Respiratory Quiz Flashcards

1
Q

The respiratory system experiences the following changes with the natural aging process:
A. Elasticity
B. Residual volume, muscle mass, and elasticity decreases
C. Chest wall increases in diameter an residual volume increases.
D. Elasticity, residual volume, and muscle mass increases
E. Elasticity, muscle mass and vascular resistance increases

A

C. Chest wall increases in diameter an residual volume increases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Indicators of respiratory inadequacy include:
A. weight gain, poor skin turgor, and dry brittle hair
B. weight loss, decreased endurance, and O2 saturation less than 93%
C. O2 saturation greater than 95%, club fingernails, and oral abrasions
D. barrel chest, weight gain, and poor distention
E. dry brittle hair, oral abrasions, and poor distention

A

B. weight loss, decreased endurance, and O2 saturation less than 93%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Patient cigarette smoking history is measured by the following formula:
A. number of cigarettes smoked per day X number of years smoked
B. number of cigarette packs smoked per day X number of years smoked
C. number of cigarettes smoked per day X number of months smoked
D. number of cigarettes smoked per day X 30 days per month

A

B. number of cigarette packs smoked per day X number of years smoked

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Prevention of pulmonary embolism in postoperative patients include the following nursing interventions:
A. assist with early ambulation
B. educate patient on use of incentives spirometer
C. educate patient to perform foot pump exercises
D. encourage fluids
E. all of the above

A

E. all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Noninvasive measurements of the respiratory system function include:
A. pulse oximetry, PFTs, chest x-ray, sputum test
B. arterial blood gases, Paul’s oximetry, TB skin test
C. CT scan, TB skin test, VQ scan, arterial blood gas
D. sputum test, PFTs, bronchoscopy
E. bronchoscopy, Thoracentesis, pulmonary function test

A

A. pulse oximetry, PFTs, chest x-ray, sputum test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

You are preparing a patient for pulmonary function test (PFTs) to be administered in the morning. Preparing the patient includes:
A. NPO after midnight, informed consent, continuous pulse oximetry monitoring
B. sputum culture, informed consent, continuous pulse oximetry monitoring
C. clear fluids until two hours prior to procedure, informed consent, post op monitoring
D. none of the above

A

D. none of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

You are preparing a patient for a Bronchoscopy procedure to be done in the morning. Preparing the patient includes:
A. NPO after midnight, informed consent, post op monitoring with pulse oximetry
B. sputum culture, informed consent, continuous pulse oximetry monitoring
C. clear fluids until two hours prior to the procedure, informed consent, pulse oximetry
D. none of the above

A

A. NPO after midnight, informed consent, post op monitoring with pulse oximetry

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
Your patient has just returned from radiology. You check on your patient and find that he is short of breath. You quickly assess his oxygen tubing and find that it is hooked up to the wrong flowmeter. You know what color the correct flowmeter for oxygen is:
A.	Yellow
B.	White
C.	Black
D.	Green
E.	Blue
A

D. Green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A health care workers purified protein derivative (PPD) test results are positive. Previously the results have been negative. This positive PPD indicates:
A. exposure to TB
B. the presence of active tuberculosis (TB) disease
C. previous vaccination with baciallus Calmette–Guerin (BCG)
D. all allergic reactions to the PPD serum
D. all of the above

A

A. exposure to TB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The nurse notes vigorous bubbling in the water seal chamber of a chest drainage system. Which of the following actions should the nurse take to correct the situation?
A. Examine the entire system and tubing for air leaks
B. lower the level of suction
C. nothing vigorous bubbling is expected
D. ask the patient to cough up forcefully
E. nothing, vigorous bubbling is normal

A

A. Examine the entire system and tubing for air leaks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is airflow limitation caused by any of the following three conditions:
A. asthma, tuberculosis, chronic bronchitis
B. chronic bronchitis, asthma, pneumonia
C. tuberculosis, asbestosis, asthma
D. asthma, chronic bronchitis, emphysema
E. emphysema, asthma, asbestosis

A

D. asthma, chronic bronchitis, emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
Patients with Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease who are CO2 retainers should never have their oxygen set above:
A.	0.5 L
B.	1 L
C.	1.5 L
D.	2L
A

D. 2L

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

To prevent hypoxia during tracheal suctioning, the nurse should:
A. pre-oxygenate the patient, suction no longer than 10 seconds, and no more than three times
B. pre-and post-oxygenate the patient, suction no longer than 10 seconds, and no more than four times
C. post-oxygenate the patient, suction no longer than 10 seconds, and no more than three times
D. pre-oxygenate the patient and use a catheter of the same size as the stoma
E. none of the above

A

A. pre-oxygenate the patient, suction no longer than 10 seconds, and no more than three times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A patient has smoked three packs of cigarettes a day for 15 years. The nurse will document this patient smoking history as:
A. “Smoked three packs of cigarettes a day for 15 years”
B. “Smoked 60 cigarettes a day for 15 years”
C. “Pack years: five years”
D. “Pack years: 45 years”

A

D. “Pack years: 45 years”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
For patients who have experienced a facial trauma, the first action of the nurse is to:
A.	apply a sterile gauze
B.	apply pressure over bleeding site
C.	maintain a patent airway
D.	assess for allergies
E.	ask the patient how it happened
A

C. maintain a patent airway

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Patients who elect to have an UPP (uvulopalatopharyngeoplasty) surgical procedure for sleep apnea will have the following removed:
A. tonsils and adenoids
B. uvula and portions of the upper soft palate
C. uvula and tonsils
D adenoids, tonsils, and uvula
E. portions of the upper soft palate

A

B. uvula and portions of the upper soft palate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
During recovery from rhinoplasty, the nurse observes that the patient is swallowing repeatedly. This may indicate:
A.	dry mouth due to anesthesia
B.	over secretion of the salivary glands
C.	posterior nasal bleeding
D.	edema of the surgical site
E.	excessive thirst
A

C. posterior nasal bleeding

18
Q

Complications of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease include:
A. hypoxemia, acidosis, respiratory infections
B. hypoxia, alkalosis, pneumonia
C. hyperemia, alkalosis, respiratory infections, cardiac dysrhythmias
D. cardiac dysrhythmias, alkalosis, hematochezia
E. none of the above

A

A. hypoxemia, acidosis, respiratory infections

19
Q

Your patient has had a thoracotomy for a wedge resection and has two chest tubes in place to drain excess fluids. During your nursing assessment you palpate small, crackling bumps under the skin near the chest tube insertion site. You know you will need to call the surgeon because:
A. Air is leaking into the subcutaneous tissue
B. fluid is leaking into the subcutaneous tissue
C. this indicates pockets of serosanguingeous drainage
D. this may be due to retained pieces of surgical sponge
E. none of the above

A

A. Air is leaking into the subcutaneous tissue

20
Q

The “classic” clinical manifestation of pulmonary embolus include:
A. right sided pain with low oxygen saturation
B. sudden shortness of breath and chest pain
C. sternal pain and elevated blood pressure
D. decreased level of consciousness and crackles
E. none of the above

A

B. sudden shortness of breath and chest pain

21
Q

Your patient has COPD. To teach him pursed lip breathing, the nurse should instruct him to inhale slowly through his:
A. mouth, then exhale quickly to pursed lips
B. nose, then exhale more slowly through pursed lips
C. mouth, then make his exhalation last three times as long as inhalation
D. knows, making his exhalation last three times as long as his inhalation

A

B. nose, then exhale more slowly through pursed lips

22
Q

A patient recently diagnosed with peripherally located lung cancer reports she is experiencing severe chest pain upon inspiration. Based on the nurses prior knowledge, the reason for this pain is understood to be:
A. the tumors compression of the artery
B. bilateral pleural effusion
C. hypoxia related to impaired air exchange
D. all of the above

A

B. bilateral pleural effusion

23
Q

Cystic fibrosis is a common genetic disorder among Caucasians. The underlying problem with CF is that the:
A. transport of oxygen into the cells is blocked by retained carbon dioxide
B. transport of potassium into the cells is blocked
C. transport of chloride into the cells is blocked
D. transport of glucose into the cells is blocked by insulin
E. transport of potassium into the cells is blocked by calcium

A

C. transport of chloride into the cells is blocked

24
Q
Nonsurgical management of patients with cystic fibrosis include the following:
A.	nutritional management
B.	oxygen therapy
C.	physical therapy
D.	A and B
E.	all of the above
A

D. A & B

25
Q
Legionnaires disease is caused by the legionella pneumophila bacteria and thrives in the following type of system:
A.	furnace air ducts
B.	water reservoirs
C.	banquet buffets
D.	none of the above
E.	all of the above
A

B. water reservoirs

26
Q
Anthrax is caused by bacillus anthracis which is commonly found in our environment. The most deadly form of anthrax infection is:
A.	Cutaneous
B.	Gastrointestinal
C.	Inhalation
D.	none of the above
A

C. Inhalation

27
Q

A patient with a history of asthma is having shortness of breath. The nurse discovers that the peak flow meter indicates a peek expiratory flow (PEF) reading is in the red zone. The nurse should immediately:
A. repeat the PDF reading to verify the results
B. take the patient’s vital signs
C. administer a rescue inhaler
D. notify the patient’s prescriber

A

C. administer a rescue inhaler

28
Q
A patient is receiving treatment for asthma within albuterol (Proventil) inhaler. The nurse teaches the patient about potential side effects including: (select all that apply)
A.	Tachycardia
B.	Sedation
C.	temporary dyspnea
D.	nervousness
E.	headache
A

A. Tachycardia
D. nervousness
E. headache

29
Q
In an elderly patient, the first typical sign of  hypoxia is:
A.	Confusion
B.	Restlessness
C.	Anxiety
D.	Dyspnea
E.	Pallor
A

A. Confusion

30
Q

You are measuring your patient’s vital signs when she asks you, “What is a normal breath rate.” You respond:
A. “The normal range varies by age that a typical adult rate is 10 to 12 breaths per minute.”
B. “The normal range varies by age but the typical adult rate is 16 to 20 breaths per minute”
C. “The normal range varies by age but the typical adult rate is 10 to 24 breaths per minute.”
D. “The normal range varies by age but the typical adult rate is 14 to 20 breaths per minute.”
E. “The normal range varies by age but the typical adult rate is 20 to 30 breaths per minute.”

A

D. “The normal range varies by age but the typical adult rate is 14 to 20 breaths per minute.”

31
Q
Which one of the following adventitious breath sounds are high-pitched, musical, and whistle like?
A.	Rhonchi
B.	Rales
C.	Sibilant wheezes
D.	Sonerous wheezes
E.	pleural friction rub
A

C. Sibilant wheezes

32
Q
Which one of the following anti-tubercular medication turns body fluids orange in color?
A.	Ethambutol
B.	Isonaticid
C.	Rifampin
D.	Pyrazinamide
E.	Streptomycin
A

C. Rifampin

33
Q
Which of the following mucolytic or expectorant is used to reduce the viscosity of respiratory secretions and is a medication used to treat acetaminophen (Tylenol) overdose?
A.	Guaifenesin
B.	Potassium Iodide
C.	Acetyeysteine (Mucomyst)
D.	Dornase Alfa ( Pulmozyme)
A

C. Acetyeysteine (Mucomyst)

34
Q
Which of the following antihistamines are 2nd generation antihistamines and are less sedated than 1st generation antihistamines? (Select all that apply)
A.	Diphenhydramine (Benadryl)
B.	Promethazine (Phenergan)
C.	Chalorpheniramine (Chlor–Trimcton)
D.	Cetirizine (Zyrtec)
E.	Fexofenadine (Allegra)
A

D. Cetirizine (Zyrtec)

E. Fexofenadine (Allegra)

35
Q
Antihistamines are used for the relief of allergies and which of the following? (Select all that apply)
A.	Urticaria
B.	relief of nausea and vomiting
C.	adjunct to analgesics
D.	sedation
E.	all of the above
A

E. all of the above

36
Q
36)	Common side effects of decongestants such as Pseudoephedrine (Sudafed), Oxymetazoline (Afrin, Tristan, Vicks Sinex), and Phenylephrine (Neo–Synephrine) include: (select all that apply)
A.	tachycardia and nervousness
B.	restlessness and insomnia
C.	sedation and diarrhea
D.	bradycardia and dehydration
A

A. tachycardia and nervousness

B. restlessness and insomnia

37
Q
SABAs (Short Acting Beta-2 Adreneregic Agonists) are used as rescue inhalers. Which of the following bronchial dilator medications are SABAs? (Select all that apply)
A.	Albuterol (Proventil)
B.	Epinephrine (Primatene Mist)
C.	Formoterol (Aforadil)
D.	Theophylline (Theo–dur)
E.	Aminophylline( Truphyelline)
A

A. Albuterol (Proventil)

B. Epinephrine (Primatene Mist)

38
Q

For a patient’s who have moderate persistent asthma, you can expect to see them on inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) and a LABA ( Long-Acting Beta-2 Agonist) such as (select all that apply):
A. Budesonide (Pulmicort) and salmeterol (Serevent Diskus)
B. Fluticasone (Flovent) and albuterol (Proventil)
C. Budesonide/formoterol (Symbicort)
D. Triamcinolone (Azmacort) and Theophylline (Theo–dur)

A

A. Budesonide (Pulmicort) and salmeterol (Serevent Diskus)

C. Budesonide/formoterol (Symbicort)

39
Q

An arterial blood gas(ABG) report on a patient has come back with the following values:
pH 7.30, PaCO2 35, HCO3 20 .
What is the interpretation of these values:
A. respiratory acidosis
B. metabolic acidosis
C. respiratory alkalosis
D. metabolic alkalosis

A

B. metabolic acidosis

40
Q

The arterial blood gas (ABG) report on your next patient reveals the following values:
pH 7.49, PaCO2 29, HCO3 22
What is the interpretation of these values:
A. respiratory acidosis
B. metabolic acidosis
C. respiratory alkalosis
D. metabolic alkalosis

A

C. respiratory alkalosis