcinogens, 75% attributable, 25% non-smokers)

Radon (radiation)

Asbestos

NB. Asbestos + smoking -> 50x increased risk

292
Q

What percentage of lung cancer patients die within 1 year of diagnosis?

A

80%

293
Q

How many deaths per year in the UK are caused by lung cancer?

A

40,000 deaths per annum in UK
3rd most common cause
(Quarter of all cancer deaths)

294
Q

What are the trends in mortality from lung cancer in smokers/ex-smokers?

A

Trends in mortality from lung cancer match trends in smoking

Passive smoking also leads to lung cancer

Not ‘too late’ to stop-> whenever you stop lower risk

295
Q

What is the genetic basis of lung cancer?

A

Increasingly recognised that polymorphisms in certain genes affect the risk of developing lung cancer and may help explain why some smokers do not develop lung cancer

FAMILIAL LUNG CANCERS
Rare, but epidemiological evidence of increased risk for first degree relatives of young age, non-smoking cases

SUSCEPTIBILITY GENES
Nicotine addiction, chemical modification of carcinogens-> polymorphisms in cytochrome p450 enzymes and glutathione S transferases which play a role in eliminating carcinogens

296
Q

What are clinical features of lung cancer?

A

Haemoptysis

Unexplained or persistent (more than 3 weeks)

  • Cough
  • Chest/shoulder pain
  • Chest signs
  • Dyspnoea
  • Hoarseness
  • Finger clubbing
  • Cachexia

Clubbing of finger nails (should be acute but becomes obtuse)

Fingers also likely to be nicotine stained (if rolling)

297
Q

What is a bronchoscopy?

A

Bronchoscopy= video used to see tumour and collect samples/biopsies

298
Q

What STOP genes are often affected in lung cancer?

A

pRB
p53
bax

299
Q

Describe the pathway for squamous cell carcinoma?

A

25% of pulmonary carcinoma (closely associated with smoking)

Normal epithelium-> hyperplasia-> squamous metaplasia-> dysplasia-> carcinoma in situ-> invasive carcinoma

Normally from bronchial epithelium (but sometimes peripheral because low tar cigarettes-> breathe in deeper-> get further)

300
Q

Cells have a propensity to become cancer, what do they commonly affect?

A

Affect STOP genes and oncogenic fusion protein

Affect genes which regulate cell proliferation, invasion, angiogenesis and senescence

301
Q

Summarize how lung cancer is staged

A

TNM classification
T= Primary tumour (T1-4)
N= Nodal involvement (N0-N3)
M= Metastasis (MO-M1)

302
Q

How is the ‘T’ in TNM classification determined?

A

T1
Tumour =3cm diameter w/o invasion more proximal than lobar bronchus

T2
Tumour >3cm diameter
OR
Tumour of any size with the following:
- Invades visceral pleura, atelectasis of less than entire lung
-Proximal extent at least 2cm from carina (last cartilage ring before trachea divides into bronchi)

T3
Tumour of any size with any of the following:
- Invasion of chest wall
-Involvement of diaphragm, mediastinal pleura, or pericardium
- Atelectasis involving entire lung
- Proximal entent within 2cm of carina

T4
Tumour of any size with any of the following:
- Invasion of the mediastinum
- Invasion of heart or great vessels
- Invasion of trachea or oesophagus
- Invasion of vertebral body or carina
- Presence of malignant pleural or pericardial effusion (excess fluid accumulation)
- Satellite tumour nodule(s) within same lobe as primary tumour

303
Q

How is the ‘N’ in TNM classification determined?

A

N0= no regional node involvement

N1= metastasis to ipsilateral hilar and/or ipsilateral peribronchial nodes

N2 = metastasis to ipsilateral mediastinal and/or subcarinal nodes

N3= metastasis to contralateral mediastinal or hilar nodes OR ipsilateral or contralateral scalene or supraclavicular nodes

Lymph nodes include: anterior carinal, posterior carinal, right paratracheal, left paratracheal, right main bronchus, left main bronchus, right upper hilar, subcarinal, right lower hilar, sub-sub carinal, left hilar

304
Q

How is the ‘M’ in TNM classification determined?

A

M0= distant metastasis absent

M1= distant metastasis present (includes metastatic tumour nodules in a different lobe from the primary tumour)

Metastasis may include: brain, bone, hepatic, superior vena cava obstruction

305
Q

What are the stage groups of TNM subsets?

A

IA – T1 N0 M0

IB – T2 N0 M0

IIA – T1 N1 M0

IIB – T2 N1 M0 or T3 N0 MO

IIIA – T3 N1 M0 or T1-3 N2 M0

IIIB – Any T N3 M0 or T4 Any N M0

1V – Any T Any N M1

306
Q

What are the main types of lung cancer?

A
Non small cell cancer (more treatable)
Small cell lung cancer (more dangerous, no known precursors) 
Benign
Malignant
Squamous 
Adenocarcinoma 

BAMS S N-S

307
Q

What is a known precursor of adenocarcinoma?

A

Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia= precursor of adenocarcinoma

Precursor legions of some major lung cancer types are recognized

308
Q

What are benign lung tumours?

A

Don’t metastasise

Can cause local complications e.g. airways obstruction e.g. chrondroma

309
Q

What are malignant lung tumours?

A

Potential to metastasise, but variable clinical behaviour from relatively indolent to aggressive

Commonest are epithelial tumours

310
Q

What is squamous cell carcinoma? (+ Histology)

A

25-40% of lung cancer
Strong association with smoking
Mainly central arising from bronchial epithelium
Distant spread is later than seen in adenocarcinoma

Histology – shows evidence of squamous differentiation (keratinisation, desmosomes), variety of sub-types

311
Q

What is adenocarcinoma? (+ Cytology and Histology)

A

Atypical adenomatous hyperplasia – proliferation of atypical cells lining the alveolar walls seen

They increase in size and eventually can become invasive

Molecular pathways
- Precursor may be type 2 pneumocyte/clara cell
- In non-smoker, EGFR mutation/amplification
In smoker, K ras mutation with DNA methylation of p53 occurs

Cytology – mucin vacuoles seen

Histology – extrathoracic metastases common and seen early, evidence of glandular differentiation seen with mucin secretion

312
Q

What is large cell carcinoma?

A

Poorly differentiated tumour composed of large cells with no histological evidence of glandular or squamous differentiation

Electron microscopy shows evidence of some differentiation, suggesting they are probably very poorly differentiated adeno/squamous cell carcinoma

Poor prognosis

313
Q

What is small cell carcinoma?

A

20-25% of lung cancer, very strong association with smoking, very aggressive behaviour

80% present with advanced disease and paraneoplastic syndromes

314
Q

Outline some cytological and histological ways of investigation lung cancer

A
CYTOLOGY- looking at cells
Sputum
Bronchial washings and brushings
Pleural fluid
Endoscopic fine needle aspiration of tumour/enlarged lymph nodes

HISTOLOGY- looking at tissues
Biopsy at bronchoscopy- central tumours
Percutaneous CT guided biopsy- peripheral tumours
Mediastinoscopy and lymph node biopsy- for staging
Open biopsy at time of surgery if lesion isn’t accessible (frozen section)
Resection specimen- confirm excision and staging

315
Q

How is survival related to stage?

A

Survival related to suitability for surgery
Considered in patients with Stage I, II and some with IIIa disease
Need to detect tumour early

316
Q

Histologically-determining tumour type (small or non-small) is important for treatment, why?

A

SMALL CELL LUNG CARCINOMA
Survival 2-4 months untreated
10-20 months with current therapy
Chemoradiotherapy (surgery very rarely undertaken as most have spread at time of diagnosis)

NON SMALL CELL LUNG CARCINOMA
Early Stage 1: 60% 5 yr survival
Late Stage 4: 5% 5 yr survival
20-30% have early stage tumours suitable for surgical resection
Less chemosensitive
317
Q

Molecular studies of lung cancer allow what data to be generated?

A

Prognostic data

Therapeutic data (e.g. response to chemo, targets for novel drugs)
E.g. Advanced NSCLC ERCC1 (excision repair cross-complimentation group 1 protein) has poor response to cisplatin based chemo
318
Q

What are key targets of treatment in lung cancer (EGFR)?

A

Membrane receptor tyrosine kinase (regulates angiogenesis, proliferation, apoptosis and migration)

Mutation/amplification in NSCLC (non-smokers, females, asian ethnicity, adeno 46% vs squam 5%, target of TK inhibitor)

319
Q

What are the LOCAL effects of bronchogenic carcinomas?

A

BRONCHIAL OBSTRUCTION
Collapse of distal lung-> shortness of breath
Impaired drainage of bronchus-> chest infection (pneumonia abscess)

INVASION OF LOCAL STRUCTURES
Invasion of local airways and vessels (haemoptysis, cough)
Invasion around large vessels (superior vena cava syndrome- venous congestion of head and arm oedema and ultimately circulatory collapse)
Oesophagus (dysphagia)
Chest wall (pain)
Nerves (Horners syndrome)

EXTENSION THROUGH PLEURA OR PERICARDIUM
Pleuritis or pericarditis with effusions
Breathlessness
Cardiac compromise

DIFFUSE LYMPHATIC SPRERAD WITHIN LUNG
Shortness of breath, very poor prognostic features
Lymphangitis carcinomatosa

320
Q

What are the SYSTEMIC effects of bronchogenic carcinomas?

A
Physical effects of metastatic spread
Brain (fits)
Skin (lumps)
Liver (liver pain, deranged LFTs)
Bones (bone pain, fracture)
321
Q

What is paraneoplastic syndrome?

A

Paraneoplastic syndrome= systemic effect of tumour due to abnormal expression by tumour cells of factors (e.g. hormones and other factors) not normally expressed by the tissue from which the tumour arose

Endocrine or non-endocrine

322
Q

What are the endocrine and non-endocrine causes of paraneoplastic syndromes?

A

ENDOCRINE
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
- “Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone” causing hyponatremia (especially small cell carcinoma)

Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
- Cushing’s syndrome (especially small cell carcinoma)

Parathyroid hormone-related peptides
- Hypercalcaemia (especially squamous carcinoma)

Other

  • Calcitonin ->Hypocalcaemia
  • Gonadotropins ->Gynecomastia
  • Serotonin ->“Carcinoid syndrome” (especially carcinoid tumors; rarely small cell carcinoma)

NON-ENDOCRINE
Haematologic/coagulation defects, skin, muscular, miscellaneous disorders

323
Q

What is mesothelioma?

A

Malignant tumour of pleura

Aetiology - asbestos exposure

324
Q

What are common risk factors of mesothelioma?

A

Most patients have history of asbestos exposure
Long lag time: tumour develops decades after exposure
Males>females, approx 3:1
50-70 years of age
Present with shortness of breath, chest pain
Dismal prognosis

325
Q

What is the 5 year survival or cure rate of lung cancer?

A
326
Q

What are the functions of the respiratory muscles?

A

Maintenance of arterial PO2, PCO2 and pH (H+ ion) but pH probably most important

Defence of airways and lung: cough, sneeze, yawn

Exercise- fight and flight

Speech, sing, blow

Laugh, cry, express emotions

Control of intrathoracic and intra-abdominal pressures e.g. defecation, belch, vomiting

327
Q

What controls breathing?

A

Metabolic controller in the medulla
Behavioural controller in the cortex
Reflex control

328
Q

What is the respiratory frequency per second?

A

1/Ttot (so 60/Ttot per min)

329
Q

What is minute ventilation?

A

Total air moved in and out per minute
Ve= Vt x f

Ve= minute ventilation
Vt= tidal volume
f= frequency
330
Q

What proportion of minute ventilation is dead space ventilation?

A

1/3

331
Q

What happens to inspiratory flow when there is a greater force of inspiration (controlled by brain)?

A

Greater force-> faster contraction-> greater inspiratory flow

332
Q

What is the speed of expiration controlled by?

A

Passive

Braked so it occurs smoothly

333
Q

When measuring tidal volume, what needs to be considered (regarding respiratory tube)?

A

Tidal volume for normal subjects is larger than results because of dead space between mouth and respiratory valve

334
Q

How is the slope of VT/TI altered in chronic bronchitis and emphysema?

A

Normal= peak tidal volume (0.8) at 2.2 seconds, back to 0 at 4.6 seconds

Emphysema= peak tidal volume (0.7) at 1.8 seconds, back to 0 at 3.6 seconds

Chronic bronchitis= peak tidal volume (0.5) at 1 second, back to 0 at 2.8 seconds

THIS MEANS TTOT IS LONGEST IN NORMAL SUBJECTS AND SHORTEST IN CHRONIC BRONCHITIS

335
Q

What does a shorter Ttot mean?

A

Faster

336
Q

What parts of the CNS are involved in controlling breathing?

A

Voluntary (behavioural) centre in motor area of cerebral cortex

Involuntary (metabolic) centre in the medulla (bulbo-pontine brain)

  • Other parts of cortex not under voluntary control influence metabolic centre
  • Sleep via the reticular formation also influences the metabolic centre
337
Q

Outline metabolic control of breathing (from the CNS)

A

Involuntary (metabolic) centre in the medulla (bulbo-pontine brain)
- Responds to metabolic demands for and production of CO2 and determines, in part, the set point for C02 (generally monitored as PaCO2)

May be influenced by:

  • Limbic system (survival responses- suffocation, hunger, thirst)
  • Frontal cortex (emotions)
  • Sensory inputs (pain, startle)

Metabolic will always override behavioural

338
Q

Outline behavioural control of breathing (from the CNS)

A

Voluntary (behavioural) centre in motor area of cerebral cortex

Behavioural centre controls acts e.g. breath holding, singing

339
Q

What role do the phrenic nerve and chest wall have in metabolic control of breathing?

A

Phrenic nerve-> respiratory spinal motor neurons

Metabolic controller H+ R sets impulse frequency

Chest wall and lung feedback to the metabolic centre

SEE DIAGRAM

340
Q

How does the carotid body (peripheral) chemoreceptor contribute to changes in arterial blood gases?

A

Well perfused carotid body ‘tastes’ arterial blood

Lies at the junction of the internal and external carotid arteries in the neck

Rapid response system for detecting changes in arterial PCO2 and PO2

341
Q

What ‘pacemakers’ control central breathing?

A

Unlike heart (which has single pacemaker)

‘Group pacemaker’ activity coming from about 10 groups of neurons in the medulla (near nuclei of IX and X cranial nerves)

E.g. 1 group= pre-Botzinger complex

342
Q

What is the pre-Botzinger complex?

A

A pacemaker that controls central breathing
Gasping centre
In ventro-cranial medulla, near 4th ventricle
Essential for generating the respiratory rhythm
Coordinates with other ‘controllers’ (i.e. to convert gasping into orderly/responsive respiratory rhythm)

343
Q

Discrete groups of neurons in the medulla discharge at difference phases of the respiratory cycle, what functions do these have?

A

Early inspiratory initiates inspiratory flow via resp muscles

Inspiratory augmenting may also dilate pharynx larynx and airways

Late inspiratory may signal end of inspiration and ‘brake’ the start of expiration

Expiratory decrementing may ‘brake’ passive expiration by adduction larynx and pharynx

Expiratory augmenting may activate expiratory muscles when ventilation increases on exercise

Late expiratory may signal end of expiration and onset of inspiration and may dilate the pharynx in prep for inspiration

344
Q

List the nerves involved in reflex control of breathing

A

Vth nerve= afferents from nose and face (irritant)

IXth nerve= from pharynx and larynx (irritant)

Xth nerve= from bronchi and bronchioles (irritant and stretch)

  • Hering=Breuer reflex from pulmonary stretch Rs senses lengthening and shortening and terminates inspiration and expiration
  • Weak in humans (ventilator responses in denervated lungs post-transplantation are normal)

Irritant Rs-> cough, sneezing etc. are defensive

Thoracic SC= from chest wall and respiratory muscles (spindles~ stretch)

345
Q

Why does monitoring H+ changes allow PC02 changes to be seen?

A

CO2 is very diffusible and H+ changes mirrors Pco2 changes

Very rapidly for the hyperperfused carotid body

But more slowly in ECF bathing medulla

Fast and slow responses exist

346
Q

What are the 2 parts of the metabolic controller?

A

Central in medulla responding to H+ ion of ECF

Peripheral part at carotid bifurcation, H+ Rs of carotid body

347
Q

What potentiates CO2 responses?

A

Acidosis (lowers threshold, doesn’t change store)

Hypoxia

348
Q

What role does CO2 have in ventilatory responses to hypoxia?

A

Ventilatory responses to hypoxia are amplified by CO2

Always an interaction between PO2 and PaC02

349
Q

What needs to be controlled by breathing?

A

PaCO2

H+

PaO2 is not as tightly controlled as PaCO2 and H+

SaO2 rather than PaO2 appears to be defended

350
Q

What happens to PaO2 and PaCO2 when ventilation falls?

A

Fall in PaO2 and rise in PaCO2

PaO2 fall-> increased sensitivity of carotid body to PaCO2 and H+

Ventilation and PaO2 increases

PaCO2 falls by –ve fb

351
Q

What happens when PaO2 and PaCO2 fall together (e.g. climbing)?

A

Fall in inspired PO2 rather than minute ventilation is the primary event

352
Q

What are the neural responses to loaded breathing?

A

Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Metabolic alkalosis

353
Q

What is respiratory acidosis?

A

Acute: hypoventilation-> PaO2 to decrease, PaCO2 and H+ increase
-> Stimulates metabolic centre (and carotid body) to increase minute ventilation and restore blood gas and H+ levels

Chronic: ventilator compensation may be inadequate for PaCO2 homeostasis but renal excretion of weak acids (lactate and keto) returns H+ to normal (even though PaCO2 remains high)

354
Q

What is metabolic acidosis?

A

Acidosis= excess production of H+

Compensatory mechanisms

Ventilatory stimulation lowers
PaCO2 and H+

Renal excretion of weak (lactate and keto) acids

Renal retention of chloride to reduce strong ion difference

355
Q

What is metabolic alkalosis?

A

Alkalosis: excess HCO3- lowers H+

Compensatory mechanisms

Hypoventilation raises PaCO2 and H+

Renal retention of weak (lactate and keto) acids

Renal excretion of chloride to increase strong ion difference

356
Q

What are hypoventilation conditions?

A

PaCO2 increases
Central (acute or chronic)
Peripheral (acute or chronic)
COPD (mixture of peripheral and central)

357
Q

What causes central ‘won’t breathe hypoventilation?

A

ACUTE
Metabolic centre poisoning (drugs especially opioids, anaesthetics)

CHRONIC
Vascular/neoplastic disease of metabolic centre
Congenital central hypoventilation syndrome (decreased VE and PaCO2)
Obesity hypoventilation syndrome
Chronic mountain sickness

358
Q

What causes peripheral ‘can’t breathe’ hypoventilation?

A

ACUTE

Muscle relaxant drugs, myasthenia gravis

CHRONIC
Neuromuscular with respiratory muscle weakness

359
Q

What conditions lead to hyperventilation?

A
PaCO2 decreases
Chronic hypoxaemia
Excess H+ (metabolic causes)
Pulmonary vascular disease
Chronic anxiety (psychogenic)
360
Q

How can breathlessness arise?

A

With excitement or anticipation

  • > Suspending breathing with an emotional cause
  • > WITHOUT BREATH

Out of breath

  • > Normal experience when exercise exceeds a threshold of comfort
  • > TOO MUCH BREATHING
361
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

Medical term for breathlessness but with connotation of discomfort or difficulty

Tightness (due to narrowing airway, feels like chest isn’t expanding normally)

Increased work and effort

  • High minute ventilation
  • OR normal minute ventilation with high lung volume
  • OR against an inspiratory or expiratory resistance
362
Q

What is air hunger?

A

Sensation of a powerful urge to breath, e.g. breath hold during exercise

Mismatch between VE demanded/VE achieved (output)

Cerebral cortex compares 2 afferent inputs

1) Demand= copy (corollary) of signal sent by metabolic controller to spinal motorneurones
2) Output= Afferents from lung, chest wall and chemoreceptors (carotid body)

363
Q

How can air hunger be replicated experimentally?

A

Experimentally, produced by driving breathing with added CO2 while restricting tidal volume (breathing from bag of fixed volume)

364
Q

What scales are used to measure breathlessness during an exercise test?

A

Borg CR 10 scale (0 nothing at all, 10 maximal)

Visual analogue scale (0 not at all breathless, 10 extremely breathless)

365
Q

What is BHT?

A

Breath holding time

Tests strength of behavioural vs metabolic controller

Break point prolonged by increasing lung volume, lowering PaCO2 or by taking an isoxic/isocapnic breath near the break point

Acute thoracic muscle paralysis with curare does not prolong BHT

Break point is an expression of air hunger

BHT~ product of stretch receptor drive x metabolic drive

366
Q

What test is used to test arterial blood gases (ABG)?

A

Cornerstone blood test

367
Q

What is alkalaemia?

A

Raised pH of blood

368
Q

What is acidaemia?

A

Lowered pH of blood

369
Q

What is alkalosis?

A

Describes circumstances that will decrease proton concentration and increase pH

370
Q

What is acidosis?

A

Describes circumstances that will increase proton concentration and decrease pH

371
Q

What is an acid?

A

Any molecule that has a loosely bound H+ ion it can donate

372
Q

Why does the acidity of the blood need to be tightly regulated?

A

Changes-> alter 3D structure of proteins -> altered enzymes, hormones, channels

373
Q

What is a base?

A

Anionic (negatively charged ion) molecule capable of reversibly binding protons
-> Reduce amount of free H+

H+A- H+ and A-
Relationship is in equilbrium

374
Q

When a relationship is in equilibrium, what happens when you increase something on one side?

A

Push the equation in the opposite direction

H2O + CO2 H2CO3 H+ + HCO3-

375
Q

How do the blood react to pH imbalances?

A

Blood has enormous buffering capacity
Can react almost immediately to imbalances

(Pitts and Swan experiment)

376
Q

Describe the pH scale?

A
Log 10 transformation using number of H+ ions (was too tiny to use easily) 
Made negative (-log10[H+]) to make positive values
Inverse log (10 to the power of x) can be used to calculate H+ concentration from pH
[H+] = 10 to the power of -pH
377
Q

What is the Sorensen equation?

A

pH= -log10[H+]

378
Q

What is the Henderson equation?

A

K= ([H+][HCO3-]) / [CO2]

379
Q

What is the Henderson-Hasselbalch equation?

A

pH= pK + log10 ([HCO3-] / [CO2])

Uses Sorensen and Henderson

pH= -log10[H+] AND K= ([H+][HCO3-]) / [CO2]

380
Q

How do you assess the respiratory component of arterial blood gases (ABG)?

A

PaCO2 (high or low)

381
Q

How do you assess the metabolic component of arterial blood gases (ABG)?

A

BE (high or low)

382
Q

How do you assess hypoaxaemia using arterial blood gases (ABG)?

A

PaO2

> 10 kPa= normal
8-10= mild
6-8 moderate

383
Q

How do you assess acidosis/ alkalosis using arterial blood gases (ABG)?

A

pH

384
Q

How do compensatory mechanisms (renal and respiratory) correct acid-base imbalances?

A

Changes in ventilation can stimulate a RAPID compensatory response to change CO2 elimination and therefore alter pH

Changes in HCO3- and H+ retention/secretion in the kidneys can stimulate a SLOW compensatory response to increase/decrease pH

An acidosis will need an alkalosis to correct

An alkalosis will need an acidosis to correct

385
Q

How is compensation described in ABG?

A

Uncompensated
Partially compensated
Fully compensated (pH is normal )

386
Q

How is oxygenation described in ABG?

A

Hypoxaemia
Normoxaemia
Hyperoxaemia

387
Q

How can pH be distorted?

A

RESPIRATION
Hypoventilation
Hyperventilation

METABOLISM
Lose bicarbonate= Diarrhoea (Proton gaining e.g. lactic acid production increase)

Bicarbonate gaining (losing HCL) and proton losing= Vomiting

388
Q

How does hypoventilation distort pH?

A

Less breathing than normal
Reduction in minute ventilation
Less fresh air reaching alveolar
Amount of CO2 in alveolar sacs steadily increases
Reduces diffusion gradient
Less CO2 moves out of the blood
Amount of CO2 in post-alveolar blood increases
Favours forward reaction (carbonic acid-> increased H+ and HCO3-)
Excess accumulation of protons

SO....
Decreased pH
Increased PCO2
 BE
(Bicarbonate concentration is correct for PCO2 'proportionally normal')

UNCOMPENSATED RESPIRATORY ACIDOSIS

389
Q

Why is CO2 called a respiratory acid?

A

CO2 is a respiratory acid

Combines with water to form carbonic acid-> dissociates to H+ and HCO3-

390
Q

How does the body attempt to correct the imbalance caused by lower pH (proton accumulation) (RESPIRATORY) ?

A

Body tries to reduce proton concentration (respiratory acidosis)
Increase bicarbonate to bind excess protons and normalise pH

ACUTE PHASE
CO2 moving into erythrocytes combines with H20 in presence of carbonic anhydrase-> bicarbonate
Bicarbonate moves out of cell via AE1 transporter
Increased plasma bicarbonate concentration pushes the carbonic acid equilibrium backwards-> increases pH

CHRONIC PHASE
Increases amount of bicarbonate reabsorbed in the kidneys

Once corrective mechanisms in action…
pH still low (closer)
PCO2 still increased
BE high (plasma bicarbonate higher than expected for the PCO2)

PARTIALLY COMPENSATED RESPIRATORY ACIDOSIS

391
Q

What is fully compensated respiratory acidosis?

A

Compensation returns pH to within normal range

pH
High PCO2
High BE

FULLY COMPENSATED RESPIRATORY ACIDOSIS

392
Q

How does hyperventilation distort pH?

A

More breathing than normal
Increase in minute ventilation
More fresh air reaching alveolar
Amount of CO2 in alveolar sacs steadily decreases
Increases diffusion gradient
More CO2 moves out of the blood
Amount of CO2 in post-capillary blood decreases
Favours backward reaction (more protons lost from solution)
Increasing pH

SO....
Increased pH
Decreased PCO2
 BE
(Bicarbonate concentration is correct for PCO2 'proportionally normal')

UNCOMPENSATED RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS

393
Q

How does the body attempt to correct the imbalance caused by increased pH (RESPIRATORY)?

A

Body tries to increase proton concentration in the blood

CHRONIC PHASE
Reduces amount of bicarbonate reabsorbed in the kidneys (renal nephrons)
Increases bicarbonate secretion in collecting ducts
More carbonic acid will dissociate into proteons

Once corrective mechanisms in action…
pH still high (closer)
PCO2 still decreased
BE low (plasma bicarbonate lower than expected for the PCO2)

PARTIALLY COMPENSATED RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS

394
Q

What is fully compensated respiratory alkalosis?

A

Compensation returns pH to within normal range

pH
Low PCO2
Low BE

FULLY COMPENSATED RESPIRATORY ALKALOSIS

395
Q

Why does diarrhoea affect acid/base balance?

A

Watery faeces
Bicarbonate lost in enteric secretions that can’t be replaced quickly enough
Means decreased bicarbonate and accumulation of protons

Decreased pH
Normal PCO2
Decreased BE

UNCOMPENSATED METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

396
Q

How does the body attempt to correct the imbalance caused by decreased pH (METABOLIC)?

A

Plasma proton concentration needs to be increased

Manipulate ventilation

Increased ventilation
Reduces alveolar PCO2
Increases diffusion gradient
Reduces systemic arterial PCO2

Shifts carbonic acid reaction to left to correct PACO2
Decreased CO2
More protons and bicarbonate combine-> carbonic acid which is then converted into water and CO2

pH low
PCO2 low
BE low

PARTIALLY COMPENSATED METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

397
Q

What is fully compensated metabolic acidosis?

A

Compensation returns pH to within normal range

pH
Low PCO2
Low BE

FULLY COMPENSATED METABOLIC ACIDOSIS

398
Q

Why does vomiting affect acid/base balance?

A

Vomiting
Lose HCL from stomach
Generalised loss of protons from EC environment
Bicarbonate concentration increases (less protons to bind to)

Increased pH
Normal PCO2
Increased BE (disproportionately high)

UNCOMPENSATED METABOLIC ALKALOSIS

399
Q

How does the body attempt to correct the imbalance caused by increased pH (METABOLIC)?

A

Plasma proton concentration needs to be reduced

Manipulate ventilation

Reduced ventilation
Increases PCO2 of arterial blood

Shifts carbonic acid reaction to right to correct increased PACO2

Produces more protons and further increases bicarbonate

pH high
PCO2 high
BE high

PARTIALLY COMPENSATED METABOLIC ALKALOSIS

400
Q

What is fully compensated metabolic alkalosis?

A

Compensation returns pH to within normal range

pH
High PCO2
High BE

FULLY COMPENSATED METABOLIC ALKALOSIS

401
Q

Regarding pH, PCO2 and BE, what is characteristic of:
Uncompensated respiratory acidosis
Partially compensated respiratory acidosis
Fully compensated respiratory acidosis

Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis
Fully compensated respiratory alkalosis

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis
Partially compensated metabolic acidosis
Fully compensated metabolic acidosis

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis
Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis
Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis

A

pH PCO2 BE (ARROW DIRECTION) SAME means no change

Uncompensated respiratory acidosis= DOWN UP SAME
Partially compensated respiratory acidosis= DOWN UP UP
Fully compensated respiratory acidosis= SAME UP UP

Uncompensated respiratory alkalosis= UP DOWN SAME
Partially compensated respiratory alkalosis= UP DOWN DOWN
Fully compensated respiratory alkalosis= SAME DOWN DOWN

Uncompensated metabolic acidosis= DOWN SAME DOWN
Partially compensated metabolic acidosis= DOWN DOWN DOWN
Fully compensated metabolic acidosis= SAME DOWN DOWN

Uncompensated metabolic alkalosis= UP SAME UP
Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis= UP UP UP
Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis= SAME UP UP

402
Q

If BE is normal and there has been a respiratory disturbance, what compensation has occurred?

A

Uncompensated

403
Q

If CO2 is normal and there has been a metabolic disturbance, what compensation has occurred?

A

Uncompensated

404
Q

If pH is normal and BE and CO2 are both 1) UP? 2) DOWN? What has happened?

A

1) Fully compensated respiratory acidosis OR Fully compensated metabolic alkalosis
2) Fully compensated respiratory alkalosis OR Fully compensated metabolic acidosis

405
Q

If pH, BE and CO2 are all 1) UP? 2) DOWN? What has happened?

A

1) Partially compensated metabolic alkalosis

2) Partially compensated metabolic acidosis

406
Q

If pH is in a different direction to BE and CO2, what happened?

A

pH DOWN, BE & CO2 UP= partially compensated respiratory acidosis

pH UP, BE & CO2 DOWN= partially compensated respiratory alkalosis

407
Q

Describe the neurophysiological pathway of respiratory symptoms being generated and perceived?

A

Sensory stimulus-> transducer-> excitation of sensory nerve-> integrated into CNS-> sensory impression

408
Q

Describe the behavioural psychology pathway of respiratory symptoms being generated and perceived?

A

Sensory impression-> perception-> evoked sensation

409
Q

What are the symptoms and signs of respiratory disease?

A

SYMPTOMS
An abnormal or worrying sensation that leads the person to seek medical attention e.g. cough, chest pain, shortness of breath (SOB), haemoptysis

SIGNS
An observable feature on physical examination e.g. hyperinflation of chest wall, dullness on percussion of chest wall, increased respiratory rate, reduced movement of chest wall

410
Q

What is the prevalence of coughs, chest pain and dyspnea in patients?

A

COUGH
3rd most common complaint heard by GP
10-38% of patients in respiratory outpatients complain of cough

CHEST PAIN
Most common pain for which patient seeks medical attention (35%), including acute chest pain

DYSPNEA (shortness of breath)
6-27% of general population
3% of visits to A&E

411
Q

Define: cough

A

A crucial defence mechanism protecting the lower respiratory tract from inhaled foreign material and excessive secretion, secondary to mucociliary clearance

412
Q

What is the most prevalent cough?

A

Chronic cough correlated to smoking, but also associated with current asthma, environmental tobacco smoke exposure

Prevalence 7.2-18%, with reduced prevalence involving sputum production

413
Q

What does the expulsive phase of a cough do?

A

Generates a high velocity of airflow

Facilitated by bronchoconstriction and mucus secretion

414
Q

How much fluid is removed from the airways each day?

A

30-100ml of fluid

415
Q

What is the ‘cough receptor’?

A

Nerve profile situated between a goblet cell and a columnar epithelial cell
When stimulated-> cough

416
Q

Where are irritant receptors found?

A

Within airway epithelium
Mostly on posterior wall of trachea
Rapidly adapting

Less numerous at main carina (last cartilage before trachea bifurcation) and large branching points

less numerous in more distal airways

Also in pharynx

Possibly elsewhere

417
Q

What do laryngeal and tracheobronchial receptors respond do?

A

Chemical and mechanical stimuli

418
Q

What sensory receptors give rise to a cough?

A

Slowly adapting stretch receptors
= Myelinated nerve fibres

Rapidly adapting stretch receptors
= Small myelinated nerve fibres, respond to mech/chem stimuli and inflamm mediators

C fibre receptors
= Free nerve endings, small unmyelinated fibres
Respond to chemical irritants and inflamm mediators
Release neuropeptide inflammatory mediators (substance B, neurokinin A, calcitonin gene related peptide)

419
Q

Where are sensory receptors involved in coughing?

A

In lungs and airways

SA stretch= airway smooth muscle, predominantly in trachea and main bronchi

RA stretch= naso-pharynx, larynx, trachea, bronchi

420
Q

List examples of chemical and mechanical irritants that can lead to coughs

A

Mechanical= dust, mucous, food, drink

Chemical= noxious, intrinsic inflammatory agents

421
Q

Outline the nerve pathways/neural activity involved in coughing

A

AFFERENT
From lungs via vagus (X) nerve (relay impulses to near the nucleus tractus solitarius to medulla cough centre)
From throat via superior laryngeal nerve (also stimulates cough centre in medulla-> cerebral cortex)

CENTRAL
Cough centre in brainstem probably diffusely located

EFFERENT
Cerebral cortex-> cough centre-> glottis, diaphragm and expiratory muscles
I.e. motor neurones to respiratory muscles

422
Q

What is the bulbopontine controller?

A

The respiratory centre

Different from cough centre in medulla oblongato

423
Q

What neurotransmitters may be involved in coughing?

A

5-HT, GABA

Opiates suppress cough

424
Q

Describe how coughing produces a sound?

A

Inspiratory phase= negative airflow occurs
Glottic closure= subglottic pressure increases (while glottis is closed)
Expiratory phase= explosure, airflow increases rapidly-> sound

425
Q

What are causes of chronic coughs?

A

Acute infections– tracheobronchitis, bronchopneumonia, viral pneumonia, acute-on-chronic bronchitis, bordetella pertussis

Chronic infections– bronchiectasis, tuberculosis, cystic fibrosis

Airway diseases– asthma, chronic bronchitis, chronic post-nasal drip

Parenchymal diseases– interstitial fibrosis, emphysema

Tumours– bronchogenic carcinoma, alveolar cell carcinoma, benign airway tumours

Foreign body

Cardiovascular– left ventricular failure, pulmonary infarction, aortic aneurysm

Other diseases– reflux oesophagitis, recurrent aspiration

Drugs– angiotensin converting enzyme

426
Q

What types of cough are there?

A
ACUTE
3 weeks on presentation to respiratory clinic 
Asthma + eosinophil associated 
Gastro-oesophageal associated 
Rhinosinusitis (post-nasal drip) 
Chronic bronchitis (“smokers cough”) 
Bronchiectasis, Drugs, 
Post-viral, Idiopathic and other causes
427
Q

How are unnecessary coughs controlled?

A

Oesophageal bronchial reflex
Direct action of protons on cough receptors
Activation of brainstem cough centres

428
Q

What is the oesophageal bronchial reflex?

A

Activation of cough receptors occurs due to interconnecting neurones between the trachea and oesophagus

429
Q

What is the direct action of protons on cough receptors?

A

Protons travel to the pharynx and stimulate cough receptors

430
Q

What is the activation of brainstem cough centres?

A

Neural mechanism (plastic i.e. can be increased by chemical mediators)

Chemical mediators (e.g. prostaglandin E2) increase the excitability of afferent nerves

The number of receptors and voltage-gated channels increases, e.g. TRPV-1 (transient receptor potential vanniloid-1: calcium-permeable, non-selective cation channel)

Neurotransmitter levels increase e.g. neurokinins in brain stem

431
Q

What are the indications of a chronic cough?

A

Increased cough reflex

Irritation in the throat or upper chest

Cough paroxysms are difficult to control

Triggers of chronic cough include: deep inhalation; laughing; talking too much; vigorous exercise; smells; cigarette smoke; eating crumbles; cold air; lying flat

432
Q

What are possible complications of coughs?

A

Pneumothorax with subcutaneous emphysema

Loss of conciousness (cough syncope)

Cardiac dysrythmias

Headaches

Intercostal muscle pain

Rupture of rectus abdominis juscle

Social embarrassment

Depression

Urinary incontinence

Wound dehiscence

433
Q

How can coughs be treated?

A

Inhaled corticosteroids and inhaled beta-adrenergic agonists (for asthma, cough-variant asthma and eosinophilic bronchitis)

Topical steroids, topical vasoconstrictors for rhinosinusitis (post-nasal drip)

Proton-pump inhibitors, medical therapies - for gastro-oesophageal reflux

Stop ACE inhibitor – for ACE inhibitor cough

Antitussives:

  • Opiates – codeine, pholcodeine, dextromethorphan
  • Demulcents
  • Aromatics
434
Q

What do bronchodilators target in coughs?

A

E.g. Beta 2 agonists and anticholinergics

Target airway smooth muscle

435
Q

What do anti-inflammatories target in coughs?

A

Blood vessel eosinophil communication

436
Q

What do opioids target in coughs?

A

CNS and Vagus nerve

437
Q

What do acid pH inhibitors target in coughs?

A

Airway epithelium

Periciliary fluid

438
Q

What is the sensory input involved in chest pain?

A

Nose: trigeminal nerve (V)

Pharynx: glossopharyngeal nerve (IX); vagus nerve (X)

Larynx: vagus nerve (X)

Lungs: vagus nerve (X)

Chest wall: spinal nerves

439
Q

What nerve pathways are involved in chest pain?

A

PAIN PATHWAY
Pain receptors: Aδ and C-fibres
Nerve fibres cross at the spinal level and synapse in the thalamus
Nerves travel to the primary somatosensory cortex

Pain consciously sensed (neurophysiology and behavioural psychology)

TOUCH PATHWAY
Touch receptors: Aα and Aß
Nerve fibres cross at the medullary level and synapse in the thalamus
Nerves travel to the primary somatosensory cortex

440
Q

What are the main types of pain?

A

ACUTE
Somatic
Visceral (less well understood)

CHRONIC
More complications than acute, neural basis

441
Q

What kind of chest pain can occur in respiratory disorders?

A

Chest wall- muscular or rib fracture

Pleural pain

Deep-seated, poorly-localised pain

Nerve-root pain/intercostal nerve pain

Referred pain: shoulder-tip pain of diaphragmatic irritation

442
Q

What kind of chest pain can occur in non-respiratory disorders?

A

CVD – myocardial ischaemia/infarction, pericarditis, dissecting aneurysm

Gastrointestinal disorders – oesophageal rupture, gastrooesophageal ferlux

Psychiatric disorders – panic

443
Q

What is dyspnea?

A

Shortness of breath

Symptom reported by patient - occurs at inappropriately low levels of exertion and limits exercise tolerance

Unpleasant and frightening experience

Can be associated with feelings of impending suffocation

Poor perception of respiratory symptoms and dyspnoea may be life-threatening

444
Q

What is used to assess dyspnoea?

A
1. COMMENTS 
Respiratory descriptors  (different terms fit into different clusters* of phrases)
  1. SUBJECTIVE RATING SCALES
    (Modified Borg scale
    or visual analogue)
  2. QUESTIONNAIRES
    Exercise tolerance related
    Quality of life related
  3. EXERCISE TESTING
    6 in walk
    Shuttle test

Clusters
Air hunger e.g. starved for air
Work/effort e.g. breathing requires work
Tightness e.g. heaviness in chest

445
Q

What disorders present with chronic dyspnoea?

A

Impaired pulmonary function

Impaired cardiovascular function

Altered central ventilatory drive or perception

Physiologic processes e.g. deconditioning, hypoxic high altitude, pregnancy, severe exercise

Idiopathic hyperventilation

446
Q

How does impaired pulmonary function lead to SOB?

A

Airflow obstruction e.g. Asthma, COPD, tracheal stenosis
Restriction of lung mechanics e.g. idiopathicpulmonary fibrosis
Extrathoracic pulmonary restriction e.g. Kyphoscoliosis, pleural effusion
Neuromuscular weakness e.g. Phrenic nerve paralysis
Gas exchange abnormalities e.g. Right to left shunts

447
Q

How does impaired CV function lead to SOB?

A
Myocardial disease leading to heart failure
Valvular disease 
Pericardial disease 
Pulmonary vascular disease 
Congenital vascular disease
448
Q

How does altered central ventilatory drive/perception lead to SOB?

A

Systemic or metabolic disease
Metabolic acidosis
Anaemia

449
Q

How is dyspnoea treated?

A

Treat the cause, e.g. lung/cardiac

Therapeutic options include:

  • Add bronchodilators e.g. anticholinergics or b-adrenergic agonists
  • Drugs affecting brain e.g. morphine, diazepam
  • Lung resection (e.g. lung volume reduction surgery)
  • Pulmonary rehabilitation (improve general fitness, general health, psychological well-being)
450
Q

How common is pneumonia in GPs?

A

Most have lower respiratory tract illnesses which don’t require treatment

Large clinical iceberg of lower respiratory tract infections
Most who go to hospital have pneumonia
Many with pneumonia still in community

451
Q

Why are lung infections so common?

A

Breathing in -> constantly exposed to potential infectious agents

452
Q

What is the multi-layered defence mechanism of the respiratory tract?

A

Mechanical= URT filtration, mucociliary clearance, cough, surfactant, epithelial barrier

Local= BALT, slgA, lysozyme, transferrin, antiproteinases, alveolar macrophages

Systemic= polymorphonuclear leucocytes, complement, immunoglobulins

BALT (bronchiole-associated lymphoid tissue)

453
Q

Describe how mucociliary clearance works

A

Cilia are an example of mechanical defence – they are part of the mucociliary system which protects the
upper and lower airways all the way distally to the respiratory bronchioles

Ciliated layer lies beneath the sticky mucus layer, surrounding by a watery fluid (periciliary fluid)

Each epithelial cell has 200 cilia, with tight junctions sealing the gaps between the cells acting as a barrier protecting the airways

Each cilium has a coordinated beating movement, consisting of a stiff downstroke which propels mucus forward, and a curved backstroke within the periciliary fluid underneath the fluid

This ensures mucus is propelled in one direction only

Each cilium beats about 14 times per second, and engages with the mucus with its claws only when at full vertical height

Each cilium and its surrounding neighbours beat in an ordered fashion, known as metchronal rhythm

454
Q

Describe the structure of cilia

A

Each cilium also has an individual ultra-structure which can be examined under EM

Consist of 9 doublets + 2 central microtubules, which slide up and down each other to cause ciliary movement
(ATPase in the dynein arms provides the energy for movement)

455
Q

How many cilia are there per epithelial cell?

A

200

456
Q

How many times per second does each cilium beat?

A

14

457
Q

Infectious agents overcome lung defences or defences are weakened by…

A

Inherited factors e.g. immunodeficiency
Acquired e.g. through smoking

Often a combo

458
Q

What effect does smoking have on mucociliary clearance?

A

Cigarettes perturb mucociliary clearance

By destroying the cilia (seen by biopsy) and changing the nature of airways to stimulate increased mucus production (causing morning cough).

Also, makes the mucus produced more viscous and difficult to move by any remaining cilia

459
Q

What effect do viruses have on mucociliary clearance?

A

Viruses perturb mucociliary clearance by destroying cilia, stimulating the production of more and more watery mucus (leading to a runny nose)

The cilia therefore do not have a grip on the mucus, making it difficult to get rid of

In addition viruses separate the tight junctions between airway epithelium and destroy epithelial cells

460
Q

What symptoms/signs indicate that something is wrong with lung defences (i.e. respiratory infection syndromes)?

A
Incidence of virulent infections
Recurrent infections (especially pneumonia)
Chronic infections (body unable to get rid of infection
461
Q

What causes respiratory infection syndromes?

A

Congenital abnormality-> weak defences
Hereditary
Viruses
Cigarette smoking

462
Q

What is Primary Cilia Dyskinesia (PCD)?

A

Loss of some proteins in cilia

Cilia don’t beat properly so mucociliary clearance doesn’t work

Some men are infertile because sperm tails are cilia, so they do not move successfully to reach the
ovum

Cicila present with absent dynein arms, no energy, no movement

Other ultrastructural abnormalities involve the microtubules, which perform disorganised beating

463
Q

How can abnormal cilia be diagnosed?

A

Painless nasal brushing

Nitric oxide levels (less painful)

464
Q

What kind of bacterial pathogens of the lung are there?

A

Virulent species- cause pneumonia e.g. streptococcus pneumonia

Less virulent species- cause bronchitis (equipped to chronically infect airways in defences that have been compromised) e.g. unencapsulated haemophilus influenza

465
Q

How does influenza bacteria infect airways?

A

Haemophilus influenza is the commonest cause of airway infections; (1/4 smokers have this bacterium chronically infecting their airways)

Bacteria has hair-like projections called fimbriae which anchor the bacterium to epithelial cells to stop the bacteria being moved away by ciliary beat

In an infected bronchial mucosa, the bacterial infection stimulates more mucus production, and the bacteria bind avidly to mucus

In an episode of bronchitis, the inflammatory response and antibiotics help clear the infection from the airways

However bacteria are equipped with ways of avoiding elimination by the body’s defences

466
Q

What strategies do bacteria use to avoid being cleared from airways?

A

They either produce factors which impair the defences, or find ways of “hiding” from the defences

THESE INCLUDE:
Exoproducts which impair mucuciliary clearance – by slowing and disorganising ciliary beat, stimulating mucus production, affecting ion transport + damaging epithelium

Enzymes – break down local immunoglobulins

Exoproducts – impair neutrophil, macrophage + lymphocyte function

Adherence is increased by epithelial damage and tight junction separation

Avoid immune surveillance – using surface heterogeneity, biofilm formation, surrounding gel and endocytosis

467
Q

How does pneumonia infect airways?

A

Infection of the alveoli, which is a much more serious illness than infection of the airways

Most common cause is streptococcus mneumoniae – this a virulent bacterium produces a toxin called pneumolysin which punches holes into cell membranes killing the cell

5% mortality rate from hospital admissions

Clinical features: cough, sputum, fever, dyspnoea, pleural pain, headache

Consolidation of lung seen on x-ray

468
Q

What is the histology of pneumonia?

A

Histology: alveoli filled with inflammatory cells, fibrin, cell debris and bacteria

When studied under EM; dead cells seen with invading bacteria between them

469
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A

Dilated airways in which the structural proteins have been damaged-> chronic productive cough

Viscous cycle of infection and inflammation without microbial infection-> inflammation-> tissue damage-> impaired lung defences-> more infection

Chronic infection also involves a protease/antiprotease balance

E.g. case study with childhood suggests a problem with lung defences

Managed with physiotherapy (phlegm out of lungs) and many different medications

470
Q

What are the causes of chronic bronchial sepsis?

A

Congenital – e.g. pulmonary sequestration, bronchial wall abnormalities

Mechanical obstruction – e.g. foreign body, tumour, lymph node

Inflammatory pneumonitis – e.g. gastric contents, caustic gas

Fibrosis – e.g. CFA, sarcoid

Postinfective – e.g. TB, pneumonia

Immunological – e.g. ABPA, post-transplant

Impaired mucociliary clearance – e.g. CF, PCD, Youngs

Immune deficiency e.g. hypogammaglobulinaemia

471
Q

How does chronic infection involve a protease/antiprotease balance (in bronchiectasis)?

A

When phagocytes engulf bacteria they spill a little protease enzyme (normally inside the cell) to kill the bacteria

This is usually neutralised by antiproteases in the mucus

In chronic infection, so much protease is spilled it overwhelms the ability of the antiproteases to neutralise it

The proteases then digest the epithelial cells, damaging them

Structural protein elastin digested away by protease airways (released by neutrophils which are attracted into airway lumen by bacteria) in bronchiectatic airway wall

472
Q

What are the possible outcomes of bacterial infection?

A

The host defences win: bacterial eradication

The bacterium wins: serious illness or death

Bacterial persistence: lung abscess or chronic airway infection

Chronic airway infection leads to chronic inflammation-> progressive damage to the airway wall leading to bronchiectasis

The vicious circle hypothesis proposes that bacteria stimulated host-mediated inflammation causes progressive lung damage

473
Q

Summarise inspiration

A

For positive pressure breathing (mechanical ventilation):
Air flows from high pressure to neutral pressure
Air ‘pushed’ into lungs

For negative pressure breathing (regular ventilation):
Air flows from neutral pressure to low (negative) pressure
Air ‘drawn’ into lungs

474
Q

What are the stages of resting inspiration?

A
  1. Diaphragm contracts-> compresses the abdominal cavity and decompresses the thoracic cavity
  2. Intrapleural pressure decreases from -5cm H20 to -8cm H20
  3. Lung expands to prevent further decreases in intrapleural pressure
  4. Alveolar pressure decreases (Boyle’s law) and air flows in until alveolar pressure returns to 0cm H20
  5. At end inspiration, Ppl is lower than before inspiration and Palv is the same as before inspiration
475
Q

Summarise expiration

A

Diaphragm relaxes and the elastic recoil of lung increases Palv
Air flows out of lungs down the pressure gradient
Ventilation is controlled by pressure changes

NEGATIVE TRANSMURAL PRESSURE
A negative transmural pressure will cause air to flow into the lung (distending pressure)

POSITIVE TRANSMURAL PRESSURE
A positive transmural pressure will cause air to flow out of the lungs (recoil pressure)

476
Q

How can the relationship between the lungs and chest be described?

A

Fixed

Functionally treated as one unit

477
Q

What happens to inspiratory muscles in overweight people?

A

Muscles work harder

478
Q

What happens to lung mechanics in obstructive diseases (and examples)?

A

Flow of air into and out of the lung is obstructed

Lungs are operating at higher volumes

CHRONIC CAUSES= COPD, emphysema, bronchitis

ACUTE CAUSES= Asthma

479
Q

What happens to lung mechanics in restrictive diseases (and examples)?

A

Inflation/deflation of lung or chest wall is restricted

Lungs are operating at lower volumes

PULMONARY CAUSES= Lung fibrosis, interstitial lung disease

EXTRAPULMONARY CAUSES= Obesity, neuromuscular disease

480
Q

What does the pressure volume curve look like?

A

Sigmoid shape

Large changes in volume per unit pressure occur at middle volumes

Small changes in volume per unit pressure towards RV and TLC

OBSTRUCTIVE-> operate at higher volumes so greater changes per unit change in pressure (more compliant)

RESTRICTIVE-> operate at lower volumes so involve considerably higher pressures to inflate lungs

481
Q

What is compliance?

A

Voltage change / pressure change

Tendency to distort under pressure (i.e. expand on inflation)

Greater change in volume per unit of pressure reflects a higher degree of compliance

Compliance is most applicable to changing lung volume away from FRC (i.e. against the elastic properties of the intact lung)

Condom more compliant than balloon

482
Q

What is elastance?

A

Pressure change / voltage change

Tendency to recoil to its original volume

Greater change in pressure per unit of volume reflects a higher degree of elastance

Elastance is most applicable to changing lung volume towards FRC (i.e. in tandem with the elastic properties of the intact lung).

Condom less elastic than balloon

483
Q

What is more compliant: fluid or air filled lungs?

A

Fluid filled lungs

Air-water interface exhibits surface tension
Fluid-water interface does not

484
Q

Why do inflation and deflation require less pressure in fluid-filled lungs?

A

Inflation and deflation require less pressure in fluid-filled lungs due to elimination of the air-water interfece

485
Q

Why are alveoli described as interdependent?

A

Each alveolus doesn’t have its own wall (like ‘bunch’ of grapes metaphor)
Walls are shared between adjacent alveoli
Forces acting on 1 directly affect the others

(In diseased lungs, interrelationships between alveoli are impaired, diseased subunits can affect healthy ones)

486
Q

What is surface tension?

A

The tendency for water molecules to attract each other

Tension changes proportionately to the radius

Surface tension of pulmonary fluid is a contributor to the recoil of the lung (and resistance to expansion)

487
Q

What forces attract water molecules on the surface layer?

A

No forces attracting water molecules upwards
Plenty attracting downwards-> water molecules slowly pulled under to reduce this imbalance-> density gradient from the bottom to the top-> natural curvature at surface

488
Q

What would happen if water was only fluid at the air-lung interface in the alveoli?

A

Surface tension would be so great the compliance of the lung tissue would be greatly reduced

489
Q

What is pulmonary surfactant?

A

Secreted by Type II pneumocytes into alveolar spaces

80% polar phospholipids. 10% neutral lipids, 10% protein

Polar phospholipids migrate to the surface and arrange themselves with their hydrophilic heads in the fluid (hydrophobic tails protrude into the air)

Molecules interrupt the attraction between water molecules and reduce (not eliminate) the surface tension

490
Q

What are the 4 main roles of surfactant?

A

Helps to reduce the surface tension

Prevents collapse of small alveoli

Increases compliance (by reducing surface tension)

Reduces the ‘work of breathing’

491
Q

How are the surface tension reduction and concentration of surfactant related?

A

The amount of surface tension exerted is proportional to the volume of the alveolus (i.e. how much it is being stretched)

Because of the natural tendency for alveolar structures to shrink because of the surface tension, the exerted surface tension is proportional to lung volume

The reduction in surface tension is proportional to the concentration of surfactant at the fluid-air interface

492
Q

What is the law of Laplace?

A

P= 2T/r

493
Q

What is the difference between the surface tension of a lung at TLC and at the end of tidal expiration?

A

The surface tension of a lung at TLC is almost 40 times greater than at the end of a tidal expiration

494
Q

How does pulmonary surfactant regulate alveolar size?

A

Larger alveoli have a larger air-fluid interface so surfactant is less concentrated

Alveolus requires greater pressure to increase its volume relative to a smaller alveolus

Also, large inter-alveolar variation (some expand faster than other due to elastic properties)

Because of the positive relationship between alveolar volume and surface tension, the increasing surface tension in ‘more compliant’ alveoli will hinder their expansion, allowing smaller, less compliant alveoli to increase in size

495
Q

How does surfactant help prevent pulmonary oedema?

A

Decrease in alveolar size during expiration-> reduced pressure in the interstitial space

Negative pressure-> draws fluid out of the pulmonary circulation

BUT prevented by surfactant (limits decrease in alveolar size)

496
Q

Where is airway resistance highest?

A

Medium-sized airways

Lower at higher volumes because the airways also dilate

497
Q

What happens during airway closure?

A

As airway diameter decreases, radial tension force increases in the liquid lining (the force trying to tighten internal circumference of the airway)

This increases the propensity for the formation of a liquid plug from the fluid coating the airway

The hydrostatic attraction within the liquid lining narrows the lumen until it is occluded

Airway collapse is more prevalent towards the base of the lung

Temporary closure of the small airways can result in air trapping, and is associated with hyperinflation of the lungs in COPD

498
Q

What is Poiseiulle’s law?

A

(8 x viscosity x length) / (pi x r^4)

Resistance is proportional to the viscosity of a fluid (including air) and the length of the tube, and inversely proportional to the fourth power of the radius according to (Poiseiulle’s Law)

499
Q

Outline how airway resistance varies in the lungs

A

Based on Poiseiulle’s law, the resistance should increase as the cross-sectional area decreases BUT the constant generational divergence in the airways means that the cumulative cross-sectional area increase dramatically in the small airways

In fact, resistance is greatest in the fourth generation of the respiratory network, after which it decreases exponentially

Also, because the smaller airways do not have the rigid structure (cartilaginous support) of the larger airways, they are more prone to changing volume in response to pressure fluctuations

In principle, as the lungs inflate, the smaller airways also increase in diameter

This causes a progressive decrease in resistance from the fourth generation onwards

500
Q

Explain how forced expiration relates to altered flow rate (L/s) per volume (L)?

A

MEFV (maximum expiratory flow volume)

There is ‘limiting envelope’ on the expiratory curve

Unable to break if air is not pushed out hard and fast

Flow-rate is effort dependent and determined by internal architecture of the lungs

SEE DIAGRAM

501
Q

What happens to compliance and resistance in COPD?

A

Increased compliance and increased resistance

502
Q

When is intra-alveolar pressure highest?

A

In mid-expiration

503
Q

Define: hypersensitivity

A

An exaggerated response
May be immunological or non-immunological

Immunological (i.e. allergy)

  • IgE-mediated e.g. hayfever, eczema, asthma
  • Non- IgE-mediated e.g. farmers lung
504
Q

Define: allergy

A

An exaggerated immunological response to a foreign substance (allergen) which is either inhaled, swallowed, injected, or comes in contact with the skin or eye

Mechanism (not a disease)

505
Q

List some types of allergies

A

Atopic allergy (IgE mediated)

Non-atopic allergy (IgG mediated/T cell mediated)

Contact dermatitis (+ eczema, urticaria (hives), angioedema= swelling similar to hives, but not on surface of skin)

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

Coeliac disease

506
Q

Define: atopy

A

Hereditary predisposition to produce IgE antibodies against common environmental allergens

Atopic diseases= allergic rhinitis, asthma, atopic eczema

507
Q

How are allergic tissue reactions in atopic subjects characterised?

A

Infiltration of Th2 cells and eosinophils

508
Q

What is ‘allergic match’?

A

The term used to describe the common progression from atopic dermatitis to allergic asthma

509
Q

How are allergic reactions in the upper and lower respiratory airways mediated by IgE?

A

Acute symptoms= from binding of allergen to IgE-coated mast cell (-> mast cell degranulation and histamine release)

Chronic symptoms= from interaction of the allergen with antigen-presenting cells (-> release of Th2 cytokines and chemokines)

510
Q

What kinds of CD cell is Th2?

A

CD4+

511
Q

What is released by Th2 cells (via interleukins)?

A

IL-4 -> IgE synthesis

IL-5 -> Eosinophil development -> IL-9

IL-9-> Mast cell development

IL-13-> IgE synthesis + airway hyper-responsiveness

512
Q

Outline the responses of Th2

A

Involves the collaboration between innate and adaptive immune responses

PAMPs present on allergen interact with barrier cells e.g. epithelial cells lining airway - stimulates secretion of IL-33 and IL-25

Interleukins attract natural helper cells, nuocytes and MPPtype2 cells (which differentiate to form mast cells, basophils and macrophages)

These cells then secrete IL-4, IL-5 + IL-13, which induces Th2 cell differentiation, B1 cell proliferation and anti-allergen effector functions – this is where the adaptive immune response is involved

513
Q

What interleukins induce Th2 cell differentiation?

A

IL-4
IL-5
IL-13

514
Q

What are non-allergic hypersensitivity/intolerance responses?

A

Usually apply to food intolerance

Non-immunological mechanisms

E.g. include enzyme deficiency (Lactase DH), migraine (triggered by coffee, wine), IBS (exacerbated by various foods), bloating due to wheat intolerance

Also idiopathic environmental intolerance (also known as multiple chemical hypersensitivity – cause unknown)

515
Q

What is allergic rhinitis?

A

Seasonal or perennial (indoor triggers)
Affects up to 17% of the population

Seasonal allergic rhinoconjuctivitis (hayfever) is caused by allergenic substances in pollen (usually grass, sometimes tree/weed)

High pollen counts can also lead to wheeziness with rhinitis (-> seasonal allergic asthma)

516
Q

Why are hayfever symptoms worst in the height of summer?

A

Grass pollens become airborne

Now increasingly early in UK

517
Q

What are non-allergic causes of perennial rhinitis?

A

ALLERGIC CAUSES
Indoor triggers e.g. dustmites or from animals

NON-ALLERGIC
Infection
Structural abnormalities

518
Q

Define: asthma

A

Chronic disorder characterized by episodes of wheezy breathlessness, may also present as an isolated cough (especially in kids)

8-12% of population affected

519
Q

What is the pathology of asthna?

A

Inflammation of the large and small airways (bronchi and bronchioles)

-> Irritable or twitchy airway in which airflow obstruction results from exposure to a variety of non-specific irritants (bronchial hyper-responsiveness)

520
Q

What are common symptoms or asthma and how can they be controlled?

A

Mild occasional wheezing (controlled by occasional use of inhaled bronchiodilators)-> severe intractable disease (requires systemic corticosteroids)

521
Q

How is allergy related to asthma?

A

Allergy can trigger an attack in around 75% asthmatics (commonly due to sensitivity to house dust mites or pollen)

However, even in patients who suffer from allergic asthma, there are usually other triggers such as viral infections, exercise, exposure to fumes and other irritants such as tobacco smoke, and certain drugs (especially aspirin and related compounds)

Food allergens and additives are rarely responsible

Some patients who wheeze when pollen count is high but not at other times of the year

25% asthmatics are not sensitised to common airborne allergens, and so are ‘non-atopic asthmatics’
(Their disorder often starts in later life and can be more severe than those who have asthma which begins in childhood)

TYPES OF ASTHMA
In intermittent, mild asthma – allergy frequently very important
In persistent but manageable asthma – allergy sometimes important
In chronic, severe asthma – allergy less important, but infection is important

522
Q

What are some symptoms of anaphylaxis?

A

Dizziness, seizures

Loss of consciousness

Anxiety, sense of gloom

Arrhythmia

Vomiting, diarrhoea, pain

Urticaria/hives

Tingling in hands and feet

Bronchoconstriction

Laryngeal oedema

Lip, tongue swelling

523
Q

What are common causes of anaphylaxis?

A

Drugs e.g. penicillin
Foods, e.g. peanuts, tree nuts, milk, eggs, fish, shellfish, sesame seeds, soybeans, celery, celeriac
Insect stings e.g. bees, wasps, hornets
Latex

524
Q

How is anaphylaxis treated?

A

EpiPen

525
Q

What is extrinsic allergic alveolitis (EAA)/ hypersensitivity pneumonitis (HP)?

A

A non-IgE T cell mediated inflammatory disease effecting the alveoli and interstitium

Affects 0.1% population

Occurs in susceptible people following repeated inhalation of certain antigens (typically bacteria or fungal microorganisms or bird antigens)

Cytokine gene polymorphisms in the TNF-alpha promoter region appear to eb a host susceptibility factor

526
Q

What are some examples of EAA?

A

Farmer’s lung – mouldy hay
Bird fancier’s lung – bird droppings
Air conditioner lung – air conditioner moulds
Mushroom workers lung – mushroom compost
Malt works lung – mouldy malt or barley
Coffee works lung – unroasted coffee beans
Millers lung – infested flour
Hot tub lung – bacterial contamination

527
Q

How is EAA diagnosed?

A

High index of suspicion necessary (good history needs to be taken)
Clinical exam
Complete pulmonary function tests and radiographic studies

Histology= lymphocytic infiltrate with predominance of CD8+ lymphocytes, ‘foamy’ alveolar macrophages and granulomas consistent with non-specific interstitial pneumonia

528
Q

How is EAA treated?

A

Acute EAA- oxygen and oral corticosteroids

Steroids may not affect the long-term outcome

Intervention-> good prognosis if before pulmonary fibrosis

529
Q

How common are allergic airway diseases?p

A

5.7 mil diagnosed with asthma at some point

1/15 people recorded diagnosis of allergic rhinitis

117% increase in number suffering from peanut allergy from 2001-2005

Number of hospital admissions due to anaphylactic shock increased 7x from 1990-2000 (also increased for urticaria and food allergy)

Decrease in infectious diseases (e.g. TB)

In UK, by 2004, the scale of the “allergy epidemic” was such that 39% of children and 30% of adults had been diagnosed with one or more of asthma, eczema and hayfever

38% of children and 45% of adults had experienced symptoms of these disorders in the preceding 12 months

530
Q

Why have allergic disease trends risen?

A

Environmental influences must be increasing

Hygiene hypothesis= deprived immune system of microbial antigens that stimulate Th2 cells (vaccines, antibiotics and clean environments)

Genetic pre-disposition to asthma (Chr 5, 6, 11, 12 and 14)

Th2 phenotype also affected by date of birth around pollen season and how date/season affects what baby is fed

Atopic allergic diseases are less common in younger siblings

May be due to co-factors required to develop asthma attack (e.g. tobacco smoke and air pollutants)

531
Q

How are allergic diseases treated?

A

Allergen avoidance, anti-allergic medication and immunotherapy (also called desensitisation/ hyposensitisation

Anti-allergic medication: antihistamines used to relief rhinitis symptoms, and topical corticosteroids (anti-inflammatory)

Histamine1-receptor antagonists less sedative + more selective than old antihistamines

Immunotherapy

532
Q

Outline immunotherapy considering advantages and disadvantages

A

Administering increasing concentrations of allergenic extracts over long periods of time
Mode of action is complex, but central to its principle is down-regulation and up-regulation
-> Decreased Th2-type cytokines, IgE, eosinophils, mast cells, basophils
-> Increased Th1-type cytokines, IgG, interleukin 10, transforming GF beta

ADVANTAGES
Effective and produces long lasting immunity

DISADVANTAGES
Risk of developing anaphylaxis (particularly during induction), time consuming, standardisation problems
Attempts to minimize systemic reactions include pre-treatment of allergen extracts with agents like formaldehyde (-> allergoids)
However this results in reduced immunogenicity as well as a decrease in IgE binding

Indications for use: grass/tree pollen allergic rhino-conjunctivitis uncontrolled by medication, bee/wasp sting anaphylaxis at risk for repeats

533
Q

What is hypoxia?

A

Describes a specific environment

Specifically the PO2 in the environment

534
Q

What is hypoxaemia?

A

Describes the blood environment

Specifically the PaO2

535
Q

What is ischaemia?

A

Describes tissues receiving inadequate oxygen

E.g. forearm ischaemia

536
Q

What factors can put the body under hypoxic stress?

A

Altitude
Disease
Maybe exercise

Body can adapt and compensate for hypoxic circumstances to maintain oxygen delivery

537
Q

Summarise the oxygen cascade

A

Oxygen cascade= the partial pressure of oxygen decreases from atmospheric air to respiring tissues

Atmosphere (21.3 kPa) -> Upper airways (20.0 kPa) -> Alveolus (13.5 kPa) -> Post-alveolar capillary (13.5 kPa) -> Pulmonary vein (13.3 kPa) -> Systemic artery (13.3 kPa) -> Cells (5.3 kPa)

Can be altered with supplemental O2, hyper/hypoventilation, diffusion defects, and increased tissue O2 utilisation

Fick’s law of diffusion states the flow rate is proportional to the pressure gradient

  • Inspiring hypoxic gas reduces the gradient
  • Structural disease reduces the area
  • Fluid in the alveolar sacks increases thickness

Effectiveness determined by:

  • Alveolar ventilation
  • Ventilation-perfusion matching
  • Diffusion capacity
  • Cardiac output
538
Q

How doe gas transport change during exercise?

A

Exercise stimulates an increase in energy demand that shifts the glucose metabolism equation to the right

This requires additional fuel substrates (carbohydrate, fat or protein) that are abundantly available in body and additional oxygen-> increased rate of cellular metabolism during exercise (-> more CO2 produced)

This causes an increase in the PCO2 and decrease in pH within tissues

This mild acidosis and hypercapnia shift the ODC to the right to improve oxygen unloading at the tissues

The increased PCO2 is detected by central chemoreceptors in the medulla that increase the ventilation rate to maintain oxygen delivery to tissues (and CO2 clearance)

If oxygen supply is inadequate (e.g. PaO2 lactic acid)

TO SUMMARISE
Exercise increases the oxygen demand
RF increases
TV increases
Q increases
ODC curve shifts right
539
Q

What is VO2 max?

A

The total capacity to deliver oxygen to tissues

540
Q

What is aerobic respiration?

A

Energy production in a plentiful oxygen environment

541
Q

What happens when there is low oxygen or the O2 supply

A

The body shifts to producing some of the energy needed through anaerobic mechanisms

This method of energy production is unsustainable as it produces lactic acid as a by-product – which dissociates into lactate- and H+ causing acidosis

This acidosis reduces the effectiveness of enzymes (especially those involved in aerobic energy production) and initiates a downward spiral of decreasing performance

542
Q

What happens to tidal volume, respiratory frequency and depth of breathing with exercise?

A

Tidal volume increases early

Respiratory frequency stabilises at ~20 breaths/min and increases later

Increasing depth of breathing is more effective at increasing alveolar ventilation

543
Q

What are the 5 main challenges of altitude?

A

Hypoxia (less O2 in ambient air)

Thermal stress (-7oC per 1000m, high wind-chill)

Solar radiation (less atmospheric screening, snow reflection)

Hydration (water lose humidifying inspired air, hypoxia induced diuresis)

Dangerous (windy, unstable terrain, confusion, mal-coordination)

544
Q

What effect does altitude have on gas transport?

A

As altitude increases, the barometric pressure reduces (the air becomes thinner) and according to Dalton’s law, this means that the content of atmospheric gases is reduced (although proportions remain unchanged)

A reduced PIO2 -> reduced PaO2

A lower PaO2 -> reduced concentration gradient -> slows the rate of O2 diffusion from the alveoli to the capillaries (Fick’s law)

Low PaO2 stimulates ventilation (to increase PAO2 i and increase the concentration gradient) – termed hypobaric hypoxia

The ensuing hyperventilation causes CO2 to be “blown off” and PaCO2 to fall

This causes a decrease in plasma [H+] and a rise in pH that shifts the ODC to the left, increasing the affinity of Hb for O2 and reducing its ability to unload at systemic tissues

So actually this mechanism puts a “brake” on the main stimulus for breathing

545
Q

Describe how acclimatisation occurs

A

Need to ascend slow to give the body time to adapt (acclimatise)

Climbers often follow the adage of ‘climb high sleep low’)

SHORT-TERM ADAPTATIONS
The initial physiological responses to hypobaric hypoxia are detrimental and there are two short-term adaptations:
1) Renal compensation = bicarbonate excretion-> helps pH to return to normal and shifts the ODC into its normal position
2) Increased production of 2,3-DPG to improve oxygen unloading at the tissues
*Also hyperventilation

LONG-TERM ADAPTATION
Secondary erythrocytosis
Chronic hypoxia is detected by cells in the kidneys and the hormone erythropoietin is secreted
Erythropoietin stimulates the bone marrow to produce RBCs at a higher rate
Over time, the conc of RBCs increases (associated with marked increase in Hct/PCV) and hence oxygen-carrying capacity of blood is also increased

546
Q

How does acclimatisation vary in different people (NB. lowlanders)?

A

In lowlanders (residents at sea level) the ventilatory response to hypoxia at high altitudes is inadequate to restore the PaO2 to sea-level values

The lowlander therefore becomes hypoxaemic

The response to hypoxia is very variable between individuals and when the ventilatory response to hypoxia is poor and, at increasing levels of high altitude, the hypoxaemia may be severe leading to impaired cognitive function

Initially on arrival at high altitude lowlanders often feel unwell with poor physical and mental function (possible headache, nausea, vomiting, photophobia and poor sleep)

These symptoms are usually mild but if it becomes severe it is termed acute mountain sickness (AMS)

Acclimatisation occurs over the next 2 to 10 days with steady resolution of symptoms and improved performance

547
Q

When at high altitude, what leads to increased ventilation and PaO2?

A

Fall in PaCO2

548
Q

Why is it beneficial to increase ventilation and PaO2 at high altitude?

A

Renal compensation

Slow increase of ventilatory sensitivity to hypoxia (possibly due to chemoreceptors)

549
Q

Why is slowing the ascent beenficial?

A

The adverse effects of moving to high altitudes can be ameliorated or avoided by slowing the ascent to two days, or longer for the higher altitudes

Rapid ascent over a few hours will usually lead to the unpleasant effects of acute mountain sickness and may be complicated by impaired cognitive function

550
Q

What happens at altitudes above 5500m?

A

The ventilatory response is dominated by the strength of the hypoxic stimulus

So at this height-> severe respiratory alkalaemia, increased O2 affinity and increased O2 uptake of O2 in the lung

BUT increased O2 uptake in lungs-> reduced downloading of oxygen in the tissue (so limited exercise capacity-> hard to climb mountains)

551
Q

What adaptations do native highlanders have?

A

‘Barrel chest’ – larger TLC, more alveoli and greater capillarisation
(More O2 in body)

Increased haematocrit – greater oxygen carrying-capacity of the blood
(More O2 carried)

Larger heart to pump through vasoconstricted pulmonary circulation
(Greater pulmonary perfusion)

Increased mitochondrial density – greater oxygen utilisation at cell level
(More O2 utilised)

552
Q

What can rapid ascent lead to?

A

AMS
HAPE
HACE

553
Q

What are the causes, pathophysiology, symptoms, consequences and treatment of AMS?

A

Acute mountain sickness

CAUSES
Maladaptation to high-altitude environment
Usually due to recent ascent (onset within 24 hours)
Can last >1 week

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Mild cerebral oedema

SYMPTOMS
Nausea
Vomiting
Irritability
Dizziness
Insomnia
Fatigue
Dyspnoea

CONSEQUENCES
Develops into HAPE or HACE

TREATMENT
Monitor symptoms
Stop ascent
Analgesia
Fluids
Medication (acetazolamide)
Hyperbaric O2 therapy
554
Q

What are the causes, pathophysiology, symptoms, consequences and treatment of CMS?

A

Chronic mountain sickness
Acclimatised individuals can spontaneous acquire CMS (Monge’s disease)
Long-term adaptations become problematic

CAUSES
Unknown

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Secondary polycythaemia-> increased blood viscosity (SLUDGES through systemic capillary beds impeding O2 delivery despite adequate oxygenation)

SYMPTOMS
Cyanosis
Fatigue

CONSEQUENCES
Ischaemic tissue damage
Heart failure
Eventual death

TREATMENT
No interventional medical treatment
Sufferers are exiled to lower altitudes

555
Q

What are the causes, pathophysiology, symptoms, consequences and treatment of HACE?

A

High altitude cerebral oedema

CAUSES
Rapid ascent or inability to acclimatise

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Vasodilation of vessels in response to HYPOXAEMIA (to increase blood flow)
Cranium can’t expand so intracranial pressure increases

SYMPTOMS
Confusion
Ataxia
Behavioural change
Hallucinations
Disorientation
Occulomotor palsies
Extensor plantar responses
CONSEQUENCES
Irrational behaviour
Irreversible neurological damage
Coma 
Death
TREATMENT
Immediate descent
O2 therapy 
Hyperbaric O2 therapy
Dexamethasone
556
Q

What are the causes, pathophysiology, symptoms, consequences and treatment of HAPE?

A

High altitude pulmonary oedema

CAUSES
Rapid ascent or inability to acclimatise

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY
Vasoconstriction of pulmonary vessels in response to HYPOXIA
Increased pulmonary pressure, permeability and fluid leakage from capillaries
Fluid accumulates once production exceeds the maximum rate of lymph drainage

SYMPTOMS
Dyspnoea
Dry cough
Bloody sputum
Crackling chest sounds
With AMS- severe breathlessness, chest pain, sometimes haemoptysis

CONSEQUENCES
Impaired gas exchange
Impaired ventilatory mechanics

TREATMENT
Descend
Hyperbaric O2 therapy
Nifedipine
Salmeterol
Sildenafil
557
Q

What percentage of lowlanders with mild AMS develop HAPE, HACE or both?

A

1%

558
Q

What would a chest X-ray show in HAPE?

A

Patchy pulmonary oedema

559
Q

What is acclimation?

A

Like acclimatisation but stimulated by an artificial environment (e.g. hypobaric chamber or breathing hypoxic gas)

560
Q

What is acetazolamide?

A

Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor

Accelerates the slow renal compensation to hypoxia-induced hyperventilation

561
Q

What is nifedipine?

A

Lowers pulmonary arterial pressure (used in HAPE)

Reduces pulmonary capillary leakage and right ventricular workload

562
Q

What is the untreated mortality of HAPE and HACE?

A

50%

563
Q

What is respiratory failure?

A

Failure of pulmonary gas exchange

Generally V/Q inequality (not necessarily disease severity)

564
Q

Differentiate between different types of respiratory failure

A

Type I: hypoxic
PaO2 6.7 kPa
(Increased CO2 production, decreased CO2 elimination)

Mixed:
Hypoxic PaO2 6.7 kPa

565
Q

What conditions lead to type 1 respiratory failure?

A

Pulmonary oedema
Pneumonia
Atelectasis

566
Q

What conditions lead to type 2 respiratory failure?

A
Decreased CNS drive
Increased work of breathing
Pulmonary fibrosis
Neuromuscular disease
Increased physiological dead space
Obesity
567
Q

Who is most likely to suffer from hypoxia?

A

ACUTE
Myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolus, severe haemorrhage

CHRONIC
Diabetes, respiratory failure, anaemia, COPD

568
Q

What is the timeline of lung development?

A

Most airway and circulation development during early fetal life
Alveoli appear before birth and grow into early childhood
Development relies on interaction between airways and pulmonary vessels

EMBRYONIC PHASE= 0-7 weeks
Lung buds
Main bronchi

PSEUDOGLANDULAR= 5-17 weeks
Conducting airways
Bronchi & bronchioli

CANALICULAR= 16-27 weeks
Respiratory airways
Blood gas barrier

SACCULAR/ALVEOLAR= 28-40 weeks
Alveoli appear

POSTNATAL= adolescence
Alveoli multiply and enlarge with chest cavity

569
Q

What is Scimitar Syndrome?

A

Congenital lung defect
Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage of R lung to IVC (usually close to junction of R atrium)
Associated R lung and R pulmonary artery hypoplasia
Dextrocardia
Anomalous sytemic arterial supply

Most have classical subtype (to the R)

Means hemi-thorax is small (lung hasn’t developed properly because of abnormal blood flow)

570
Q

What is Laryngomalacia?

A

‘Floppy’ airways in children
Can be severe enough to need tracheostomy
If epiglottis collapses-> airways blocked

571
Q

Outline the branching morphogenesis and vasculogenesis during embryogenesis?

A

Bifurcation and then additional split
Lobes appear from 6 weeks
Adult-like formation by end of 7 weeks

572
Q

Outline the branching morphogenesis and vasculogenesis during the pseudoglandular phase (5-17w)?

A

Branching morphogenesis of airways into mesenchyme
Pre-acinar airways all present by 17 weeks
Development of cartilage,gland and smooth muscle tissue (continues into canalicular phase)

573
Q

Describe the bronchial cartilage

A

Incomplete rings posteriorly
Irregular plates
Increasingly calcify with age

Can be malacic:

  • Generalised= laryngotracheomalcia
  • Localised= malacic segment
574
Q

What factors drive branching morphogenesis?

A

Lung buds- consistent appearance during airway formation (5-17wks)

Epithelial cells at tips of buds are highly proliferative multi-potent progenitor cells

Cells behind the tip divide and differentiate into the various cell types

Communication between epithelial cells in distal branching lung buds and surrounding mesenchyme

575
Q

What control mechanisms influence branching morphogenesis?

A

Epithelial-mesenchymal interaction essential for branching morphogenesis

Genetic and Transcription factors [TTF-1] involved in early bud formation

Branching development in humans follows a bifurcation pattern

Later a variety of growth factors are important

576
Q

What growth factors are involved in lung development?

A

INDUCTIVE
FGF- branching morphogenesis, subtypes found in epithelium and mesenchyme
EGF - epithelial proliferation and differentiation

INHIBITORY
TGFb - matrix synthesis, surfactant production, inhibits proliferation of epithelium and blood vessels
Retinoic acid - inhibits branching

Complex signalling between GF’s, cytokines, receptors in the regulation of lung growth and differentiation

577
Q

When is circulation present in the lung?

A

By 5 weeks gestation

Vasculogenesis and angiogenesis
Pulmonary vessels develop alongside the airways

578
Q

List some congenital thoracic malformations

A

Cystic Pulmonary Airway Malformation (CPAM)

Congenital Lobal Emphysema

Congenital Large Hyperlucent Lobe (CLHL)

Intralobar Sequestration

579
Q

What is Cystic Pulmonary Airway Malformation (CPAM)?

A

1 per 8300 to 35000
Mostly diagnosed on antenatal USS

PATHOGENESIS
Defect in pulmonary mesenchyma, abnormal differentiation 5-7th week
Normal blood supply, but can be associated with sequestration

TYPE 2
Multiple small cysts
May be associated with renal agenesis, cardiovascular defects, diaphragmatic hernia and syryngomyelia
Histologically bronchiolar epithelium with overgrowth, separated by alveolar tissue which was underdeveloped

580
Q

What is Congenital Large Hyperlucent Lobe (CLHL)?

A

Progressive lobar overexpansion

Caused by...
Weak cartilage
Extrinsic compression
One way valve effect
Alveoli expand (not disrupted)

LUL > RML >RUL

Males > females
CHD association
Neonatal presentation before 6 months of age

Mass effect: atelectasis of lungs, displacement of heart, mediastinum, diaphragm

581
Q

What is Intralobar Sequestration?

A

75% of pulmonary sequestrations
Abnormal segment shares visceral pleural covering of normal lung
No communication to tracheobronchial tree
Lower lobe predominance and L > R

? Due to chronic bronchial obstruction and chronic postobstructive pneumonia

582
Q

What types of lung growth anomalies are there?

A

Agenesis (very rare)– complete absence of lung and vessel (mediastinal shift towards an opaque hemi-thorax)

Aplasia – blind ending bronchus, no lung or vessel

Hypolasia – bronchus and rudimentary lung are present, all elements are reduced in size and number

583
Q

What is hypoplasia in lung growth?

A

Common (relatively) and usually secondary
Reduced size and number of lung elements

LACK OF SPACE
Intrathoracic or extrathoracic
- Hernia (L = 75 – 90%)
- Chest wall pathology
- Oligohydramnios
- Lymphatic or cardiac mass

LACK OF GROWTH
- CTM

584
Q

How do endothelial cells develop?

A

CD31-> endothelial cells

These differentiate in the mesenchyme around the lung bud

They coalesce to form capillaries (vasculogenesis)

Airways act as structural template

Stimulated by VEGF (Vascular endothelial growth factor, produced by epithelial cells to stimulate endothelial differentiation)

585
Q

How is early blood vessel growth controlled?

A

VEGF (produced by epithelial cells throughout gestation in humans)

VEGF at branching points and induces a vascular response

Enabled due to Flk-1 (VEGF receptor on endothelium)

IGF and IGFR (from 4 weeks) blocks prevents capillary development

eNOS stimulates proliferation and tube formation

Angiopoietin (receptor Tie) important in wall differentiation

As capillaries add on at the periphery, arteries and veins get longer

586
Q

At the end of pseudoglandular period, what airways and blood vessels have been developed?

A

All airways and blood vessels to the level of the terminal bronchiolus are present

Enters canalicular stage

587
Q

What happens during the canalicular stage (16-27 weeks)?

A

The airspaces at the periphery enlarge

Thinning of epithelium by underlying capillaries allows gas exchange

Blood gas barrier required in post-natal life

Epithelial differentiation into Type I and II cells
(Type 2= more cuboidal, can differentiate into 1 , surfactant producing)

Surfactant first detectable at 24-25 wks
24 weeks gestation-> babies become viable

588
Q

What happens during the saccular/alveolar stage (28-40 weeks)?

A

Alveoli appear (multiply up to 3 years of age)

1/3-1/2 of adult number by term (100-150 million)

589
Q

How are alveolar walls formed?

A

Myofibroblast and elastin fibres at intervals along the saccule wall (epithelium on both sides with double capillary network)

Secondary septa develop from wall led by elastin produced by myofibroblast

Capillary lines both sides with matrix between

Capillaries have coalesced to form one sheet alveolar wall, thinner and longer with less matrix

Muscle and elastin still at tip

590
Q

What adult disease are pre-term babies BELIEVED to be more at risk of?

A

COPD

But may be more scope for alveolar recovery after preterm birth than previously believed

591
Q

What is the volume and size of the lung at birth?

A

Volume small and related to body weight

All airways present and differentiated (cartilage, glands, muscle, nerves)

33-50% alveoli allow normal gas exchange

Blood gas barrier as in adult

Most arteries and veins present

592
Q

How do blood vessels change at birth?

A

Decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance

10 fold rise in pulmonary blood flow

Arterial lumen increases and wall thins rapidly

Change in cell shape and cytoskeletal organisation not loss of cells

Once thinning occurred, arteries grow and maintain relatively thin wall

Low pressure, low resistance pulmonary vascular system

593
Q

What does expansion of alveoli after birth lead to?

A

Dilates arteries directly
Stimulates release of vasodilator agents (nO, PGI2)

(Inhibits vasoconstrictors present during foetal life, ET)

594
Q

How do airways grow in childhood and adolescence?

A

LUNG VOLUME
Lung volume increases x30
Maximum lung volume at 22years in males

AIRWAYS
Airways increase in length and width x 2-3 by symmetrical growth

ALVEOLI
Structural elements of the wall increase
Alveoli increase in number up to 2-3 years
Alveolar number and/or complexity may increase up to adulthood
Adult alveolar number (300-600 million)

ARTERIES, VEINS AND CAPILLARIES
Arteries, veins and capillaries increase alongside the alveoli (cap volume x35)

Dysanaptic growth during the early period - alveoli growing more than airways (airways relatively large in infants)

595
Q

What circulations does the lung have?

A

BRONCHIAL
From thoracic aorta and provide lung tissue with oxygen and nutrition
Eliminate waste products (approx. 1% of Q)
Bronchial vein converge and drain into pulmonary veins

PULMONARY
Left ventricle pumps blood to lungs via pulmonary artery
Capillary beds converge into bronchial veins and drain into left atrium

596
Q

What is the aim of the pulmonary circulation?

A

Perfusion of the respiratory airways for gas exchange

597
Q

Which circuit is higher pressure, systemic or pulmonary?

A

Systemic= high pressure, thicker arterial wall, larger arterial lumen
Pulmonary=low pressure, thinner arterial wall, larger arterial lumen

598
Q

Why is the wall of the left ventricle thicker?

A

Systemic-> more muscular as systemic circuit requires more pressure= further to pump (whole body)

599
Q
Compare the systemic and pulmonary circulation considering the:
Cardiac output
Volume
Mean arterial pressure
Mean venous pressure
Pressure gradient
Resistance
Velocity
Compliance
Arterial wall thickness
A

CARDIAC OUTPUT
S= 5L/min
P= 5L/min

VOLUME
S= 4.5L (90% of volume)
P=0.5L (10% of volume)

MEAN ARTERIAL PRESSURE
S= 93
P= 13

MEAN VENOUS PRESSURE
S= 1
P= 4

PRESSURE GRADIENT
S= 92
P= 9

RESISTANCE
S= 18.4
P= 1.8

VELOCITY
S= faster
P= slower

COMPLIANCE
S= lower
P= higher

ARTERIAL WALL THICKNESS
S= thicker
P= thinner

600
Q

What are the main functions of the pulmonary circulation?

A

Gas exchange
Metabolism of vasoactive substances
Filtration of blood

601
Q

How does pulmonary circulation-> metabolism of vasoactive substances?

A

The luminal surface of the pulmonary epithelium expresses some specialised enzymes that are critical for management of the intravascular environment

Angiotensin converting enzyme (ACE)

  • > Converts angiotensin I to angiotensin II by cleaving X AAs from the chain
  • > Angiotensin II stimulates vasoconstriction
  • > Degradation of bradykinin (which stimulates vasodilation)

Clearance of other key compounds e.g. serotonin, noradrenaline, prostaglandins and leukotrienes

602
Q

How does pulmonary circulation-> filtration of blood?

A

The abundant pulmonary microcirculation acts as a ‘filter’ for harmful emboli that have entered the circulation in systemic capillaries and veins.

Small air bubbles – trapped and eventually diffuse out of the circulation into the alveolar spaces

Fat emboli/thrombi – trapped in the microcirculation and degraded by the vascular endothelium

Cancerous cells – these can also be ‘filtered’ which can result in secondary metastasis (but prevent spread to the rest of the body)

603
Q

Define: embolus

A

‘Mass’ within the circulation capable of causing obstruction

E.g. small air bubbles, fat emboli/thrombi, cancerous cells

604
Q

Define: embolism

A

‘Event’ characterised by obstruction of a major artery

605
Q

Define: pulmonary shunt

A

Method of blood bypassing the respiratory exchange surface

606
Q

What shunts are present in the lungs?

A

Bronchial circulation (defined as a shunt but mixed venous blood combined with oxygenated arterial blood)

Foramen ovale

Ductus arteriosus

607
Q

What is the foramen ovale?

A

A shunt linking the two atria of the heart

During foetal development a large proportion of blood bypasses the entire pulmonary circulation

At birth, this shunt closes in 90% of individuals

Other 10%- can still allow inter-atrial blood flow to varying degrees

608
Q

What is the ductus arteriosus?

A

Shunt linking the pulmonary artery bifurcation to the proximal descending aorta

This shunt normally fuses in the first days of life

609
Q

What is an atrial septal defect/ventricular septal defec?t

A

Congenital heart disease involving a defect in the septum separating the L and R heart

Depending on severity, they allow some of the deoxygenated blood to ‘bypass’ the lungs

Ofter require corrective surgery

610
Q

What is pulmonary vascular resistance?

A

PVR= lower than systemic vascular resistance

Prone to change during dynamic conditions e.g. exercise

611
Q

What happens to Q (perfusion) during intense exercise?

A

Q can increase by 5-6x (with a CO of 25-30L/min)

NB. At rest CO= 5L/min, pulmonary circulation is a low resistance high capacity circuit

612
Q

What would happen to resistance if pulmonary circulation was rigid?

A
Increased flow (perfusion)
Increased MAP
Increased fluid leakage
Increased pulmonary oedema
Decreased pulmonary function
613
Q

What actually happens if flow rate is increased (increased Q) in pulmonary circulation?

A
Increased flow (perfusion)
Increased pulmonary artery distention AND increased perfusion of hypoperfused beds
Negligible change in MAP
Minimal fluid leakage
No onset of pulmonary oedema
No detriment to pulmonary function
614
Q

What happens to accommodate a greater volume of blood without increasing pressure?

A

Greater recruitment of pulmonary capillary beds

Distension of patent vessels

615
Q

How does distending patient vessels allow pulmonary circulation to accommodate a greater volume of blood without increasing pressure?

A

Vessels stretch to accommodate a larger blood flow

Reduced risk of oedema
Reduced stress on the right ventricle
Reduced velocity for effective gas exchange

616
Q

Where is perfusion highest?

A

Path of least resistance, perfusion decreases from the base to the apex of the lung

3-zone model

617
Q

How is the volume of the alveolar and extra-alveolar vessels affected by inspiration and expiration?

A

Inspiration compresses alveolar vessels,
Expiration compresses extra-alveolar vessels

When the volume of (and pressure within) the chest changes, it affects alveolar and extra-alveolar vessels differently

618
Q

How do the systemic and pulmonary responses to hypoxia differ?

A

Systemic vascular response to hypoxia is vasodilation

Pulmonary response to hypoxia is vasoconstriction

619
Q

How does hypoxia lead to vascular smooth muscle contraction?

A

Hypoxia

  • > closure of O2-sensitive K channels
  • > decreased K efflux
  • > increased membrane potential
  • > membrane depolarisation (opening of VGCCs)
  • > vascular smooth muscle contraction
620
Q

When is hypoxic vasoconstriction beneficial?

A

FOETAL DEVELOPMENT
Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction facilitates blood flow through the cardiac shunts as the ‘path of least resistance’

High-resistance pulmonary circuit means increased flow through shunts

First breath increases alveolar PO2 and dilates pulmonary vessels

621
Q

When is hypoxic vasoconstriction detrimental?

A

COPD
Chronic lung disease patients have high pulmonary circuit resistance; this can cause the right ventricle to work extra hard-> LVH, pulmonary hypertension and potentially heart failure

Reduced alveolar ventilation and air trapping

Increased resistance in pulmonary circuit

Pulmonary hypertension (Cor pulmonale)

Right ventricular hypertrophy

Congestive heart failure

622
Q

What is vascular recruitment?

A

During increased cardiac output, a greater number of capillary beds are perfused

Vessels distend more than systemic arteries to accommodate extra flow

623
Q

What is the difference in porousness between pulmonary and systemic capillaries/

A

Pulmonary capillaries are more porous (and therefore leaky) than their systemic counterparts

Means that fluid moves more easily between the capillaries, the interstitium and the alveoli

624
Q

What key pressures affect fluid balance in the lungs?

A

CAPILLARY HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE
Force pushes water out of the vessel (varies along capillary (13 to 6 mmHg; mean 9 mmHg)

INTERSTITIAL HYDROSTATIC PRESSURE
Force tries to push water into the vessel (0 mmHg)
Very small

PLASMA PROTEIN ONCOTIC PRESSURE (colloid osmotic)
Forces tries to draw water into the vessel (25 mmHg)

INTERSTITIAL PROTEIN ONCOTIC PRESSURE
Force tries to draw water into the interstitium (17 kPa)

625
Q

What is the net effect of the fluid-balance forces?

A

The net effect of these forces is a 1 mmHg force from the vessels to the interstitium

This steady fluid loss is small and is easily drained by the lymphatic system

626
Q

What happens in the lymphatic drainage fails?

A

If the lymphatic drainage fails, or the fluid accumulates at a rate exceeding lymphatic clearance, then oedema may develop

This would initially be pulmonary interstitial oedema, which may develop into pulmonary alveolar oedema

Oedema results from imbalanced fluid accumulation and clearance

627
Q

By what mechanisms can fluid accumulation be triggered?

A

Increasing the intravascular hydrostatic pressure
Reducing the oncotic pressure
Increasing the interstitial oncotic pressure
Blocking the lymphatic system (e.g. vessels blocked by caner-> lymphoedema)

628
Q

How does increasing the intravascular hydrostatic pressure lead to oedema?

A

Increased plasma hydrostatic pressure-> more fluid forced into interstitium-> lymph clearance exceeded

E.g. Mitral valve stenosis, heart failure

629
Q

How does reducing the oncotic pressure lead to oedema?

A

Reduced plasma oncotic pressure-> less fluid drawn into capillary-> fluid accumulates in interstitium > lymph clearance exceeded

E.g. Hypoproteinaemia, protein-losing nephropathies, liver cirrhosis, protein-losing enteropathies

630
Q

How does increasing the interstitial oncotic pressure lead to oedema?

A

Increase interstitial oncotic pressure-> more fluid drawn out of capillaries-> large net fluid movement out of capillary-> lymphatic clearance exceeded

E.g. Pulmonary endothelial damage, infection

631
Q

What re the main consequences of oedema?

A

Oedematous lungs are much less compliant (‘increased stiffness’)
-> requires more effort to ventilate-> dyspnoea (shortness of breath)

Excessive oedema can also cause the walls of the bronchioles to become swollen-> increased resistance and work of breathing further

Excessive oedema in the interstitial space can increase the diffusion distance and impede gas exchange (Fick’s law)

632
Q

What system controls breathing while asleep?

A

Autonomic

No voluntary or emotional influences from the motor cortex or limbic system

633
Q

What equipment is generally sued to study sleep?

A

Brain cortical EEG across the general cortical areas (where brainwaves are fast frequency and low voltage)

634
Q

What does sleep consist of?

A

4 stages and REM

Each stage= increased amplification of the electrical activity coming from the brain

635
Q

What happens in stage 1 of sleep?

A

Transitional, slow rolling eye movements, postural movements, auditory response present

636
Q

What happens in stage 4 of sleep?

A

No auditory response present

637
Q

What happens in REM?

A

Rapid eye movement, dreaming sleep, all muscles functionally paralysed except eyes and diaphragm

REM in-between each stage, circadian rhythm (purpose: consolidate memory)

638
Q

How long is a sleep cycle?

A

90 minutes

639
Q

What controls breathing when awake?

A
Reflex/automatic control (by the brainstem) 
Voluntary/behavioural control (by the motor cortex) 
Emotional control (by the limbic system)
640
Q

What factors of respiratory control are affected by sleep:?

A

Respiratory muscles in the upper airway and pump muscles

Respiratory control centres

Blood gases and chemosensitivity (i.e. pCO2 and pO2)

641
Q

What happens to minute ventilation in healthy people when they sleep?

A

Sleep-> reduction in minute ventilation

Even lower in REM

642
Q

What is the Pre-Botzinger Complex?

A

The area in the brainstem which controls respiratory rhythm generation

It contains 2 types of rhythm-generating neurones:
1) Inspiratory neurones – DRG 2) Expiratory neurones - VRG

The inspiratory and expiratory neurones exhibit reciprocal inhibition

643
Q
What is the difference in the following during breathing while asleep vs awake?
Minute ventilation
Alveolar ventilation
Frequency
Tidal volume
Oxygen saturation
A

MINUTE VENTILATION
Awake=6.28L/min
Sleep= 5.67L/min
REM=5.44L/min

ALVEOLAR VENTILATION
Awake= 4.02L/min
Sleep= 3.38L/min
REM=3.21L/min

FREQUENCY
Awake=15.1
Sleep= 15.2
REM= 14.9

TIDAL VOLUME
Awake= 420
Sleep= 373
REM= 367

OXYGEN SATURATION (virtually constant)
Awake= 97.3%
Sleep= 96.5
REM= 96.2
644
Q

Why does SaO2 stay the same during sleep in healthy people?

A

Tidal volume decreases -> pO2 decreases; therefore SaO2 remains virtually constant in healthy individuals

645
Q

What happens to SaO2 stay the same during sleep in people with COPD?

A

COPD patients live on the steep part of the oxygen-dissociation curve

SaO2 decreases significantly when pO2 decreases

646
Q

What happens to CO2 during sleep in healthy people?

A

TV decreases -> pCO2 increases by ~3-4 mmHg

Increase in pCO2 (detected by central chemoreceptors) stimulates respiratory centres to continue breathing

N.B. if pCO2 does not increase during sleep, this results in death (i.e. don’t breath continually)

647
Q

What happens to ventilatory sensitivity to CO2 during sleep?

A

CO2 sensitivity decreases during sleep
Decreased ventilation-> increase in pCO2
Sleep-related changes in breathing increase PaCO2 by 0.5 kPa in healthy people

NEED HYPERCAPNIA TO BREATH DURING SLEEP

648
Q

Define: apnoea

A

Cessation of breathing

649
Q

Define: apnoeic threshold

A

The ‘level’ above which the PaCO2 has to raise to maintain breathing during sleep

650
Q

What causes central sleep apnoea?

A

If the PaCO2 doesn’t raise above the apnoeic threshold-> breathing stops

651
Q

What upper airway muscles reduce their activity during sleep?

A

Tongue (genioglossus)
Levator palatini
Tensor palatine

(These muscles stiffen the soft palate in the pharyngeal region at the back of the throat)

652
Q

What do the muscles that stiffen the soft palate do when they are active/not active?

A

When they’re active: they prevent airway constriction and collapse

When they are not active: they airway is prone to collapse

653
Q

Why is the airway at the back of the throat (the pharynx) distensible?

A

Doesn’t contain cartilage

654
Q

What influences does sleep have on the airway?

A

The muscles of the upper airway relax and the airway constricts

Pharyngeal resistance increases; therefore ventilation becomes more difficult

Hence more effort is required to achieve the same amount of ventilation

N.B. in some people, turbulent airflow is setup over the vocal chords-> snoring

655
Q

What causes obstructive sleep apnoea?

A

Reduced upper airway muscle activity during sleep

Plus extra luminal pressure (ELP) and negative intra luminal pressure (ILP)

656
Q

What is obstructive sleep apnoea?

A
Occlusion of phalangeal airway during sleep 
Airflow stops (increased respiratory effort)

No impairment of respiratory control
Positive pressure-> airway collapse

Mainly affects middle-aged men

657
Q

Outline the mechanism involved in obstructive apnoea

A

(LOOP)

Patent airway
Increased ventilation (induces next apnoea)
Sleep
Decreased upper airway muscle function
Apnoea (hypoxia/hypercapnia, increased effort)
Arousal (termination of apnoea)
… continues

658
Q

What is the consequence of obstructive apnoea?

A

Paradoxical breathing

Pressure moves between the thorax and the abdomen during breathing

Air does not move, as patient tries to breathe, they expose the thorax to large negative pressures at a time when the O2 saturation has fallen – this is dangerous for the heart

659
Q

What are main symptoms of obstructive apnoea?

A

Loud snoring
Partner witness lack of breathing
Profound sleepiness during the day

660
Q

What is central sleep apnoea

A

pCO2 decreases and gets closer to apnoeic threshold

Airflow stops; no respiratory effort due to lack of brain control

Rare unless congenital: congenital hyperventilation syndrome

Most patients with this conditions have heart failure

661
Q

What are the 2 types of apnoea?

A

Obstructive= occlusion of phalangeal airway during sleep

Central= pCO2 decreases and gets closer to apnoeic threshold

662
Q

What is the difference in airflow and respiratory effort (intra-thoracic pressure) between central and obstructive sleep apnoea?

A

Airflow= same
Respiratory effort= more in obstructive sleep apnoea including thoracic and abdominal effort (even when no airflow unlike central)

663
Q

What cardio-respiratory diseases are exacerbated by sleep-related changed in the control of breathing?

A

COPD

Heart failure

664
Q

Why is sleep detrimental to COPD patients?

A

Exacerbated during sleep

Normal changes in breathing during sleep (e.g. reduced ventilation) compromise breathing since the patient is on the steep part of the oxygen-dissociation curve

Therefore the patient is more likely to encounter respiratory difficulty during sleep since SaO2 decreases with a decrease in pO2

665
Q

Why is sleep detrimental to patients with heart failure?

A

Exacerbated by the sleep-related changes in breathing because about 50% patients with heart failure hyperventilate-> lower PaCO2

Associated with increased risk of suffering central sleep apnoea

Heart failure -> pulmonary congestion -> irritation of J-receptors in the lungs -> chronic hyperventilation -> hypocapnia -> patient gets closer to the apnoeic threshold

When awake: patients have volitional control of breathing; therefore they are sensitive to CO2

During sleep: patients lack volitional control of breathing; therefore they depend on blood gases

Heart failure patients that breathe poorly at night have a higher mortality than those who breathe normally

666
Q

What indicates mixed acidosis?

A

PCO2 up
Bicarbonate conc down
(Bicarbonate reduction is more than it should be)

667
Q

What indicates mixed alkalosis?

A

PCO2 down
Bicarbonate conc up
(Bicarbonate reduction is less than it should be)