Respiratory System Flashcards

1
Q

What is the concentration of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

A

Oxygen - 0.209 (20.9%)

Carbon dioxide - 0.0004 (0.04%)

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2
Q

What is the Partial pressure of oxygen in alveolar air, arterial blood and mixed venous blood, of a healthy subject with [Hb] 15g/dl?

A
Alveolar air (PAO2) = 13.3kPa 
Arterial blood (PaO2) = 13.3kPa
Mixed venous blood (PVO2) = 5.3kPa
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3
Q

What is the Partial pressure of carbon oxide in alveolar air, arterial blood and mixed venous blood, of a healthy subject with [Hb] 15g/dl?

A
Alveolar air (PACO2) = 5.3kPa 
Arterial blood (PaCO2) = 5.3kPa
Mixed venous blood (PVCO2) = 6.1kPa
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4
Q

What are the types of Respiratory diseases?

A

Airways diseases:

  • Localised obstruction: e.g. foreign bodies, upper airway tumours, thyroid enlargement, obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome
  • Generalised obstruction: e.g. Asthma, C.O.P.D, bronchiectasis, cystic fibrosis

Small lung/Restrictive disorders:

  • Disease within lungs: e.g. Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis, sardoicodosis, hypersensitivity pneumonitis, asbestosis
  • Disease outside lungs: e.g. Pleural effusions, mesothelioma, pnerumothorax, Scoliosis, respiratory muscle weakness, obesity

Infections: e.g. Tuberculosis, infective bronchitis, Pneumonia/Empyema

Pulmonary vascular disorders: e.g. pulmonary emboli, pulmonary hypertension

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5
Q

What are the symptoms generally associated with respiratory disease?

A
  • Breathlessness
  • Cough
  • Sputum production
  • Haemoptysis (coughing blood)
  • Chest discomfort
  • Wheeze or musical breathing
  • Stridor
  • Hoarseness
  • Snoring history/daytime sleepiness
  • (weight loss, anorexia, fever)
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6
Q

How much Oxygen is need by a resting adult?

A

250ml/minute

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7
Q

Outline gas exchange.

A
  • Action of breathing delivers warmed, humidified air to specialised gas exchange surfaces
  • The heart delivers de-oxygenated blood to the pulmonary capillaries
  • Gas exchange between air and blood occurs by diffusion
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8
Q

What is the process of diagnosis?

A
  • Symptoms
  • Take a history
  • Examine respiratory system
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9
Q

What is the pathway of air in the respiratory system?

A
  • Nasal/oral cavity
  • Pharynx
  • Larynx
  • Trachea
  • Bronchi
  • Lungs
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10
Q

What is the function of mucosa?

A

To warm and humidify the air before it reaches the lungs

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11
Q

What is are the nerves supplying the nasal cavity?

A
  • No motor only sensory

Cranial nerve V (trigeminal)

  • Two branches: opthalmic and maxillary division
  • General sensation e.g. temperature, irritation

Olfactory nerves:

  • Top and back of cavity
  • Near holes which allow nerves to pass into the skull to the olfactory tract
  • Only sensing smell (chemical)
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12
Q

What are the paranasal air sinuses?

A
  • Frontal sinus (in frontal bone, superior to eyes)
  • Sphenoidal sinus (in sphenoid bone, at posterior and middle)
  • Ethmoid air cells (underneath base of anterior skull, medial wall of orbit)
  • Maxillary sinus (in cheek) Biggest
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13
Q

What is the function of a para-nasal air sinus?

A
  • Lined with ciliated epithelium
  • Drain into the nasal cavity
  • Only if injected/clogged are they noticable e.g. opening of maxillary sinus is at the top which isn’t effective
  • Important for lightening the skull and keeping strength
  • Act as heat insulation at high and low temperatures
  • Act as resonating chambers for the voice
  • Physically protective for brain
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14
Q

What is the pharynx?

A

Area where the nasal and oral cavity come together, before the separation of the larynx and oesophagus.
Split into three:
- Nasopharynx: between base of skull and soft palate
- Oropharynx: between soft palate and superior border of epiglotis
- Laryngopharynx: beteen epiglotis and just before larynx

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15
Q

Describe the larynx.

A
  • In anterior of neck
  • Made of thyroid cartilage superiorly (thought thyroid is below it), then Cricothyroid ligament (where emergency tracheotomy is performed) before the Cricoid cartilage. After this it reaches the trachea.
  • Thyroid has no posterior, but Cricoid is a whole ring
  • Cartilage controls the vocal ligaments, opening and shutting, determining what enters into the larynx (air)
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16
Q

How is sound made?

A
  • Air is forced between the vocal ligaments in the larynx.
  • Speed determines volume, distance between ligaments is pitch
  • Words are made with the mouth, teeth, tongue etc
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17
Q

Describe the trachea.

A
  • Held open by cartilage C-shaped rings, and has soft tissue posteriorly to allow the opening of the oesophagus behind it
  • About 20 rings holding it open at all times
  • Rings allow flexibility
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18
Q

Describe the tracheobronchial tree.

A
  • Starts at the end of the larynx
  • Bifurcates at carina at T4/5
  • Unequal bifurcation due to slight right sided position (because of aorta)
  • The primary bronchus on left is slightly longer, and right more vertical and shorter (clinical relevance for foreign objects)
  • Primary divides into secondary which goes into the lobes
  • Secondary divides into tertiary which goes into bronchopulmonary segments
  • Cartilage in all bronchi though less and less
  • After tertiary, bronchioles which have smooth muscle walls so can open and close. Terminal bronchioles end in alveolar sacs
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19
Q

Describe the dome of the diaphragm.

A
  • Dome comes up to 5th intercostal space/level of male nipple (for someone lying down)
  • But attached to the costal margin
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20
Q

What is the pleura made up of?

A
  • Visceral (on the lung)

- Parietal (on the chest wall)

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21
Q

What areas are available to the lung for expansion?

A
  • Right lung: Area inferior to its base (larger at posterior)
  • Left lung: Area inferior to its base (larger at posterior) and area in front of the heart
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22
Q

What enters/exits the lung at the hilum?

A
  • Pulmonary artery
  • Pulmonary vein
  • Lymph vessels and nodes
  • Bronchi
  • Pulmonary plexus (autonomic nerves)
  • Bronchiole arteries
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23
Q

What is a bronchopulmonary segment?

A

The smallest functional unit of the lung. (each receive discrete air and blood supply)
Right lung: 10
Left lung: 8/9 (can be fusion)

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24
Q

Where does gas exchange take place?

A

Alveoli

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25
Q

Why does gas exchange take place?

A

Difference in partial pressure of oxygen in atmospheric air (100mg) and in the alveoli (40mg) drives exchange

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26
Q

What is the lymph system for the lungs called?

A

Bronchomediastinal trunk/system

Ascend with the trachea and enter the venous system.
Right - Subclavian and lower part of internal jugular
Left - Thoracic duct

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27
Q

Describe the structure of the diaphragm.

A
  • Muscular around the edges
  • Tendonous in the middle

Allows more efficient increase in volume of the thorax as it can flatten.
Connected to heart by the pericardium so heart also moves down to some degree.

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28
Q

What passes through the diaphragm?

A
  • Inferior vena cava (in tendon as it’s low pressure so can’t resist other pressure e.g. muscle contraction) (T8)
  • Oesophagus (T10) in muscle
  • Descending aorta (T12)
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29
Q

What innervates the diaphragm?

A

Phrenic nerves, arising from C3,4,5 in the neck.

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30
Q

What is the relation between the two major nerves in the thorax and the lung?

A

Phrenic passes hilum anteriorly

Vagus passes hilum posteriorly

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31
Q

What movements do the ribs and diaphragm do for inspiration?

A

Ribs move outward, and the sternim is moved superiorly

Diaphragm moves down and flattens

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32
Q

What role do the abdominal muscles play in breathing?

A
  • In forced expiration the muscles push upward

- Abdominal muscles are used in important actions, along with the diaphragm, such as coughing, vomiting etc.

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33
Q

Define Minute ventilation.

A

Volume of air expired in one minute (VE) or per minute

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34
Q

Define Respiratory rate (RF)

A

The frequency of breathing per minute

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35
Q

Define Alveolar ventilation (Valv)

A

The volume of air reaching the respiratory zone

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36
Q

Define Respiration

A

The process of generating ATP either with an excess of oxygen (aerobic) and a shortfall (anaerobic).

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37
Q

Define anatomical dead space

A

Capacity of the airways incapable of undertaking gas exchange

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38
Q

Define alveolar dead space.

A

Capacity of airways that should be able to undertake gas exchange but cannot (e.g. hypoperfused alveoli)

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39
Q

Define Physiological dead space.

A

Equivalent to the sum of alveolar and anatomical dead space

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40
Q

Define Hypoventilation.

A

Deficient ventilation of the lungs; unable to meet metabolic demand (increased PCO2 - acidosis)

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41
Q

Define Hyperventilation

A

Excessive ventilation of the lungs atop of metabolic demand (results in decreased PCO2 - alkalosis)

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42
Q

Define Hyperpnoea

A

Increased depth of breathing (to meet metabolic demand)

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43
Q

Define Hypopnoea

A

Decreased depth of breathing (inadequate to meet metabolic demand)

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44
Q

Define Apnoea

A

Cessation of breathing (no air movement)

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45
Q

Define Dyspnoea

A

Difficulty breathing

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46
Q

Define Bradypnoea

A

Abnormally slow breathing rate

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47
Q

Define Tachypnoea

A

Abnormally fast breathing rate

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48
Q

Define Orthopnoea

A

Positional difficulty in breathing (when lying down)

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49
Q

Explain the mechanical relationship between the chest wall and the lung.

A
  • Chest wall has tendency to spring outwards
  • Lung has a tendency to recoil inwards
  • Forces are at equilibrium at end-tidal expiration (Functional residual capacity; FRC) which is neutral position of the intact chest
  • To further inspire (or expire) requires equilibrium to be temporarily imbalanced
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50
Q

What is the Pleural membrane?

A
  • Lungs are surrounded by visceral pleural membrane
  • Inner surface of chest wall is covered by a parietal pleural membrane
  • Pleural cavity between them is a fixed volume and contains protein-rich pleural fluid
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51
Q

What could cause a breach in the pleural cavity?

A
  • Intrapleural bleeding causing a haemothorax

- Perforated chest wall/punctured lung causing a Pneumothorax

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52
Q

What is the tidal volume (TV)?

A

The volume of air inspired during normal, relaxed breathing (about 500ml)

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53
Q

What is Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)?

A

The additional air that can be forcible inhales after the inpiration of a normal tidal volume (about 3100ml)

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54
Q

What is the Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)?

A

The additional air that can be forcibly exhaled after the expiration of a normal tidal volume (about 1200ml)

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55
Q

What is Residual volume (RV)?

A

The volume of air still remaining in the lungs after the expiratory reserve volume in exhaled (about 1200ml)

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56
Q

What is the total lung capacity (TLC)

A

The maximum amount of air that can fill the lungs. (about 6000ml)

TLC= TV+IRV+ERV+RV

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57
Q

What is the vital capacity (VC)?

A

The total amount of air that can be expired after fully inhaling. (about 4800ml) Varies according to age and body size.

VC= TV+IRV+ERV

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58
Q

What is the inspiratory capacity (IC)?

A

The maximum amount of air that can be inspired. (about 3600ml)

IC= TV+IRV

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59
Q

What is the functional residual capacity (FRC)?

A

The amount of air remaining in the lungs after a normal expiration. (about 2400ml)

FRC= RV+ERV

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60
Q

What factors affect Lung volumes and capacities?

A
  • Body Size (height and shape)
  • Sex (male or female)
  • Disease (pulmonary, neurological)
  • Age
  • Fitness (innate, training)
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61
Q

What are the two types of breathing in relation to pressure?

A
  • Negative pressure breathing: Palv is reduced below Patm e.g. healthy breathing
  • Positive pressure breathing: Patm is increased above Palv e.g.ventilation, CPR
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62
Q

What is transmural pressure?

A

Transmural pressure = P inside - P outside
Transrespiratory pressure = pressure across airways, lungs, chest wall
- Negative transrespiratory pressure will lead to inspiration
- Positive transmural pressure leads to expiration

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63
Q

Describe the process of ventilation.

A
  • Increased volume of thorax, lowers pressure
  • Air moves into the lungs, down pressure gradient
  • Recoil of alveoli increases pressure
  • Air moves out of the lungs, down pressure gradient
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64
Q

Describe the conducting zone.

A
  • Bronchi and bronchioles
  • 17 generations
  • No gas exchange
  • Typically 150ml in adults FRC
  • Anatomical dead space
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65
Q

Describe the respiratory zone.

A
  • Alveoli
  • 7 generations
  • Gas exchange
  • Typicall 350 ml in adults
  • Air reaching here is equivalent to alveolar ventilation
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66
Q

Describe non-perfused parenchyma.

A
  • Alveoli without blood supply
  • No gas exchange
  • Typically 0ml in adults
  • Called alveolar dead space
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67
Q

What reversible procedures would increase or decrease dead space?

A
  • Increase: Ventilation

- Decrease: Tracheostomy

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68
Q

What is Pouseuilles’s Law?

A

Resistance = 8ηl/πr^4

           π x radius ^4
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69
Q

What is Boyle’s Law?

A

P(Gas) is proportional to 1/V(Gas)

Volume of a gas is inversely proportional to pressure

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70
Q

Describe the mechanics of ventilation.

A
  • Diaphragm has a pulling force in one direction (like syringe)
  • Other respiratory muscles move upward and outwards (like bucket handle)

Both act to increase the volume of the thorax, and decrease the pressure.

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71
Q

On a graph what does the pressure/volume of the intact lung show?

A
  • Equal to the independent chest wall + independent lung
  • Sigmoid function (S shaped)
  • So larger change in pressure is required to have a small change in volume at the extremes (total lung capacity, residual volume)
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72
Q

What is the method of a volume-time lung function test?

A

Patient wears noseclip

  1. Inhale to TLC
  2. Wraps lips around mouth piece
  3. Exhale as hard and fast as they can
  4. Continue exhaling till RV is reached or 6 seconds have passed
  5. Visually inspect performance on graph
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73
Q

What effect do restrictive and obstructive disorders have on the volume-time lung function test?

A

Restrictive: Lower FVC, lower FEV1, Higher FEV1/FVC ratio, lower forced expiratory time (FET)

Obstructive: Lower FVC, much lower FEV1, lower FEV1/FVC ratio, higher gorced expiratoy time (FET)

FEV1 = volume expired in 1 minute

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74
Q

How is peak expiratory flow measure?

A

Spirometer:

  1. Patient wears noseclip
  2. Patient inhales to TLC
  3. Patient wraps lips round mouthpiece
  4. Patient exhales as hard and fast as possible (don’t have to reach RC)
  5. Repeat twice and use highest
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75
Q

What are the factors taken into account to assess peak expiratory flow measure?

A
  • Gender
  • Height
  • Age
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76
Q

What is the method of doing a Flow-volume loop?

A

Patient wears noseclip

  1. Patient wraps lips round mouthpiece
  2. Patient completes at least one tidal breath
  3. Patient inhales steadily to TLC
  4. Patient exhales as hard and fast as possible
  5. Exhalation continues to RV
  6. Immediately inhales to TLC
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77
Q

How do restrictive and obstructive diseases affect the flow-volume loop?

A
  • Restrictive: Displaced to the right, shorter, narrower curve
  • Severe obstructive: Shorter curve, displaced to the left, indented exhalation curve
  • Mild obstructive: Very slightly shorter curve, displaced to the left, indented exhalation curve
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78
Q

How do different types of obstruction affect the flow-volume loop?

A
  • Variable extrathoracic obstruction: Blocks inhalation. Blunted inspiratory curve, otherwise normal
  • Variable intrathoracic obstruction: Blocks exhalation. Blunted expiratory curve, otherwise normal
  • Fixed airway obstruction: Affects both. Blunted inspiratory and expiratory curve, otherwise normal
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79
Q

Explain the regional differences in ventilation and perfusion of the lung.

A

Gravity favours ventilation and perfusion of the basal lung versus the apical lung

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80
Q

What is the Dalton gas law?

A

Pressure of a gas mixture is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of gases in that mixture

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81
Q

What is the Fick gas law?

A

Molecules diffuse from regions of high concentration to low concentration at a rate proportional to the concentration gradient, the exchange surface area and the diffusion capacity of the gas. It is inversely proportional to the thickness of the exchange surface.

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82
Q

What is the Henry gas law?

A

At a constant temperature, the amount of a given gas that dissolves in a given type and volume of liquid is directly proportional to the partial pressure of that gas in equilibrium with that liquid.

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83
Q

What is the Boyle gas law?

A

At a constant temperature, the volume of a gas is inversely proportional to the pressure of that gas.

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84
Q

What is the Charles gas law?

A

At a constant pressure, the volume of a gas in proportional to the temperature of that gas.

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85
Q

What differences are there in the composition of room air, oxygen therapy, smoke and air at high altitude?

A
  • Room air: 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.9% argon, 0.04% CO2
  • Oxygen therapy: 40% nitrogen, 59% oxygen etc
  • Smoke/house fire: Less oxygen, more CO2, some CO
  • High altitude: Same proportions but smaller volume
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86
Q

What changes occur from the atmospheric air to the respiratory airways?

A
  • Slowed
  • Warmed
  • Humidified
  • Mixed

PO2 decreases + PCO2 increases in respiratory airways, PH2O increases n conducting airways

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87
Q

What is the total oxygen delivery at rest on solubility alone? What’s needed?

A

16ml per minute

250mL per minute is requires at rest. To increase this number specialist binding proteins are needed. (Haemoglobin)

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88
Q

Describe the features of Haemoglobin.

A
  • Four monomers; Each a Ferrous iron ion (Fe2+, valency of 2) at centre of tetrapyrrole porphyrin ring, connected to a protein chain.
  • Genes responsible for coding the globin chain can produce four variants:
    • Alpha chain (main)
    • Beta chain (variant of main)
    • Gamma chain (foetal heamoglobin)
    • Delta chain
  • Capable of carrying 4 O2 molecules
  • 3 Common variants:
    • HbA (2 alpha, 2 beta); Adult Hb; 98%
    • HbA2 (2 alpha, 2 delta); Adult Hb; 2%
    • HbF (2 alpha, 2 gamma) Foetal Hb; trace amounts
  • Haemoglobin in toxic, and so is carried in red blood cells.
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89
Q

How does Haemoglobin change when binding to oxygen?

A

Cooperative binding:

  • Haemoglobin has a low affinity for oxygen at the beginning
  • As more O2 binds the affinity increases

Allosteric protein:
- As O2 binds the structure of the protein changes, and creates a binding site for 2,3-DPG which binds and changes the protein from relaxed to tense, to promote dissociation of O2.

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90
Q

What is methaemoglobin?

A
  • When Fe2+ is oxidised to Fe3+ valency and cannot bind oxygen
  • Can cause functional anaemia (i.e. normal Haematocrit, normal PCV but impaired O2 capacity)
  • Nitrites oxidise Hb into ferric MetHb
  • Can be genetically caused
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91
Q

What is the oxygen dissociation curve?

A
  • At low PO2 Hb has a low affinity for O2 and so more dissociation (in tissues)
  • At high PO2 Hb has a high affinity for O2 and so more association (in alveoli)
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92
Q

What is P50?

A

The partial pressure at which 50% of Hb is saturated.

The higher the P50, the lower the affinity for O2.

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93
Q

What conditions cause more dissociation of O2 from Hb? (decreased affinity)

A
  • Increased temperature
  • Acidosis
  • Hypercapnia (high CO2 levels)
  • Increased 2,3-DPG levels.

Happens in exercise, allows more O2 to be released at the same partial pressure.

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94
Q

What conditions cause more association of O2 from Hb? (increased affinity)

A
  • Decreased temperature
  • Alkalosis
  • Hypocapnia
  • Decreased 2,3-DPG
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95
Q

How does anaemia affect the oxygen dissociation curve? Why?

A
  • Same shape as normal, but lower total O2 in blood (downward shift)
  • Less haemoglobin available to carry O2
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96
Q

What could cause an increase in the total O2 in blood?

A
  • Polycythaemia (abnormally high [Hb])

Blood-doping, over production of red blood cells. (increase haematocrit)

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97
Q

How does carbon monoxide affect the oxygen dissociation curve?

A
  • Hb has higher affinity for CO than O2
  • CO occupies binding sites, so less O2 circulates
  • CO changes affinity of Hb for O2, so it is at a higher affinity.

The curve moves downward and to the left.

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98
Q

How does foetal haemoglobin differ from adult haemoglobin in the oxygen dissociation curve?

A
  • Greater affinity than adult Hb, so that it can take O2 from mother’s blood in the placenta.
  • Curve is to the left of normal adult Hb
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99
Q

How does myoglobin differ from normal haemoglobin in the oxygen dissociation curve?

A
  • Single monomer in the muscle
  • Much greater affinity that adult Hb so it can take O2 from circulating blood and store it
  • Curve is to the left, not sigmoid but hyperbolic
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100
Q

What is the saturation of mixed venous blood?

A

75%

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101
Q

What is the PO2 of blood before and after going through the lungs?

A

Before: 5.3kPa (40mmHg)

After: 13.5kPa (101mmHg)

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102
Q

After passing the lungs, what is;

  • Saturation of O2 in artery
  • Volume of O2 bound to Hb
  • Content of O2 dissolved
  • Content of O2 in artery
A
  • SO2 = 100%
  • HbO2 = 20.1mL/dL
  • CDO2 = 0.34mL/dL
  • CaO2 = 20.4mL/dL
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103
Q

Why is the PO2 of the blood which returns to the left atrium not the same as what leaves the lungs?

A
  • Bronchiole circulation drains into the pulmonary vein

- So loss of PO2 slightly (97%)

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104
Q

What is the importance of the PO2 of blood?

A
  • Isn’t enough to sustain life

- Role is changing the affinity of Hb for oxygen

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105
Q

After passing the tissue, what is;

  • Saturation of O2 in artery
  • Volume of O2 bound to Hb
  • Content of O2 dissolved
  • Content of O2 in artery
A
  • SO2 = 75%
  • HbO2 = 15mL/dL
  • CDO2 = 0.14mL/dL
  • CaO2 = 15.1mL/dL
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106
Q

What is the Oxygen flux?

A

Amount of oxygen lost = 5ml/dL

250ml of oxygen per ml/min

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107
Q

How is CO2 transported?

A
  • Very soluble, crossed membrane and dissolves into plasma
  • Some CO2 will move into the red blood cell

Most CO2 transported as bicarbonate, HbCO2 more prevalent in mixed venous blood (i.e. when not bound to O2)

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108
Q

What happens to CO2 in red blood cells?

A
  • Carbonic anhydrase accelerates reaction of CO2 and H20
  • Produces H2CO3 which dissociates
  • Bicarbonate is moved out of cell, Chloride shift compensates to maintain resting potential (Cl- entry with H20 through AE1 transporter)
  • Hb bind CO2 at the amine ends of protein chain, to give HbCO2
  • H+ binds to amines in the Hb chain to buffer the inside of the erythrocyte
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109
Q

What happens to CO2 in the plasma?

A
  • Slowly binds to water to form carbonic acid (HCO3)
  • Carbonic acid dissociates into H+ and HCO3- (bicarbonate)
  • Some H+ will bind to plasma proteins to buffer pH
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110
Q

What is the Partial pressure of CO2 in the arterial and venous blood, and the Content of CO2 in the arterial and venous blood?

A
PaCO2 = 5.3 kPa (40mmHg)
PvCO2 = 6.1 kPa (46mmHg)
CaCO2 = 48.5 mL/dL
CvCO2 = 52.4 mL/dL
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111
Q

What is the CO2 flux?

A

Amount of CO2 gained = 4ml/dL

200ml CO2/min

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112
Q

How long are red blood cells next to the respiratory membrane?

A

0.75 seconds

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113
Q

How does cardiac output affect the exchange of gases?

A
  • Pulmonary transit time is shorter
  • Manages to diffuse in time during exercise
  • About 0.25 seconds for O2, and less for CO2
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114
Q

Describe ventilation and perfusion mismatching.

A
  • Due to gravity, blood flow is less to the apical area than basal.
  • Intrapleural pressure at the base of lung is higher (less negative) so it is easier to ventilate.
  • Ventilation/perfusion ration is low at the base than apical.
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115
Q

Describe the structure of the airways.

A
  • Trachea: Cartilage C shaped rings to allow for oesophagus, divides into two
  • Bronchi: C shaped cartilage rings to allow for constriction and dilation
  • Bronchioles: Smooth muscle, connect to alveoli
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116
Q

What are the basic functions of the airways?

A
  • Conduit to: conduct O2 to the alveoli, conduct CO2 out of the lung. (gas exchange)
  • Facilitated by: mechanical stability (cartilage), control of calibre (smooth muscle) and protection and cleansing
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117
Q

Describe the organisation of the airway in a transverse section.

A
  • Cartilage sections around outside (not a full ring, as they are offset)
  • Air way smooth muscle, sometimes with the terminal end of submucosal glands
  • Blood vessel
  • Ciliated cells, goblet cells
  • Mucus and cilia
  • Airway lumen
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118
Q

List the different cell types in the airways.

A
  • Lining cells e.g. ciliated, intermediate, brush, basal
  • Contractile cells e.g. smooth muscle (airway and vasculature)
  • Secretory cells e.g. goblet (epithelium), mucous, serous (glands)
  • Connective tissue e.g. fibroblast, interstitial cell (elastin, collagen, cartilage)
  • Neuroendocrine e.g. nerves, ganglia, neuroendocrine cells, neuroepithelisl bodies
  • Vascular cells e.g. endothelial, pericyte, plasma cell (and smooth musce)
  • Immune cells e.g. Mast cell, dendritic cell, lymphocyte, eosinophil, macrophage, neutrophil
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119
Q

Describe the release of mucin from goblet cells.

A
  • When stimulated, the mucin granules (in a highly concentrated form) fuse with the surface of the cell
  • This forms a pore which attracts water
  • As more and more water accumulates the mucin granules change to take it on into a liquid form which spreads from the pore onto the surface
  • The volume of the mucous expands greatly
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120
Q

Describe the production of mucous from a submucosal gland.

A
  • Individual components (acini)
  • Produced by collecting duct, secreted by ciliated duct and spread by cilia
  • Serous acini at periphery secrete antibacterials and watery mucous
  • Mucous acini secrete mucus
  • Glands also secrete water and salts (e.g. Na+, Cl-)
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121
Q

Describe the structure and movement of cilia.

A
  • 9+2 arrangements ( 9 doublets form a ring, and 2 in the middle)
  • Dynein arms (on doublets) slide over each other causing the backward and forward motion of the cilia
  • Mitochondria in the cell provide the ATP
  • About 200 cilia for one ciliated cell
  • The co-ordinated movement of areas of cilia so that some beat while others recover so that mucus moves along
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122
Q

What are the functions of the aiway epithelium?

A
  • Secretion of mucins, water and electrolytes
  • Movement of mucus by cilia (mucociliary clearance)
  • Physical barrier
  • Production of regulatory and inflammatory mediators:
    • NO (by NO synthase, possibly to control cilia movement)
    • CO (by hemeoxygenase, may be antibacterial)
    • Arachidonic acid metabolites e.g. prostaglandins
    • Chemokines e.g. interleukin-8
    • Cytokines e.g. GM-CSF
    • Proteases
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123
Q

Describe the function of smooth muscle in the airways.

A

Important for:

  • Structure
  • Tone: Calbibre - Contraction and relaxation
  • Secretion: Some mediators, cytokines, chemokines

In inflammation, there is reaction:
- e.g. in Asthma, there is hypertrophy due to cell proliferation. Contribute to tone so there is a greater force of contraction. Big upregulation of NOS and COX (to produce NO and prostaglandins), cytokines and chemokines which recruit inflammatory cells.

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124
Q

Describe the airway vasculation of the tracheo-bronchial circulation.

A
  • 1-5% cardiac output
  • Perfusion to the tissue is among highest in the body
  • Bronchial arteries arise from many sites on aorta, intercostal arteries and others
  • Blood returns from tracheal circulation via systemic veins
  • Blood returns from bronchial circulation to both sides of the heart via the bronchial and pulmonary veins
  • Large plexus of vessels underneath the epithelium
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125
Q

What are the functions of the tracheo-bronchial circulation?

A
  • Good gas exchange
  • Contributes to warming of inspired air
  • Contributes to humidification of inspired air
  • Clears inflammatory mediators
  • Clears inhaled drugs (good/bad, depending on drug)
  • Supplies airway tissue and lumen with inflammatory cells
  • Supplies airway tissue and lumen with proteinaceous plasma
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126
Q

Outline the mechanism of plasma exudation in the airways.

A
  • Under normal conditions the post-capillary venules can contract, pulling cells away from each other allowing plasma to leak
  • Artificially this can be demonstrated by stimulating the sensory neuron (with motor function) innervating it or using inflammatory mediators e.g. histamine from mast cells, platelet activating factor (PAF)
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127
Q

Describe how the airways are controlled.

A
  • Nerves: parasympathetic (cholinergic), sensory
  • Regulatory and inflammatory mediators: histamine, arachidonic acid metabolites (e.g. prostaglandins, leukotrienes), cytokines, chemokines
  • Proteinases (e.g. neutrophil elastase)
  • Reactive gas species (e.g. O2-, NO)
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128
Q

Describe the innervation of the airways.

A

Constriction:

  • Sensory nerves detect foreign object and stimulates parasympathetic reflex
  • Impulse travels to brainstem (through vagus nerve)
  • Parasympathetic (cholinergic) motor pathway causes constriction of smooth muscle (also causes mucus secretion and possibly vasodilation)

Relaxation:

  • Sympathetic sensory nerves relay information and synapse at a cervical thoracic ganglion
  • Efferent nerve releases NO as a transmitter to smooth muscle causing relaxation
  • Also, sympathetic stimulation of adrenaline release relaxes smooth muscle in airways
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129
Q

What inflammatory cells are/can be present in the airways?

A
  • Eosinophils
  • Neutrophils
  • Macrophages
  • Mast cells
  • T-lymphocytes
    Structural cells e.g. smooth muscle
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130
Q

What mediators are produces by the inflammatory cells?

A
  • Histamine
  • Serotonin
  • Adenosine
  • Prostaglandins
  • Leukotrienes
  • Thromboxan
  • Platelet activating factor (PAF)
  • Endothelin
  • Cytokines
  • Chemokines
  • Growth factor
  • Proteinases
  • Reactive gas species
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131
Q

What effects do mediators have on the airway?

A
  • Smooth muscle contraction or relaxation (both airway and vascular)
  • Secretion (mucins, water etc)
  • Plasma exudation
  • Neural modulation
  • Chemotaxis
  • Remodelling
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132
Q

Outline respiratory diseases which result in a loss of airway control.

A
  • Asthma, Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) and cystic fibrosis
  • Causes airway inflammation, obstruction and remodelling
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133
Q

What are the features of Asthma?

A
  • Clinical syndrome characterised by increased airway responsiveness to a variety of stimuli (e.g. allergens, emotional upset, cold air etc)
  • Airway obstruction varies over short periods of time and is reversible (spontaneously or with drugs)
  • Common symptoms: dyspnoea, wheezing and cough (varying degrees: mild to severe)
  • Airway inflammation can lead to remodelling:
    Increased mucus with inflammatory cells embedded in it (eosinophils), thickening of basement membrane, epithelial fragility, increased size of glands and smooth muscle mass, vasodilation, cellular infiltrate of eosinophils.
  • Airway wall thrown into folds due to bronchi constriction, lumen narrows and fills with mucus
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134
Q

Outline the pathophysiology of asthma.

A
  • Epithelial fragility exposes sensory nerves which causes cholinergic reflex
  • This causes bronchoconstriction and mucus hypersecretion and vasodilation
  • Inflammatory cells produce mediators and with time there is hypertrophy of smooth muscle, increases plasma exudation, angiogenesis etc.
  • Fibroblasts add to basement membrane causing thickening
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135
Q

How does the surface area of the airways change?

A

Increases peripherally (almost exponentially)

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136
Q

Describe the epithelial layer.

A
  • Forms a continuous barrier for protection from external environment
  • Produces secretions to facilitate clearance via mucociliary escalator, and protect underlying cells as well as maintain reduced surface tension (alveolae)
  • Metabolises foreign and host-derived compounds
  • Releases mediators
  • Triggers lung repair process
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137
Q

What cell types form the epithelial layer? What changes in patients with COPD?

A
  • Normally: Columna ciliated cells, basal cells and goblet cells
  • COPD: increase number of goblet cells (hyperplasia) and increased mucus secretion
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138
Q

Describe the features of goblet cells.

A
  • found in large, central and small airways
  • normally 20% of epithelium
  • synthesise and secrete mucis
  • In smokers: goblet cell number almost double, secretions increase and are more viscoelastic
  • This increases the amount of cigarette particles and microorganisms trapped so greater chance of infection
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139
Q

Describe the features of ciliated cells.

A
  • Found in large, central and small airways
  • Normally form 80% of epithelium
  • Cilia beat metasynchonously
  • In smokers: ciliated cells are depletes, beat asynchronously, found in bronchioles, unable to transport thickened mucus which leads to infection and bronchitis.
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140
Q

Describe how the patency of small airways are maintained, and the effect of disease.

A

-

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141
Q

What cell types are present in respiratory bronchioles?

A
  • Bronchiolar ciliated cells: increased in smokers and COPD, beat synchronously to move mucus up to epiglottis and clear trapped debris, cells etc
  • Clara/Club cells: 20% epithelial cells (lower in smokers), secretory cells, detoxification, involved in repair as progenitor cells
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142
Q

What cell types are present in the alveolar unit?

A
  • Type 1 epithelial cells:
    • Large cells (~80μm)
    • Very thin to allow gas exchange
  • Type 2 epithelial cells:
    • Cuboidal, small (~10μm) but highest in number
    • Secrete surfactant to decrease surface tension
    • Repair/progenitor cells
    • Precursor of type 1 cells
  • Capillary endothelium
  • Macrophage
  • Stromal cells (myo) fibroblasts:
    • Make extracellular matric
    • Collagen, elastin to give elasticity and compliance
    • Divide to repair
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143
Q

What is the function of the pores of Kohn?

A

Holes in the alveoli which regulate the pressure across the lung and allow air to move between alveoli so that pressure is equal.

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144
Q

What is the ration of type 1 to type 2 cells?

A

1:2

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145
Q

What are the features of Type II cells in the alveolar epithelium?

A
  • Sit in the corners of the alveoli, embedded in the interstium with the apices facing the air
  • Contain lamellar bodies which store surfactant prior to release onto the air-liquid interface
  • Surfactant released by type II lowers surface tension and prevents alveolar collapse on expiration
146
Q

How does disease damage the alveolar epithelium?

A
  • In emphysema holes form in the alveolar wall
  • This reduces the surface area of the lung
  • After damage fibroblasts will try to repair the tissue, leaving fibrotic region which aren’t pliable
147
Q

Describe the process of normal alveolar repair.

A
  • Type II cells grouped together because of rapid division
  • Underneath epithelium fibroblasts increase in number with increased collagen deposition
  • Exposed basement membrane from type I cell death causes release of growth factors from the fibroblasts and type II cells
  • Growth factor would stimulate type II cell division and eventual differentiation to replace type I cells
148
Q

Describe the process of alveolar repair in a chronic inflammatory/destructive diseas.

A
  • Necrosis of type I cells
  • Type II cell proliferation (too much), excessive fibroblast proliferation and increased deposition of collagen and elastin fibres forming more connective tissue
149
Q

What do secretory epithelial cells synthesise/do (other than mucus and surfactant)?

A
  • Antioxidants e.g. glutathione, superoxide dismutase
    - To neutralise oxygen free radicals inhales e.g. in smokers
  • Antiproteinases e.g. leukoproteinase inhibitor (SLPI)
    - To protect against proteases release by leukocytes to kill bacteria
  • Carry out xenobiotic metabolism e.g. process and detoxify foreign compounds such as carcinogens in cigarette smoke
  • Contain metabolic enzymes e.g. cytochrome P450, phase I and phase II enzymes
150
Q

Describe the functions of leukocytes in the lung.

A
  • Macrophages: (major in healthy): clear up debris, live for months to years, respond to multiple stimuli, high % in peripheral lung
  • Neutrophils: short term, first to be recruited, release mediators, increase greatly in smokers (more so than macrophages)
    Both have a role in phagocytosis, antibmicrobial defence, synthesis of antioxidants, xenobiotic metabolism.

Healthy: 30% neutrophils, 70% macrophages
Smokers: 70% neutrophils, 30% macrophages

151
Q

Describe the roles of neutrophils and macrophages in the activity of proteases.

A
  • Neutrophils produce serine proteinases e.g. neutrophil elastase (NE)
  • Macrophages produce metalloproteinases e.g. MMP-9
  • Substrates include proteins, connective tissue, elastin, collagen
  • Activate other proteinases (e.g. NE degrades and activates MMP), can inactivate antiproteases (e.g. MMP degrades and inactivates alpha-1-antitrypsin which is an inhibitor of NE)
  • Activate cytokines.chemokines and other pro-inflammatory mediators
152
Q

What enzyme is important in the development of emphysema from smoking?

A

MMP

Neutrophil elastase

153
Q

Describe the function of oxidants released by neutrophils and macrophages.

A
  • Antimicrobial effects during infection
  • Generate highly reactive peroxides
  • Interact with proteins and lipids
    In chronic:
  • Inactivate alpha-1 antitrypsin (an NE inhibitor)
  • Fragment connective tissue
154
Q

What mediators are released by neutrophils and macrophages?

A
  • Chemokines: IL-8 (neutrophils), MCP-1 (macrophages)
  • Cytokines: IL-1α, IL-6, TNFα (inflammation)
  • Growth factors: VEGF, FGF, TGFβ (cell survival, repair and remodelling)
155
Q

What causes lung cancer? (increases risk)

A
  • Smoking (biggest)
  • Asbestos
  • Radon/radiation
  • Rare genetic: susceptibility to nicotine addiction, chemical modification of carcinogens.
156
Q

How does mutational compensation work? What effect does smoking have?

A
  • Cells have a propensity to become cancerous
  • Housekeeping genes prevent this e.g. P53 causes apoptosis if the cell becomes uncontrolled
  • Smoking disrupts the housekeeping genes, so cells are more likely to become cancerous
157
Q

What is the relationship between smoking and lung cancer?

A
  • Smoking and lung cancer have positive correlation
  • Passive smoking has been linked to lung cancer, with a dose response
  • Risk of lung cancer decreases if given up, no matter what age
158
Q

What are the clinical features of Lung cancer?

A
  • Often asymptomatic
  • Haemoptysis (coughing up blood)
  • Unexplained or persistent (i.e. more than 3 weeks)
    • cough
    • chest/shoulder pain
    • chest signs
    • dyspnoea
    • hoarseness
    • finger clubbing (acute angle at nail bed)
      If seen need urgent referral for a chest x-ray
159
Q

How is lung cancer diagnosed?

A
  • X-ray, CT

- Biopsy to analyse the pathology of the cancer (from a bronchoscopy)

160
Q

What are the types of lung cancer?

A
  • Non small cell cancer: Includes squamous (20-40%), adenocarcinoma (20-40%) and large cell (uncommon). Key treatment is surgical removal of tumour, then chemotherapy
  • Small cell cancer: 20%, Responds to chemotherapy
161
Q

By what classification are tumours staged?

A

TNM = tumour characteristics, lymph node characteristics and metastases

162
Q

Describe the T-stages of tumours. (characteristics)

A
  • T1a/b: Tumour 3cm but 7cm, invades parietal pleura, chest wall, diaphragm, phrenic nerve, mediastinal pleura, parietal pericardium or in the main bronchus near carina.
  • T4: Tumous of any size, invades mediastinum, heart, great vessels, trachea, recurrent laryngeal nerve,oesophagus, vertebral body, carnina
163
Q

Describe the N-stages of tumours. (lymph node)

A
  • N1: Hilar nodes
  • N2: Mediastinal nodes
  • N3: Contralateral side

CT then biopsy the lympth node, or PET scan with radioactive glucose to show uptake activity

164
Q

Describe the M-stages of tumours. (metastases)

A

Has the tumour spread to other organs?
M0: no distant metastasis
M1: distant metastasis
M1a: separate tumour in contralateral lobe
M1b: distant metastasis (in extrathoracic organs)

165
Q

What are the treatment options for Small cell lung cancer?

A

Localised T1, T2 or T3, N1 or N2, M0:

  • Relatively fit -> aggressive chemotherapy and radiotherapy
  • Unift -> chemotherapy or palliative care

Extensive M1a malignant pleural effusion, N3, M1b:

  • Relatively fit -> Agressive chemotherapy
  • Unfit-> Palliative care
166
Q

What are the treatment options for non-small cell lung cancer?

A

Localised T1/T2, N0, M0:

  • No co-morbidity -> Surgery either lobectomy or pneuomonectomy (removal of lung)
  • Co-morbidity -> X-ray therapy (DXT) or radiotherapy

Extensive:
T1 T2, N2, M0: Chemotherapy then surgery or X-ray therapy
T3, N0 N1 N2, M0: X-ray therapy, radiotherapy or chemotherapy then supportive care
T4, any N, M0: Chemotherapy then X-ray therapy or supportive care

167
Q

How is survival dependent of staging?

A
  • The earlier the cancer is seen the better the chance of survival as they are more likely to be able to have surgery (70% chance of saving them)
168
Q

Which cell types grow fastest?

A
Small cell (doubles every 29 days)
(then squamous, then adenocarcinoma)
169
Q

What is the average amount of time a tumour grows before it is detected?

A

13 years

170
Q

How do pathologists diagnose lung cancer?

A
  • Cytology (cells): found in sputum, bronchial washings, pleural fluid, endoscopic aspiration of tumour/lymph nodes
  • Histology (tissues): biopsy at bronchoscopy (central tumours), percutaneous CT guided biopsy (peripheral tumours), mediastinoscopy and lymph node biopsy, open biopsy during surgery with immediate results, resection specimen
171
Q

From what tissue can tumours arise> What type of tumour can it be?

A

Arise from variety of cell; epithelial (most common), mesenchymal, lymphoid

  • Benign tumour: e.g. chondroma. Don’t metastasise, can cause local complications e.g. airway obstruction.
  • Malignant tumour: potential to metastasise, but variable clinical behaviour, commonest are epithelial tumours
172
Q

Which cancer types are more linked to smoking?

A
  • Squamous and small cell linked to smoking more, due to decrease in smoking, prevalence is decreasing
  • Adenocarcinoma is the cancer most commonly linked to non-smokers, prevalence is increasing
173
Q

Describe the pathway of the development of a squamous cell carcinoma.

A
  • Normal epithelium adapts to irritation of smoke (hyperplasia) by having squamous cells instead of ciliated (Squamous metaplasia)
  • No cilia mean no movement of mucus and carcinogens in them
  • Cells acquire mutation, and become disorganised and proliferate (dysplasia)
  • Become a carcinoma in situ, and then an invasive carcinoma
  • Once it is invasive it can invade tissue, lymphatics and the circulation
174
Q

How do adenocarcinomas arise?

A
  • Usually in periphery
  • Proliferation of atypical cells lining the alveolar walls. Increase in size and eventually become invasive.
  • Carcinoma in situ produces enzymes which invade underlying tissue and it becomes inavsive.
175
Q

What are the features of adenocarcinomas as a disease?

A
  • Increasing incidence (25-40% of lung cancers)
  • Commoner in far east, females and non-smokers
  • Peripheral and more often multicentric
  • Extrathoracic metastases common and early
  • Histology must show evidence on glandular differentiation
176
Q

What are the features of squamous cell carcinomas as a disease?

A
  • 25-40% of lung cancers
  • Closely associated with smoking
  • Traditionally central arising, from broncial epithelium, but recent increase in peripheral
  • Local spread, metastasise late
177
Q

What are the features of Large cell carcinoma?

A
  • Poorly differentiated tumours composed of large cells

- Poor prognosis

178
Q

What are the features of small cell carcinomas?

A
  • 20-25% of tumours
  • Often central near bronchi
  • Very close association with smoking
  • 80% present with advanced disease
  • Divide very rapidly, mainly nucleus, often necrotic because they’ve outgrown blood supply
  • Very chemosensitive BUT very bad prognosis
  • Paraneoplastic syndromes
179
Q

Describe the prognosis for lung cancer.

A

Small cell:

  • Survival 2-4 months if untreated
  • 10-20 months with current therapy
  • Chemoradiotherapy (surgery very rare as most have already metastasised)

Non-small cell:

  • Early stage 1: 60% 5 yr survival
  • Late stage 4: 5% 5 yr survival
  • 20-30% have early stage tumours suitable for surgical resection
  • Less chemosensitive
180
Q

What is the importance of determing the type of non-small cell carcinoma/

A

New treatments are targeted more, so better treatments may be available for certain sub-types or may be dangerous for certain sub-types.

181
Q

What local effects can the tumour have?

A
  • Bronchial obstruction: Can lead to
    • collapse of lung, shortness of breath
    • impair drainage of bronchus and so chest infections
  • Invasion of local structure:
    • airways - causing haemoptysis, cough.
    • large vessels - Superior vena cava syndrome: congestion of head and arm oedema, circulatory collapse (emergency)
    • oesophagus - dysphagia
    • chest wall - pain
    • nerves - Homers syndrome (pupil size changes)
  • Extension through pleura or pericardium:
    • pleuritisor pericarditis with effusions: breathlessness, cardiac compromise (emergency)
  • Diffuse lymphatic spread within lung:
    • Lymphangitis carcinomatosa: shortness of breath, very poor prognosis
182
Q

What systemic effects can a tumour have?

A

Physical effects of metastatic spread:

  • brain (fits)
  • skin (lumps)
  • liver (liver pain, deranged LFTs)
  • bones (bone pain, fracture)

Paraneoplastic syndrome: Systemic effect of tumour due to abnormal expression by tumour cells of factors (e.g. hormones and other factors) not normally expressed by the tissue from which the tumour arose.

183
Q

Outline the possible Paraneoplastic syndromes.

A

Endocrine:

  • Antidiuretic hormone (ADH): Inappropriate levels of ADH causing hyponatremia (low Na+) especially in small cell carcinoma
  • Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH): Cushing’s syndrome. especially in small cell carcinoma
  • Parathyroid hormone-related peptides: Hypercalcaemia. expecially squamous carcinoma
  • Other: Calcitonin -> hypocalcaemia, Gonadotrophin -> gynecomastia (enlarged male breasts), serotonin -> ‘carcinoid syndrome’

Non-endocrine:
- Haematologic/coagulation defects, skin, muscular other.

184
Q

What is minute ventilation?

A

Min ventilation = tidal volume x breathing rate

Breathing rate = 60/TTOT
TTOT = length of one breath

185
Q

What determines the tidal breath?

A
  • Frequency of impulses through the Phrenic nerve to the diaphragm and other respiratory muscles controls the strength of contraction
  • The higher the metabolic need, the higher the frequency of impulses, and therefore the faster and stronger the contractions leading to faster breathing rate and higher inspiratory flow
  • Other parts of the brain will stop inspiration and stop expiration to go back to the functional residual capacity
186
Q

What is the more complex equation for ventilation rate?

A

Ventilation = VT/TI x TI/TTOT
Where:
VT/TI = mean inspiratory flow or neural drive
and
TI/TTOT = fraction of time of respiratory cycle spent on inspiration

187
Q

What is the average ventilation rate, breathing rate and mean inspiratory flow at rest?

A
  • Ventilation rate = 6
  • Breathing rate = 15
  • Mean inspiratory flow = 0.26
188
Q

How does chronic bronchitis and emphysema affect the tidal breath?

A
  • lower tidal volume
  • faster breathing rate
  • breathe using a larger amount of their maximum volume
  • But these compensate so tidal volume is about the same

For Chronic bronchitis, due to greater inefficiency the PCO2 if much higher than normal. The body doesn’t react as it has become desensitiised to prevent overworking of the lungs and muscle.

189
Q

Describe how the CNS controls breathing.

A
  • Involuntary (metabolic) centre in the medulla (bulbo-pontine): responds to metabolic demands for and production CO2 (5.3kPa)
  • Voluntary (behavioural) centre in the motor area of cerebral cortex: controls breath holding and singing
  • Metabolic will always override the behavioural (except in children)
  • Other parts of cortex, not under voluntary control, influence the metabolic centre e.g. emotional response
  • Limbic system (survival responses e.g. suffocation, hunger, thirst), frontal cortx (emotions) and sensory inputs (e.g pain, startle) may influence the metabolic centre
  • Sleep also influences the metabolic centre, via the reticular formation
190
Q

What are the effects of voluntary breathing on the brain?

A
  • Diaphragm centre in motor homunculus in the cortex

- As seen in PET scans, that area increases its oxygen consumption to fulfil command

191
Q

Outline the organisation of breathing control.

A
  • H+ receptors in the metabolic centre detect PCO2 changes in the ECF (slow) and appropriately send impulses to the respiratory spinal motor neurones (and upper airway muscles)
  • Impulse frequency infuences rate and strength of contraction of respiratory muscles, therefore impacts ventilation rate in the lung
  • Carotid bodies (chemoreceptors) detect changes in PCO2 by H+ receptors and contribute 40% to the metabolic control centre’s actions
  • Feedback from carotid bodies, stretch and irritant receptors and muscle spindles and tendon organs influences the metabolic control centre’s impulse frequency
  • Behaviour centre sends impulses directly to respiratory spinal nerves e.g. to sneeze or cough or hold breath.
  • In NREM sleep of most people the metabolic centre is able to control breathing
192
Q

Describe the features and functions of the peripheral chemoreceptor.

A
  • Carotid body (in carotid sinus at junction of internal and external carotid arteries) samples arterial blood
  • Rapid response system for detecting changes in arterial PCO2 and PO2
  • Hypoxia amplifies the H+ receptor
193
Q

What is the pre-Botzinger complex?

A
  • Almost a pacemaker for respiration
  • Group of cells in the ventro-cranial medulla, near the 4th ventricle, which are essential in generating the respiratory rhythm. (called ‘gasping centre’)
  • Coordination of this complex with other controllers is necessary for a more ordered and responsive respiratory rhythm
194
Q

List the different functions in the respiratory cycle of discrete groups of neurons in the medulla.

A
  • Early inspiratory: intiates inspiratory flow via respiratory muscles
  • Inspiratory aumenting: (prolong inspiration) may also dilate pharynx, larynx and airways
  • Late inspiratory: may signal the end of inspiration and ‘brake’ the start of expiration
  • Expiratory decrementing: may ‘brake’ passive expiration by abducting larynx and pharynx
  • Expiratory augmenting: may activate expiratory muscles when ventilation increases on exercise
  • Late expiratory: may signal the end of expiration and onset of inspiration, and may dilate the pharynx in preparation for inspiration
195
Q

Describe the reflexes involved in the respiratory system.

A
  • Irritant; leads to coughing or sneezing (i.e. defensive)
    • CN V: afferents from nose and face
    • CN IX: afferents from pharynx and larynx
    • CN X: from bronchi and bronchioles (also stretch)
  • Hering-Breuer reflex; pulmonary stretch receptors detect lengthening and shortening and terminate inspiration and expiration though it’s weak in humans
    • CN X: afferents from bronchi and bronchioles (also irritant)
    • Thoracic spinal cord: from chest wall and respiratory muscles (spindles stretch)
196
Q

How does the response to CO2 differ in different conditons?

A

Patient breathes into a bag with differing concentrations of O2 and CO2

  • In alkalosis (i.e. hyperoxia or too little CO2) increasing Arterial PCO2 increases minute ventilation
  • In acidosis (i.e. hypoxia or too much CO2) increasing Arterial PCO2 increases minute ventilation at a faster rate
197
Q

What is the apneic threshold?

A

The level of PCO2 required to breath. (only operates in sleep)

198
Q

How does the response to PO2 and PCO2 differ?

A

The repsonse to PCO2 is much more responsive (a smaller increase will cause a larger effect, i.e. increased ventilation)

199
Q

What is the response to a fall in PO2 and PCO2?

A
  • At high altitude both PO2 and PCO2 are lower because the volume of air is less
  • The body must acclimatise (takes a few days)
  • Must increase sensitivity to PCO2
200
Q

What determines [H+]?

A

[H+] = constant x PaCO2 / HCO3-

PaCO2 determined by the lungs (fast)
HCO3- determined by the kidneys (slow)

Also Strong ion difference: ratio of {Na+, H+} to Cl-

201
Q

What are the compensatory mechanisms for acidosis (excess H+)? What can cause acidosis?

A
  • Increased ventilation to lower PaCO2 and H+
  • Renal excretion of weak (lactate and keto) acids
  • Renal retention of Cl- to reduce the strong ion difference

Metabolic causes e.g. uncontrolled diabetes

202
Q

What are the compensatory mechanisms for alkalosis (excess HCO3-)? What can cause alkalosis?

A
  • Hypoventilation raises PaCO2 and H+
  • Renal retention of weak (lactate and keto) acids
  • Renal excretion of Cl- to increase strong ion difference

Causes: too much ingestion of sodium bicarbonate, or diarrhoea

203
Q

What causes hypoventilation conditions (Increased PaCO2)?

A

Central:
Acute (more common): Metabolic centre poisoning (drugs, anaesthetic)
Chronic: Vascular/neoplastic disease of metabolic centre, congenital central hypoventilation syndrome (rare), Obesity hypoventilation syndrome, chronic mountain sickness

Peripheral (more common):
Acute: muscle relaxant drugs, myasthenia gravis
Chronis: neuromuscular with respiratory muscle weakness

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease: mixture of central (won’t breathe) and peripheral (can’t breathe)

204
Q

What causes hyperventilation conditions (decreased PzCO2)?

A

Rarer than hypoventilation

  • Chronic hypoxaemia
  • Excess H+ (metabolic causes e.g. )
  • Pulmonary vascular disease
  • Chronic anxiety (psychogenic)
205
Q

What is breathlessness?

A
  • Subjective
  • Could be without breath (suspended breathing with emotional cause)
  • Could be out of breath/too much breathing. Normal e.g. when exercise exceeds a threshold of comfort
206
Q

What is dyspnoea?

A
  • Medical term for breathlessness but with the connotation of discomfort or difficulty
  • Breathless on rest implies difficulty with inspiration or expiration
  • Breathless during exercise implies excessive breathing for the task with or without difficulty
207
Q

What are the types of dyspnoea?

A
  • Tightness: difficulty in inspiring due to airway narrowing. Feeling that chest isn’t expanding normally
  • Increased work and effort: breathing at a high minute ventilation, or at a normal minute ventilation but high lung volume, or against an inspiratory or expiratory resistance
  • Air hunger (worst): sensation of a powerful urge to breath. Mismatch in demand and supply
208
Q

How is breathlessness measure?

A
  • Borg scale: 0 to 10
  • Visual analogue scale: continuous from not at all to extremely breathless

Still ssubjective, but can be used to compare multiple entries from same patient

209
Q

What does the Breath holding time test?

A
  • Tests strength of behavioural versus metabolic controller
  • The time can be prolonged by increasing lung volume, lowering PaCO2 or by taking an isoxic/isocapnic breathe (one where there is no gas exchange) near the break point
210
Q

What is Alkalaemia, Acidaemia, Alkalosis and Acidosis?

A
  • Alkalaemia: Refers to raised pH of blood
  • Acidaemia: Refers to lowered pH of blood
  • Alkalosis: Describes circumstances that will decrease [H+] and increase pH
  • Acidosis: Describe circumstances that will increase [H+] and decrease pH
211
Q

What was the main finding of the Pitts and Swan experiment?

A

The blood has a very big buffering capacity which happens immediately.

There are many molecules in the blood which can either bind to or release H+ depending on what is needed.

212
Q

What is pH?

A

-log[H+] = pH

and so [H+] = 10 ^-pH

213
Q

What are the sources of acid in the body?

A
  • Respiratory acid (CO2 + H2O -> H2CO3 -> H+ + HCO3-)
  • Metabolic acid e.g. pyruvic, lactic etc

Respiratory acid contribute 99% of acid which affects pH

214
Q

What is the change in [H+] between arterial and venous blood? What is it as a percentage?

A

0.000000004 Eg/L

a 10% increase

215
Q

What is the approximate volume of respiratory acid (CO2) produced in the average adult over 24 hours?

A

288 L/day

216
Q

What are normal arterial blood gas results?

A
pH: 7.35 – 7.45.
pO2: 10 – 14kPa
pCO2: 4.7 – 6.4kPa
Base excess (BE): -2 – 2 mmol/l.
HCO3: 22 – 26 mmol/l.
217
Q

What is the base excess?

A

The ratio between the normal bicarbonate level and the observed

218
Q

What are the guideline values for PaO2?

A
  • Normal > 10kPa
  • Mild hypoxaemia 8-10kPa
  • Moderate hypoxaemia 6-8kPa
  • Sever hypoxaemia
219
Q

What compensatory mechanisms are there for changes in pH?

A
  • Changes in ventilation can stimulate a RAPID compensatory response to change CO2, elimination and therefore alter pH (for problems in kidney)
  • Changes in HCO3- and H+ retention/secretion in the kidneys can stimulate a SLOW compensatory response

Acidosis will need alkalosis to correct
Alkalosis will need acidosis to correct

220
Q

How do you know whether a patient has compensated?

A
  • Uncompensated: abnormal pH, abnormal PCO2, normal base excess
  • Partially compensated: abnormal pH, abnormal PCO2, abnormal bases excess
  • Fully compensated: normal pH, normal PCO2, abnormal base excess
221
Q

What causes alkalosis?

A
  • Hyperventilation (decreased CO2)

- Vomiting (decreased [H+])

222
Q

What causes acidosis?

A
  • Hypoventilation

- Diarrhoea

223
Q

How should an arterial blood gas be interpreted?

A
  • Type of imbalance: Acidosis, alkalosis or normal?
  • Aetiology of imbalance: respiratory or metabolic (or normal)?
  • Any homeostatic compensation? uncompensated, partially compensated or fully compensated?
  • Oxygenation: hypoxaemia, normoxaemia or hyperoxaemia?
224
Q

How does a physiological or pathological stimulus lead to a concious sensation e.g. a symptom?

A
Neurophysiological pathway:
1. Sensory stimulus
2. Transducer (sensory nerve excitation)
3. Integration in CNS
4. Sensory impression
Behavioural pathway: 
1. Sensory impression
2. Perception e.g. tolerance of pain
3. Evoked sensation
225
Q

Outline the features of coughing.

A
  • Crucial defence mechanism protecting the lower respiratory tract from inhaled foreign material and excessive mucous secretion
  • Usually secondary to mucociliary clearance. Important in lung disease when mucociliary function is impaired and mucous production is increased
  • Expulsive phase of cough generates high velocity of airflow, facilitated by bronchoconstriction and mucous secretion
226
Q

Where are cough receptors found?

A
  • Most numerous on posterior wall of trachea, at main carina and branching points of large airways. Less numerous in more distal airways and none past the respiratory bronchioles
  • Present in the pharynx and possible other places e.g. eardrums, diaphragm, pleura etc.
  • Laryngeal and tracheobronchial receptors respond to chemical and mechanical stimuli
227
Q

What are the types of cough receptors?

A

Three types:

  • Slowly adapting stretch receptors
  • Rapid adapting stretch receptors
  • C-fibre (chemical) receptors
228
Q

Describe the features of C-fibre receptors.

A
  • ‘Free’ nerve endings
  • Found in the larynx, trachea, bronchi and lungs
  • Small unmyelinated fibres (C)
  • Chemical irritant stimuli, inflammatory mediators
  • Release neuropeptide inflammatory mediators; Substance P, Neurokinin A, Calcitonin Gene related peptide.
229
Q

Describe the features of Rapidly adapting stretch receptors.

A
  • Found in the naso-pharynx, larynx, trachea and bronchi
  • Small myelinated nerve fibres (Aδ)
  • Mechanical, chemical irritant stimuli and inflammatory mediators
230
Q

Describe the features of Slowly adapting stretch receptors.

A
  • Located in airways smooth muscle
  • Myelinated nerve fibres
  • Predominantly in trachea and main bronchi
  • Mechanoreceptors (respond to lung inflation)
231
Q

Describe the innervation of cough receptors and what stimulates them.

A
  • Two types of cough receptors: Mechanosensors and Nociceptors
  • Mechanosensors stimulated by: Mechanical displacement and citric acid
  • Nociceptors stimulated by: Capsaicin (TRPV1 channel), Bradykinin, Citric acid (TRPV1 channel) and Cinnamaldehyde (TRPA1 channel)
232
Q

Describe the mechanics of coughing.

A
  • Starts with inspiration
  • The glottis closes, causing a rapid increase in pressure
  • The glottis opens, and the expiratory phase takes place which is when sound is heard
233
Q

Describe the sound phases of a cough.

A
  • 2 phases with an initial explosive phase that is the first cough sound, followed by an immediate phase with decreasing sound
  • An additional third phase called voiced or glottal phase which gives rise to a second cough sound
234
Q

What areas of the brain are stimulated by the urge to cough.

A

Oxygen consumption increases in:

  • orbital frontal cortex
  • inferior frontal gyrus
  • anterior insula
  • superior temporal gyrus
  • primary motor and somatosensory cortices
235
Q

What diseases are associated with cough?

A

Respiratory:

  • Acute: tracheobronchitis, bronchopneumonia, viral pneumonia, acute-on-chronic bronchitis, pertussis
  • Chronic: bronchiectasis, tuberculosis, cystic fibrosis
  • Airway: Asthma, eosinophilic bronchitis, cough variant asthma, chronic bronchitis, COPD, chronic postnasal drip
  • Parenchymal diseases: interstitial pulmonary fibrosis, emphysema, sarcoidosis
  • Tumors: bronchogenic carcinoma, alveolar cell carcinoma, benign airway tumors, mediastinal tumors
  • Aspirated foreign bodies

Non-respiratory:

  • Middle ear pathology
  • Cardiovascular diseases: left ventricular failure, pulmonary infarction, aortic aneurysm
  • Other: gastroesophageal reflux, laryngopharyngeal reflux, recurrent microaspiration, endobronchial sutures, obstructive sleep apnea, laryngeal dysfunction
  • Drugs: Angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitor medications
236
Q

What are the types of cough?

A
  • Acute: 3 weeks. Indication of increased cough reflex or disease
237
Q

What causes hypersensitivity or increased cough reflex?

A
  • Excitability of afferent nerves increased by chemical mediators e.g. prostaglandin E2
  • Increase in receptor numbers e.g. TRPV-1, voltage gated channels
  • Neurotransmitter increase e.g. neurokinins in brain stem
238
Q

What treatment is there for coughs?

A
  • Find underlying disease and treat e.g. asthma treated by inhaling corticosteroids
  • Symptomatic suppressant therapies: Central action - opiates e.g. codeine, morphine.
  • New: Amitryptiline, gabapentin
  • Speech pathology management
239
Q

What nerves provide sensory information from the respiratory system?

A
  • Nose: Trigeminal (CN V)
  • Pharynx: Glossopharyngeal (CN IX), Vagus (X)
  • Larynx: Vagus (CN X)
  • Lungs: Vagus (CNX)
  • Chest wall: Spinal nerves
240
Q

Describe the sensory pathway of pain and touch in the chest.

A
  • PAIN: From the chest wall, in thorax, sensory information travels through spino-thalamic tract from contralateral side. Travels up to the thalamus and then primary somatosensory cortex. Through Aδ and C receptors/fibres via dorsal horn
  • TOUCH: Sensory pathway travels up to the medulla on the same side, then to contralateral side of the thalamus and somatosensory cortex. Through Aα and Aβ receptors/fibres via dorsal horn.
241
Q

What are the different types of pain?

A
  • Somatic: Localised
  • Visceral: Difficult to localise, diffuse in character and referred to somatic structures. Pain arising from various viscera in the thoracic cavity and from chest wall is often qualitatively similar and exhibits overlapping patterns of referral, localisation and quality, leading to difficulties in diagnosis.
242
Q

What does chest pain from the respiratory system indicate?

A
  • Pleuropulmonary disorder: Pleural inflammation e.g. infection, pulmonary embolism, pneumothorax, malignancy e.g. mesothelioma
  • Tracheobronchitis: Infections, inhalation of irritants
  • Inflammation or trauma to chest wall: Rib fracture, muscle injury, malignancy, herpes zoster (intercostal nerve pain)
  • Referred pain: e.g. shoulder-tip pain of diaphragmatic irritation
243
Q

What non-respiratory dosorders can chest pain indicate?

A

Cardiovascular:

  • Myocardial iscaemia/infarction
  • Pericarditis
  • Dissecting aneurysm
  • Aortic valve disease

Gastrointestinal disorders:

  • Oesophageal rupture
  • Gastrooesopageal reflux
  • Cholecystitis
  • Pancreatitis

Psychiatric disorders:

  • Panic disorder
  • Self-inflicted
244
Q

What are the features of dyspnoea?

A
  • Troublesome, shortness of breath reported by a patient
  • Occurs at inappropriately low levels of exertion, and limits exercise tolerance
  • Unpleasant and frightening experience. Can be associated with feelings of impending suffocation
  • Poor perception of respiratory symptoms and dyspnoea may be life-threatening
  • Clinical dyspnoea scale from 0-4 (none to severe). Depends of how much activity they can undertake. Borg scale from 0-10.
245
Q

What disorders are associated with shortness of breath?

A

Impaired pulmonary function:
- Airflow obstruction, restriction of lung mechanics, extrathoracic pulmonary restriction, neuromuscular weakness, gas exchange abnormalities

Impaired cardiovascular function:
- Myocardial disease leading to heart failure, valvular disease, pericardial disease, pulmonary vascular disease, congenital vascular disease

Altered central ventilatory drive or perception:
- Systemic or metabolic disease, metabolic acidosis, anaemia

Physiologic processes e.g. de-conditioning, hypoxic high altitude, pregnancy, severe exercise, being unfit

Idiopathic hyperventilation

246
Q

How is dyspnoea treated?

A
  • Treat the cause
  • Treatment for dyspnoea is difficult
  • Options are: bronchodilators, drugs to affect brain e.g. morphine, lung resection, pulmonary rehabilitation (improve general fitness, health and psychological well-being)
247
Q

Describe how the respiratory tract defends against infection.

A

Mechanical:
URT filtration, mucociliary clearance, cough, surfactant, epithelial barrier

Local:
BALT, sIgA, lysozyme, transferrin, antiproteinases, alveolar macrophage

Systemic:
Polymorphocuclear leukocytes, complement, immunoglobulins

248
Q

How is the epithelial lining, and cilia adapted to prevent infection?

A
  • Cilia line the airways (nose, middle ear, sinuses, trachea, bronchi, up to bronchioles)
  • Tight junctions between epithelial cells form a barrier
  • Mucus secreted by goblet cells and submucosal glands trap particles and microbes
  • Cilia beat (15/sec) forward, then pull back in ‘recovery’ continuously, beating mucus (and microbes in it) up to airway to be swallowed (and lysed in stomach) or coughed up.
  • Cilia have claws on the surface to catch microbes, and beat in coordination with others
249
Q

What impairs a patient’s ability to fight infection?

A
  • Very virile bacteria/virus
  • Weakened host defence: Either congenital or acquired (most common is smoking, viral infection which kills cilia so they have to regrow)
250
Q

What is most common cause of bronchits?

A
  • Haemophilus infuenzae
  • Hair-like fimbriae which act as anchors to allow them to attach to the epithelial surface
  • Once attached, it divides and forms a colony on the surface
  • Symptoms include yellow/green phlegm
251
Q

Describe the strategies used by bacteria to avoid clearance from the airways.

A
  • Exoproducts that impair mucociliary clearance: toxins cause cilia to beat in a slow disorganised way, stimulate mucis production, affect ion transport and damage epithelium
  • Ezymes: break down local immunoglobulins
  • Exoproducts: impair neutrophil, macrophage and lymphocyte function
  • Adherence: increased by epithelial damage and tight junction separation
  • Avoid immune surveillance: surface heterogeneity (changes antigens), biofilm formation, surround gel and endocytosis
252
Q

Describe the features of pneumonia.

A
  • Histologically: solid lung because alveoli are full of pus and inflammatory debris
  • Very serious, can lead to death
  • Symptoms: Cough, sputum (yellow), fever, dyspnoea, pleural pain, headache
  • Commonest cause of bacterial pneumonia: streptococcus pneumoniae
    • Surrounded by polysaccharide capsule prevents binding to epithelia but allows evasion. Produces toxin pneumolysin which degrades cells.
253
Q

What is bronchiectasis? What lung function tests are associated with it?

A
  • Widening of bronchi and their branches due to structural damage, which increases the risk of injection
  • Low FEV1, Large residual volume, normal gas transfer in aleoli
    Common complaints:
  • Large amount of phlegm produced daily
  • Recurrent respiratory infections
  • Breathlessness: wheeziness
  • Fatigue: severe tireness and lethargy, difficulty concentrating
    Treatment: physiotherapy to learn to cough up phlegm to reduce risk of infection. Treat cause. pulmonary rehabilitation. antibiotics.
254
Q

What are the causes of Chronic bronchial sepsis?

A
  • Congenital e.g. pulmonary sequestration, bronchial wall abormalities
  • Mechanical obstructions e.g. foreign body, tumour, lymph node
  • Inflammatory pneumonitis e.g. gastric contents, caustic gas
  • Fibrosis e.g. CFA (ideopathic fibrosis), sarcoid
  • Postinfective e.g. TB, pneumonia
  • Immunological e.g. Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis (ABPA), post-transplant
  • Impaired mucociliary clearance e.g. cystic fibrosis, Primary ciliary dyskinesia (PCD), Youngs syndrome
  • Immune deficiency e.g. hypogammaglobulinaemia
255
Q

How can lung infection become a vicous cycle?

A

Impaired lung defences -> microbial infection -> inflammation -> tissue damage -> impaired lung defences and so on

256
Q

What is the most important factor in preventing the chronic infection cycle?

A

Balance of protease (produced by neutrophils) and antiprotease (produced by epithelium to prevent damage)

So much protease is released by the mass of neutrophils there is damage to the epithelial lining. Then leading to further infections due to lack of defences.

257
Q

What are the effects of restrictive and obstructive on the different lung volumes?

A

Obstructive: Flow of air into and out of the lung is obstructed.

  • Lungs operate at higher volumes
  • Smaller inspiratory reserve volume, tidal volume and expiratory reserve volume
  • Larger residual volume

Restrictive: Inflation/deflation of the lung or chest wall is restricted.

  • Lungs are operating at lower volumes
  • All volumes are reduced
258
Q

What are some causes for obstructive and restrcitve diseases?

A

Obstructive:

  • Chronic: COPD, Emphysema, Bronchitis
  • Acute: Asthma

Restrictive:

  • Pulmonary causes: Lung fibrosis, interstitial lung disease
  • Extrapulmonary causes: Obesity, neuromuscular disease
259
Q

Describe the forces (muscle and recoil) at functional residual capacity.

A
  • Pressure = 0, Volume = 3L
  • Both atmospheric and alveolar pressure is 0 therefore transmural pressure = 0
  • So no air flow
260
Q

What is the effect of an obstructive disease on the mechanics of ventilation?

A
  • Tidal volume is slightly higher, Residual volume and functional residual capacity are higher
  • Smaller in y-axis because of smaller vital capacity
  • Narrower curve, so with any given change in pressure there is greater change in volume
261
Q

What is the effect of a restrictive disease on the mechanics of ventilation?

A
  • Tidal volume, functional residual capacity and residual volume are reduced
  • Elongated in the x-axis, so if the low and high volumes are to be reached very high/low pressures must be applied
262
Q

Describe the pressure and volume changes during one breath at rest.

A
  • Before inspiration, alveolar pressure is at 0 and volume is at 0
  • During inspiration, alveolar pressure becomes negative (-5 - so higher pressure outside) and volume increases
  • At the end of inspiration, alveolar pressure is at 0, and volume is at 0.5L
  • During expiration the lung recoils so the alveolar pressure becomes positive (5 so higher pressure inside) and volume decreases
  • At the end of expiration alveolar pressure is 0 and volume is 0
263
Q

Define compliance.

A

The tendency to distort (change shape) under pressure. e.g. condom

Compliance = change in volume / change in pressure

264
Q

Define elastance.

A

The tendency to recoil to it’s original shape/volume e.g. balloon

Elastance = change in pressure / change in volume

265
Q

What is the effect of fluid in the lungs?

A
  • For a given change in pressure, there is a much greater change in volume. (than air)
  • Sigmoid shape for volume over pressure.
  • Fluid-filled lungs are more compliant than air-filled lungs.
  • Air-water interface exhibits surface tension (more likely to recoil), whereas fluid-water interface does not
266
Q

What is surface tension?

A

The attraction of water in a surface to each other (due to unmet hydrogen forces) which causes curvature.

267
Q

How is surface tension on the lungs overcome?

A
  • Pulmonary surfactant secreted by Type II pneumocytes.
  • Made of phospholipids, which arrange their hydrophobic and hydrophilic heads and tails to prevent collapse.
  • Lowers collapsing pressure of smaller alveoli by increasing the surfactant to water ratio
  • Prevents collapse of small alveoli, increases compliance by reducing surface tension and reduces the work of breathing
268
Q

What is resistance and conduction.=?

A
  • Resistance is inversely proportional to the radius^4
  • Conduction is the ability of the airways to allow a larger volume of air through them. (increases with decreasing resistance and increasing volume)
269
Q

What is the relationship between resistance and number of airways?

A

As the number of airways increases (exponentially) the resistance decreases greatly.

(radius peaks at 4, then decreases)

270
Q

Describe the pressure changes in the airway during breathing.

A
  • Pre-inspiration: Airway transmural pressure = +5 therefore it is patent (open)
  • Mid-inspiration: Airway transmural pressure = +6 therefore it is patent (open)
  • End inspiration: Airway transmural pressure = +8 therefore is it patent (open)
  • Forced expiration: Airway transmural pressure = -2 therefore it is collapsed
271
Q

What are the allergic lung diseases and where are they associated with?

A
  • Upper airways - Allergic rhinitis
  • Bronchi - asthma
  • Alveoli - allergic alveolitis (uncommon)
272
Q

Define Allergy.

A

An exaggerated immunological response to a foreign substance (allergen) which is either inhaled, swallowed, injected or comes into contact with the skin or eye.

  • Mechanism not a disease.
  • Can be IgE mediated i.e. the atopic diseases hayfever, eczema, asthma
  • Can be non-IgE mediated allergic diseases e.g. coeliac disease, allergic alveolitis
273
Q

What is Atopy?

A
  • Literally means ‘Out of place’
  • Atopy is the hereditary predisposition to produce IgE antibodies against common environmental allergens
  • Atopic diseases are allergic rhinitis, asthma and atopic eczema
  • People with this are characterised by infiltration of Th2 cells and eosinophils
274
Q

Describe the IgE mediated allergic reaction pathway in the airways.

A

ACUTE: Allergen crosslinks IgE antibodies coating mast cells in the blood. Stimulates the energy dependent secretory process and release of mediators e.g. histamine, which cause smooth muscle spasm and vasodilation. Occur after a few minutes of exposure.

CHRONIC: If exposed for continuing amount, T-cell mechanism would start and memory cells would become activated. Other mediatory released from Th2 cells e.g. Il-13 and inflammatory cytokines. This would cause the chronic symptoms of allergy.

275
Q

What mediators do Th2 lymphocytes release? What are their functions?

A
  • IL-4 stimulates IgE synthesis
  • IL-5 stimulates eosinophil development/maturation
  • IL-9 stimulate mast cell development
  • IL-13 stimulates IgE synthesis, airway hyperresponsiveness and increases mucus secretion
276
Q

What is the allergic match?

A

The common progression from food allergy, to atopic dermatitis, to asthma and then to allergic rhinitis through childhood.

277
Q

What is the cause of Seasonal allergic conjuctivo-rhinitis?

A

(Hayfever)

Caused by allergy to enzymes in pollen grains.

278
Q

What are the common causes of Perennial allergic rhinitis and asthma?

A

House dust mite, cats, dogs, Alternaria, Cockroaches, horses

279
Q

What is asthma?

A
  • Narrowing of airways due to inflammation
  • Due to three things: constriction of smooth muscle, oedema of airway and plugging of small airways (serious)
  • Some due to allergy some not.
280
Q

What are the different phenotypes of asthma?

A
  • Early onset allergic : Th2 involved, often an allergy
  • Late onset eosinophilic: IL-5 involved, not normally an allergy
  • Exercise-induced: Th2, not an allergy
  • Obesity-related: no Th2 markers, not an allergy
  • Neutrophilic: Chronic, Th17/IL-8, not an allergy
281
Q

What are the symptoms of anaphylaxis?

A
  • Decrease in blood pressure can cause dizziness or loss of consiousness
  • Bronchoconstriction
  • Lip, tongue swelling
  • Tingling
  • Arrythmia
  • Uticaria/hives
    and others
282
Q

What is anaphylaxis?

A

Sensitivity to substance where minute amounts cause a severe generalised reaction. Caused by activation of mast cells and mass release of histamine.

283
Q

What are the causes of anaphylaxis?

A
  • Drugs e.g. penicillin
  • Biggest cause = Food e.g. peanuts, otherr nuts, shellfish etc
  • Insect stings from bees, wasps, hornets
  • Latex
284
Q

What is the treatment of acute anaphylaxis?

A

Adrenaline

285
Q

Give an example of Extrinsic allergic alveolitis.

A
  • Farmer’s Lung
  • Caused by inhaling microscopic spores from mouldy hay. The interstitium (area between alveoli and capillary) becomes inflamed which impairs gas exchange.
  • Severe breathlessness and lung fibrosis etc
286
Q

Why is there an increase in allergic disease?

A
  • Autoimmune diseases in general have increased
  • Not due to ‘hygiene hypothesis’ or pollution
  • Loss of species diversity
  • Risk factors: ‘Westernised countries’, small family size, affluent urban homes, intestinal microflora stable, high antibiotic use, low or absent helminth burden, good sanitation, low orofaecal burden
  • Lack of exposure to common bacteria stimulates T-regulatory lymphocytes which would prevent over activation of IgE when exposed to other substances
287
Q

How is allergic disease treated?

A
  • Allergen avoidance
  • Anti-allergic medication e.g. antihistamines, bronchodilators, corticosteroids
  • Immunotherapy (dessensitisation/hyposensitisation) e.g Subcutaneus immunotherapy: injection of increasing amounts of the allergen or Sublingual immunotherapy: same thing but drops under tongue
288
Q

Who receives Alergen-specific immunotherapy? How does it work?

A
  • Grass and tree pollen allergic rhino-conjunctivitis uncontrolled by medication
  • Bee or wasp sting anaphylaxis at risk for repeated stings
    How:
  • Downregulates Th2 lymphocytes
  • Increases Th1 lymphocytes
  • Increases Regulatory T cells
289
Q

Define Hypoxia.

A

Low PO2 environment.

290
Q

Define Hypoxaemia.

A

Low PaO2 in the blood.

291
Q

Define Ischaemia.

A

Lack of oxygen flowing to tissue.

292
Q

What factors cause hypoxic stress?

A
  • Disease e.g. COPD.
  • Exercise - does not usually result in exercise due to good responses by the body
  • Altitude
293
Q

Describe the Oxygen levels throughout the body.

A
  • Atmosphere PO2 = 21.3kPa
  • In airways PO2 = 20.0kPa
  • In alveoli PaO2 = 13.5kPa
  • In pulmonary vein and heart PaO2 = 13.3kPa
  • In tissues PaO2 = 5.3kPa
  • In veins PaO2 = 5.3kPa
294
Q

How does age affect PaO2?

A

Steadily decreases because the lung loses some ability to ventilate as well.

295
Q

What is the oxygen cascade?

A

The decreasing oxygen tension from inspired air to respiring cells. (diffusion gradient)

296
Q

How is breathing controlled during exercise?

A
  • Initially oxygen deficit
  • When you start exercising the medulla controls breathing, and propioceptive afferent nerve fibres from the skeletal muscles send impulses to the brain to increase breathing
  • Efferent nerve fibres from the motor cortex to the skeletal muscle also sends impulses to the medulla to increase breathing
  • Through nervous and metabolic control a steady state is reached
  • After exercise there is still oxygen consumption to repay oxygen debt e.g. myoglobin re-saturation. Immediate stop of neurogenic control of breathing as there is not motor cortex/muscle stimulation to medulla
297
Q

What is the effect of exercise on breathing?

A
  • Increased tidal volume intially (as it’s the most effective method of increasing ventilation)
  • Then an increase in breathing rate if necessary
  • Respiratory frequency stabilises at around 20 breaths per minute
298
Q

What is the effect of high altitude on the oxygen cascade?

A
  • The volume of oxygen available at each stage is severely decreased
  • Hypobaric hypoxia (inadequate volume of oxygen)
299
Q

What are the steps of accommodation and acclimatisation?

A
  • Low atmospheric O2
  • Lower PAO2 -> Lower PaO2
  • Activation of peripheral chemoreceptors
  • Increased sympathetic outflow -> Increased heart rate and contractility -> increase O2 loading
  • Increased ventilation - > PAO2 -> Increased O2 loading
  • Decreased PaCO2 -> decreased central drive to breathe -> decreased ventilation -> decreased O2 loading
  • Increased pH —> leftward shift of oxygen dissociation curve -> decreased unloading
  • Alkalosis detected by carotid bodies -> Increased HCO3- excretion by kidneys -> Increased H+ in blood -> Oxygen dissociation curve normalises -> increased O2 loading
  • Also low PaO2 -> increased erythropoeitin -> increased rbc -> increased O2 loading
  • Also increased efficiency of oxidative enzymes (better respiration), increased number of mitochondria, -> increase O2 unloading
  • Also small increase in 2,3-DPG in rbc -> rightward shift in oxygen dissociation curve -> increased O2 loading
300
Q

What Prophylactic action can be taken before being at high altitude?

A
  • Aclimation: Like acclimatisation but in an artificial environment e.g. hypobaric chamber.
  • Drugs e.g. Acetazolamide a Carbonic anhydrase inhibitor which accelerate the slow renal compensation to hypoxia-induced hyperventilation
301
Q

What adaptions are there in people who were born/live at high altitude?

A
  • Barrel chest - larger total lung capacity, more alveoli and greater capillarisation
  • Increased haematocrit - greater oxygen carrying capacity of the blood
  • Larger heart to pump through vasoconstricted pulmonary circulation
  • Increased mitochondrial density - greater oxygen utilisation at cellular level
302
Q

Outline the features of Chronic mountain sickness.

A
  • Usually arises in native people where the adaptions go wrong
  • Pathophysiology: Secondary polycythaemia increases blood viscocity which impedes O2 delivery as it can’t travel through capillaries effectively
  • Symptoms: Cyanosis, fatigue
  • Consequences: ischaemic tissue damage, heart failure, eventual death
  • Treatment: no medical treatment. Immediate permanent descent.
303
Q

Outline the features of acute mountain sickness.

A
  • Causes: maladaption to the high-altitude environment. Usually associated with recent ascent - onset within 24 hrs and can last more than a week
  • Pathophysiology: associated with mild cerebral oedema
  • Symptoms: nausea, vomiting, irritability, dizziness, insomnia, fatigue, dyspnoea
  • Consequences: development into HAPE (high altitude pulmonary oedema) and HACE (high altitude cerebral oedema)
  • Treatment: monitor symptoms. stop ascent, analgesia, fluids, medication (acetazolamide) or hyperbaric O2 therapy. Symptoms tend to subside after 48hrs of increased renal compensation
304
Q

Outline the features of HACE.

A
  • High altitude cerebral oedema
  • Cause: rapid acent or inability to acclimatise
  • Pathophysiology: vasodilation of vessels in response to hypoxaemia, increases fluid leakage and so intercranial pressure increases
  • Symptoms: confusion, ataxia (loss of control of body movement), behavioural change, hallucinations, disorientatios
  • Consequences: irrational behaviour, irreversible neurological damage, coma, death
  • Treatment: Immediate descent, O2 therapy, hyperbaric O2 therapy, dexamethasone (corticosteroid)
305
Q

Outline the features of HAPE.

A
  • High altitude pulmonary oedema
  • Causes: rapid acent or inability to acclimatise
  • Pathophysiology: vasoconstriction of pulmonary vessels in response to hypoxia, increased pulmonary pressure, permeability and fluid leakage from capillaries leads to accumulation once it exceeds maximum rate of lymph drainage
  • Symptoms: Dyspnoea, dry cough, bloody sputum, crackling chest sounds
  • Consequences: impaired gas exchange, impaired ventilatory mechanics
  • Treatment: Descent, hyperbaric O2 therapy, nifedipine, salmeterol, sildenafil (reduce fluid leakage)
306
Q

What is respiratory failure?

A
  • Failure of pulmonary gas exchange, genereally ventilation/perfusion mismatch
  • Type 1: Hypoxic respiratory failure PaO2 6.7kPa. Can be caused by decreased CNS drive, pulmonary fibrosis, obesity induced hypoventilation
307
Q

What other diseases increase the risk of hypoxia?

A

Acute: Myocardial infarction, pulmonary embolus, severe haemhorrage

Chronic: Diabetes, respiratory failure, anaemia, COPD

308
Q

Outline the timeline of lung development.

A
  • Embryonic phase: 0-7 weeks. Lung buds being to form and early branching into main bronchi
  • Pseudoglandular: 5-17 weeks. All the pre-acinar conducting airways formed (Bronchi and bronchioli)
  • Canalicular: 16-27 weeks. Respiratory airways and blood gas barrier begin to form
  • Saccular/Alveolar: 28-40 weeks. Alveoli appear
  • Post-natal to adolescence: Alveoli multiply and enlarge in size with the chest cavity
309
Q

Outline the vessel development in the lung.

A
  • Vasculogenesis though branching morphogenesis.
  • Blood gas barrier where capillaries form
  • Alveo and angiogenesis

Crucial interaction between circulatory and aiway system e.g. growth hormones etc

310
Q

Outline the features of Scimitar syndrome.

A
  • Anomalous pulmonary venous drainage of the right lung to the inferior vena cava, usually close to the junction of the right atrium
  • Associated right lung and right pulmonary artery hypoplasia, dextrocardia (heart points to the right) and anomalous system arterial supply
  • Majority of patients have the classical subtype (heart situated to right) which is easier to treat than the opposite.
311
Q

Describe what happens in the Pseudoglandular phase.

A
  • 15-17 weeks
  • Branching morphogenesis of airways into mesenchyme
  • Pre-acinar airways all present by 17 weeks
  • Development of cartilage, gland and smooth muscle tissue - continues into canicular phase
312
Q

Describe bronchial cartilage and its development.

A
  • Incomplete rings posteriorly
  • Irregular plates
  • Increasingly calcify with age
  • Can be malacic (soft due to delay of calcification in a new born)
    • Generalised: laryngotracheomalcia
    • Localised: malacic segment
313
Q

What problems can occur with the development of the bronchial cartilage?

A
  • Complete tracheal ring narrows airway greatly. Treatment usually tracheal surgery to open airway with tracheostomy to allow breathing before surgery.
  • Laryngomalacia where cartilage is too soft. Omega shaped epiglottis; aryepiglottic folds which collapse on inspiration. May require tracheostomy or surgery. Usually self limiting where problems go away with age
314
Q

What drives the branching morphology?

A
  • Epithelial cells at tips of lung buds are highly proliferative multipotent progenitor cells
  • Cell behind the tip divide and differentiate into the various cell types
  • Communication between epithelial cells in distal branching lung buds and surrounding mesenchyme
  • Epithelial-mesencymal interaction is essential
  • Genetic and transcription factors [TTF-1] involved in early bud formation
  • Complex signallying between growth factors, cytokines and receptors in the regulation of lung growth and differentiation
315
Q

Outline the growth factors involved in lung development.

A

Inductive:

  • Fibroblastic GF: branching morphogenesis.
  • Epithelial GF: epithelial proliferation and differentiation

Balanced by
Inhibitory:
- TGFβ: matrix synthesis, surfactant production, inhibits proliferation of epithelium and blood vessels
- Retinoic acid: inhibits branching

316
Q

Outline the features of Primary ciliary dyskinesia.

A
  • Genetic disorder
  • Movement disorder of the cilia
  • Caused by a loss of proteins with are used within the cilia to move
  • E.g. lack of dynein arms leads to immobile cilia
  • Increased risk of (chronic) infections due to lack of mucociliary clearance
317
Q

Describe the relationship between vasculogenesis and angiogenesis and lung development.

A
  • A circulation is present at 5 weeks
  • The pulmonary vessels develop alongside the airways
  • As the heart develop there is already an arterial and venous supply to the foregut where the lung buds begin branching out in to the mesenchyme to form the lungs
318
Q

What forms of congenital thoracic malformations are there?

A

Range from abnormal lung with normal vasculature to normal lung with abnormal vasculature

319
Q

Outline Cystic pulmonary airway malformation (CPAM)?

A
  • Range of severity
  • Defect in pulmonary mesencyma, abnormal differentiation 5-7th week
  • Normal blood supply, but can be associated with sequestration
  • Type 2 most commonly seen (in hospitals) : Multiple small cysts. May be associated with renal agenesis, cardiovascular defects, diaphragmatic hernia and syryngomyelia (formation of cavities in cervical region of spinal cord)
  • Histologically: bronchiolar epithelium with overgrowth, separated by alveolar tissue which was underdeveloped
320
Q

Outline congenital lobar emphysema/ congenital large hyperlucent lobe.

A
  • Progressive lobar expansion
  • Underlying cause: weak cartilage, extrinsic compression, one way valve effect, alveoli over-expand (not disrupted)
  • Males >females
  • hyperinflation of alveoli, where air cannot escape
  • CHD association if the heart is pushed due to pressure
321
Q

Outline intralobar sequestration.

A
  • Abnormal segment which shares visceral pleural covering of normal lung
  • No communication to tracheobronchial tree
  • Aberrant blood supply which is catheterised and blocked as a treatment method allowing the segment to die
  • Occurs more in left lobe that right
322
Q

Describe the possible lung growth abnormalities.

A
  • Agenesis: complete absence of lung and vessel. Rare. Associated with other pathologies. Mediastinal shift.
  • Aplasia: blind ending bronchus, no lung or vessel
  • Hypoplasia: bronchus and rudimentary lung are present, all elements are reduced in size and number. Underperfused and underventilated. Relatively more common, usually secondary. Usually due to lack of space e.g. hernia, chest wall pathology, oligohydramnios (lack of amniotic fluid), lymphatic or cardiac mass or lact of growth e.g. CTM
323
Q

How do blood vessels form in the lung?

A
  • Airway epithelia produce VEGF (vascular endothelial growth factor) which stimulates differentiation of endothelial cells to form capillaries within the mesenchyme,
  • As well as inhibitory factors to prevent overgrowth
324
Q

Describe what happens during the canalicular stage.

A
  • 16-27 weeks
  • The airspaces at the periphery enlarge
  • Thinning of epithelium by underlying capillaries to allow gas exchange
  • Blood gas barrier required in post-natal life is formed
  • Epithelial differentiation into type I and II cells
  • Surfactant first detectable at 24-25 weeks. Babies become VIABLE
325
Q

Describe what happens during the Saccular/Alveolar stage.

A
  • 28-40 weeks
  • Mesenchymal thins and air spaces develop
  • Usually able to survive self-ventilating at 8 months
  • At term there is about one third to one half of the number of adult alveoli
326
Q

Describe the formation of alveolar walls.

A
  • Septa are very important for increasing surface area
  • Saccule wall: epithelium on both sides with double capillary network. Myofibroblast and elastin fibres at intervals along the wall
  • At the places secondary septa develop from wall led by elastin produced by myofibroblast. Capillary lines both sides with matrix between
  • Capillaries have coalesced to form one sheet of alveolar wall, thinner and longer with less matrix. Muscle and elastin still at tip
327
Q

What is the danger of preterm birth medical care?

A
  • Medical care i.e. ventilation, artificial surfactant are not perfect.
  • May cause harm
  • May be introducing future at risk groups of disease
328
Q

Describe the lung at birth.

A
  • Volume is small though relative to body weight
  • All airways are present and differentiated
  • Normal gas exchange though 33-50% alveoli of adults
  • Same blood gas barrier as adults
  • Most arteries and veins present
329
Q

What changes occur to allow the lungs to work after birth?

A
  • Decrease in pulmonary vascular resistance
  • 10 fold rise in pulmonary blood flow
  • Arterial lumen increases and wall thins rapidly
  • Change in cell shape and cytoskeletal organisation, not loss of cells
  • Once thinning has occured, arteries grow and maintain a relatively thin wall
330
Q

What medical interventions are used to increase flow after birth?

A
  • Expansion of alveoli dilates arteries: direct physical effect
  • Expansion stimulates release of vasodilator agents (NO, PGI2)
  • Inhibition of vasoconstrictors present during fetal life (ET)
  • Direct effect of oxygen on smooth muscle cells
331
Q

Outline the growth of the lungs throughout childhood.

A
  • Lung volume increases x30
  • Airways increase in length and width x2-3 by symmetrical growth
  • Dysanaptic (mismatched) growth during early period - alveoli grow more than airways (airways are relatively large in infants)
  • Structural elements of the wall increase
  • Alveoli increase in number till early adolescent, size and complexity to increase surface area
  • Arteries, veins and capillaries increase as well
332
Q

What is the pulmonary circulation?

A

Blood pumped from the right ventricle which circulates the lungs allowing oxygen to diffuse into it and associate with haemoglobin, and then enters the left atrium.

333
Q

How does the pulmonary circulation differ from the systemic circulation?

A
  • Arteries: Pulmonary arteries are smaller, have less smooth muscle and a relatively larger lumen
  • Ventricular thickness: Right ventricle wall is much linner
  • Circuit length/distance: Pulmonary circulation travels a short distance
  • Pressure: Much lower pressure systemic
334
Q

What is the difference in pressure in the pulmonary circulation and systemic?

A

Pulsatile pressures (mmHg) -

  • Aorta: 120/80
  • Pulmonary artery: 25/8
335
Q

Outline the differences in cardiac output, volume, mean arterial pressure, pressure gradient and resistance.

A
Systemic:
Cardiac Output: 5 L/min
Volume: 4.5 L
Mean arterial pressure: 93
Pressure gradient: 92
Resistance: 18.4
Pulmonary:
Cardiac output: 5 L/min
Volume: 0.5 L
Mean arterial pressure: 13
Pressure gradient: 9
Resistance: 1.8
336
Q

What are the functions of the pulmonary circulation?

A
  1. Gas exchange (oxygen delivery, carbon dioxide)
  2. Metabolism of vasoactive substances: ACE enzyme expressed which reacts to form Angiotensin II and breaks down bradykinin
  3. Filtration of blood: Filters the circulation for emboli to prevent damage to the heart, brain and other organs. Small emboli will get eliminated in the pulmonary microcirculation. Larger emboli may get trapped in microcirculation causing local perfusion obstruction or if it gets through then potential sudden death
337
Q

What are pulmonary shunts?

A

Pulmonary shunt: Anything that bypasses the exchange surface

  1. Bronchial circulation: Blood exits heart through aorta, then travels around bronchial circulation then re enters into the left atrium
  2. Foetal circulation: Foramen ovale allows blood to pass between the left and right atria. Ductus arteriosus allows blood to flow from the pulmonary artery to the descending aorta
  3. Congenital defect: E.g. ventricular defect allowing mixing of blood
338
Q

What is the effect of increasing cardiac output on pulmonary circulation?

A
  • An increased CO and therefore MAP. This should cause impaired pulmonary function because of oedema from increased fluid leakage. But it doesn’t because:
  • An increase in CO will cause pulmonary artery distension and increased perfusion of hypo-perfused beds so there is a negligible change in MAP. There is minimal fluid leakage and no oedema.
339
Q

What is the 3 zone model of ventilation?

A
  • Zones 1-3 (1 is at apex) in the lung

- Due to resistance and gravity, Zone 3 is the most perfused

340
Q

What is the effect of increasing ventilation on pulmonary circulation?

A
  • Inspiration compresses alveolar vessels, and expiration compresses extra-alveolar vessels.
  • During expiration, the pressure in the pleural cavity is high so extra-alveolar vessels are compressed (increased resistance), and alveoli are collapsed so the alveolar vessels are stretched.
  • At functional residual capacity there is no compression
  • During inspiration, the alveoli expand compressing alveolar vessels (increased resistance). and low pressure in the pleural cavity mean the extra-alveolar vessels are stretched.
341
Q

What is the effect of hypoxaemia on the pulmonary circulation?

A
  • Response to hypoxia is vasoconstriction
  • Hypoxia causes closure of O2-sensitive K+ channels
  • Reduced K+ efflux
  • Increased membrane potential
  • Membrane depolarisation causes Ca2+ channels in vascular smooth muscle
  • Constriction
342
Q

When is the response of pulmonary circulation to hypoxaemia beneficial and detrimental?

A

Beneficial: During foetal development

  • Blood follows path of least resistance
  • High-resistance pulmonary circuit means increased flow through shunts
  • First breath increases alveolar PO2 and dilates pulmonary vessels

Detrimental: Chronic obstruction lung diseases

  • Reduced alveolar ventilation, and air trapping
  • Increased resistance in pulmonary circuit
  • Pulmonary hypertension
  • Right ventricular hypertrophy
  • Congestive heart failure
343
Q

How is pulmonary fluid balance maintained?

A
  • Plasma hydrostatic pressure pushes fluid out of the vessel into the lungs
  • Interstitial hydrostatic pushes fluid into the tissues (but it non-existent in healthy people)
  • Plasma oncotic pressure forces fluid down the gradient into the vessel due to plasma proteins
  • Interstitial oncotic pressure forces fluid into the tissues

Net: Small net gain of fluid in the tissues.
Lymph vessels will drain the fluid and there will be no effect on the lungs.

344
Q

What can lead to pulmonary oedema?

A

Leaking of fluid exceeds the maximal rate of clearance by the lymph.

  • Mitral valve stenosis: Increased plasma hydrostatic pressure
  • Hypoproteinaemia: Plasma oncotic pressure reduced so less fluid drawn into vessel
  • Infection: Protiens in interstium, so larger interstitial oncotic pressure
  • Cancer: Blockage of lymphatic vessels
345
Q

Outline the features of sleep.

A
  • Two types: Non-REM sleep (Stage 1,2,3,4) and REM sleep cycle through all of them
  • 90 minute cycle, majority in deep sleep then REM sleep.
  • Usually wake up during REM sleep (when you’re more likely to dream)
346
Q

How is breathing controlled during sleep? Outline its features.

A
  • Reflex/automatic through the Brainstem
  • In the Pre-Botzinger complex (in the rostral ventral respiratory group)
  • Can perpetuate respiratory rhythm independent of the body
  • Close to CSF (feedback)
347
Q

In what ways can breathing be controlled?

A
  • Reflex/automatic through the Brainstem
  • Voluntary/behavioural through the Motor cortex
  • Emotional through the Limbic system
348
Q

What changes occur to the respiratory system when you fall alseep?

A
  • Minute ventilation decreases because tidal volume decreases
  • PCO2 increases by about 0.5kPa which is ESSENTIAL to breathing (stimulates chemoreceptors)
  • If CO2 doesn’t increase (i.e. goes below apnoeic threshold) there will be central apnoea
  • During sleep the chemoreceptor sensitivity to CO2 decreases
  • If healthy, the decreased ventilation doesn’t affect the SaO2
  • If diseased e.g. COPD, the change will lead to an even lower SaO2 and accumulation of CO2
349
Q

How does the upper airway change in sleep?

A
  • There is reduced upper airway muscle activity during sleep (Genioglossus and levator palatini)
  • Extra luminal pressure (ELP) e.g. gravity and adipose tissue, and negative intra luminal ressure (ILP) i.e. inspiration can result in occlusion of the phalangeal airway during sleep. (obstructive sleep apnoea)
  • Snoring is caused by turbulent airflow passing through the vocal cords due to narrower airways
350
Q

Outline the features of obstructive sleep apnoea.

A
  • Occlusion of the airway and cessation of breathing during sleep
  • Increasing prevalence
  • Associated with increased adipose tissue around the airway
  • Cycle: sleep -> relaxation of muscles -> apnoea -> arousal -> patent airway -> increased ventilation -> sleep
  • Often don’t know it is happening
  • Feel fatigued through day, more likely to eat unhealthily which will worsen the cycle
351
Q

What are the differences between central and obstructive sleep apnoea?

A
  • Obstructive: mechanical problem, more common, still effort to breathe but no airflow
  • Central: low chemo-sensitivity possibly from birth (congenital hyperventilation syndrome), no effort to breathe
352
Q

What cardio-respiratory diseases are exacerbated by sleep-related changes in breathing?

A
  • COPD: Already low SaO2 means the decreased ventilation leads to accumulation CO2. Feel sluggish, possible headache when they wake up.
  • Heart failure: 30-40%. Some patients hyperventilate due to pulmonary oedema which means the PaCO2 is low and therefore below the apnoeic threshold when asleep. This means they are likely to suffer central sleep apnoea. Prognosis is worse if this is the case.
353
Q

What is respiratory quotient?

A
  • RQ is the ratio between Carbon dioxide production and oxygen consumption on the muscles
  • Above 1 there is anaerobic respiration
354
Q

What is the respiratory exchange ratio?

A
  • Ratio between Carbon dioxide produced and oxygen consumption at the mouth
  • Measurable
  • Should be equal to RQ in a steady state
355
Q

What is a metabolic equivalent of task (MET)?

A

Physiological measure of the energy cost (and oxygen consumption) of an activity

Seated and at rest the average sized human requires: 3.5ml/min/kg of oxygen

356
Q

What is the muscle’s response to exercise?

A
  • At onset of exercise: stored energy (ATP and creatine phosphate) used for muscular contraction
  • Inorganic phosphates, ADP and creatine drive oxidative phosphorylation
  • Krebs cycle and glycolysis increase
  • Oxygen consumption at the muscle (QO2) increases
  • Initially CO2 production only slightly increases (buffered as HCO30) but then rises to match O2 consumption
357
Q

What is O2 debt?

A
  • Amount of oxygen that must be taken in after exercise to repay the O2 deficit at the start of exercise
358
Q

What is the cardiovascular response to exercise?

A
  • Increased heart rate (220 minus age is the maximum)
  • Increased stroke volume, till maximum then a fall due to reduced time to fill between heart beats
  • Increase cardiac output (from increased volume first, then increased frequency)
  • Cardiac output increases by 4-7 fold, and O2 consumption 10-15 fold
  • Mixed venous saturation typically about 75-80%
  • Up to 85% of oxygen can be extracted during exercise (increased from normal)
  • VO2 = Cardiac output x (arterial - venous)O2 content
359
Q

What is the respiratory system’s response to exercise?

A
  • Increased ventilation rate (initially from increased tidal volume about 1/2 of vital capacity, then breathing rate)
  • Good ventilation to perfusion matching
  • Ventilation rate closely related to VCO2
  • Aerobic metabolism: RQ rises towards 1
  • Anaerobic metabolism RQ rises above 1. Blood becomes acidotic, at musclular level this means a small increase in dissociation of oxygen at the same PO2
  • Lactate -> H+ ions which is buffered by bicarbonate. Increased CO2 -> increased ventilation but when H+>HCO3- then there is hyperventilation
360
Q

What is the anaerobic threshold and ventilatory compensation point?

A

Anaerobic threshold: Point where RQ>1 and anaerobic respiration starts

Ventilatory compensation point: Where H+>HCO3- and acidosis drives hyperventilation

361
Q

What are the features of a cardiopulmonary exercise test?

A
  • Objective measure of exercise capacity (for diagnosis, test of fitness etc)
  • Measurements: ECG, BP O2 stats, ABG analysis, spirometry
  • VO2 peak/plateau is the maximum O2 consumption for the test
  • O2 pulse = VO2 / heart rate. Plateau indicates decrease in stroke volume and heart disease
  • RER (ratio of VCO2 and VO2 in mouth)
  • Anaerobic threshold: excessive CO2 production against VO2
  • Breathing reserve. Difference in observed maximum ventilation and maximum voluntary ventilation (40xFEV1)
  • End-tidal CO2 and O2. Rise during exercise and fall in hyperventilation
362
Q

What is the RQ for different sources?

A

(CO2:O2 ratio)

  • Glucose 1
  • Protein 0.82
  • Lipids 0.7