Respiratory infections Flashcards

1
Q

What is coryza? viral or bacterial? spread by? what organisms?

A

Common cold:mild fever/sore throat

  • viral infection nasal passages: adenovirus, rhinovirus, RSV
  • spread by droplets and formites
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2
Q

What is acute sinusitis usually preceded by? what does it cause? viral or bacteral? treatment?

A
  • Preceded by a common cold
  • purulent nasal discharge
  • viral aetiology
  • self limiting: 10 days
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3
Q

What is diptheria? caused by? what is characteristic? other clinical features?

A
  • infection caused by bacterium Corynebacterium diphtheriae.
  • Signs and symptoms may vary from mild to severe
  • life threatening due to toxin production
  • characteristic ‘pseudomembrane’
  • sore throat/fever/barking cough/swollen neck due to lymph nodes
  • vaccination in UK
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4
Q

Acute bronchitis:

  • preceded by?
  • clinical features?
  • treatment?
A
  • preceded by common cold
  • productive cough, minority have fever, may have transient wheeze
  • supportive tx
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5
Q

What are the clinical features (5) of an acute exacerbation of COPD? What clinical signs are seen?(5)

A

Usually preceded by upper respiratory tract infection

Increased sputum production

Increased sputum purulence

More wheezy

Breathless

OE:
Respiratory Distress
Wheeze
Coarse crackles
May be cyanosed
In advanced disease – ankle oedema
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6
Q

What is the management for an acute exacerbation of COPD? when to admit?

A
  • Antibiotic: 1st line amox. 500mg TDS for 5 days, 2nd line Doxy. 200mg OD for 1st day and then 100mg OD for further 4 days
  • Bronchodilator inhalers
  • Short course of steroids in some cases

Admit if:

  • evidence resp. failure
  • not coping at home
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7
Q

What is the CURB65 severity score?

A
C  	New onset of confusion
U  	Urea >7
R  	Respiratory rate >30/min
B  	Blood pressure Systolic <90  OR  Diastolic <61
65 	age 65 years or older

Score 1 for each

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8
Q

What is the treatment for community acquired pneumonia?

A

CURB65:
0-2: amox. 1g TDS IV/PO 5days or doxy 200mg day 1 then 100mg OD (IV clarith. if NBM)

3-5 (severe): Co-amox IV 1.2mg TDS + doxy. 100mg PO BD

if in ICU:
Co-amoxiclav IV 1.2g tds + Clarithromycin IV 500mg bd

Severe - If penicillin allergic: IV Levofloxacin 500mg bd

Step down to Doxycycline 100mg bd for all
patients with severe CAP

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9
Q

What are 3 clinical complications of pneumonia?

A
  • respiratory failure
  • pleural effusion
  • empyema
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10
Q

What are the aetiology for:
Classical flu
Flu-like illnesses
Bacterial cause - is this a primary cause for flu?

A

Classical:

  • influenza A
  • influenza B

Flu-like:

  • parainfluenza
  • many others

Haemophilus influenza:
-not a primary cause of flue but may be a secondary invader

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11
Q

What is the transmission of flu?

A

Droplets/resp. secretions

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12
Q

What are the four complications of flu?

A

Primary influenzal pneumonia:

  • seen most during pandemic years
  • can be disease of young adults
  • high mortality

Secondary bacterial pneumonia:
-more common in infants/elderly disabled/pre-existing disease/pregnant women

bronchitis

otitis media

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13
Q

What is influenza infection during pregnancy assoc. with? (4)

A
  • perinatal mortality
  • prematurity
  • smaller neonatal size
  • lower birth weight
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14
Q

Flu treatment

A

supportive, paracetamol, fluid, bed rest

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15
Q

How can you detect influenza virus?

A

PCR:
-nasopharyngeal swabs in virus transport medium

Antibody detection:

  • other hospitals
  • often retrospective
  • may need paired acute and convalescent bloods
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16
Q

What are the main differences between the killed flu vaccine and the live attenuated vaccine:

  • what do they contain?
  • who recieves either vaccine?
  • administered?
A

Killed vaccine
currently contains 2 different influenza A viruses and one influenza B virus
given annually to adult patients at risk of complications
given to health care workers
Given to children aged 6 months to 2 years at risk of complications

Live attenuated vaccine
Also contains 3 viruses
More effective than killed vaccine in children aged 2-17
Offered this year to ALL children aged 2-5, and all primary school children
Administered intra-nasally

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17
Q

How effective is flu vaccine?

A

no more than 70% effective at preventing clinical disease

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18
Q

Are antivirals ever used after a contact with flu?

A

-rare

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19
Q

What are the usual bacterial organisms found for:

  • mild/moderate pneumonia
  • severe pneumonia

What is important to remember for pneumonia post flu?

A

Mild/moderate:

  • strep. pneumoniae
  • haemophilus influenzae
  • staph. aureus

Severe pneumonia:
as above but possible coliforms and atypicals such as:
m. catarrhalis, Mycoplasma pneumoniae, Legionella pneumophilia, Chlamydophila pneumoniae & Chlamydophila psittaci

Remember Staph aureus
pneumonia post influenza and the PVL producing strains of Staph aureus that can produce severe pneumonia in children and young adults especially

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20
Q

What bacterial organisms can be seen in hospital acquired pneumonia?

A

-strep. pneumoniae,
Haemophilus influenzae
and coliforms.
Legionella can be hospital acquired.

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21
Q

What coliforms can cause pneumonia? what are the risk factors for this?

A
Klebsiella
    Escherichia coli
    Enterobacter
    Proteus
    Pseudomonas aeruginosa
  • debilitated
  • chronically ill
  • alcoholism
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22
Q

What type of pneumonia is seen in those with immune defects and anatomical abnormalities (4)

A

Opportunistic pathogens

-Fungal pneumonia: Candida spp. causing candidiasis.
Aspergillus spp. causing aspergillosis.
Mucor spp. causing mucormycosis.
Cryptococcus neoformans causing cryptococcosis.
recurrent pneumonia
Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia (PJP), formerly known as Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia (PCP) - one of the most frequent and severe opportunistic infections in people with weakened immune systems.

Protozoa:
cryptosporidia, toxoplasma

Virus:
cytomegalovirus - CMV

Opportunistic bacteria (as well as virulent infection with common organism e.g. TB):
Mycobacterium avium intracellulare
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23
Q

How can you diagnose community acquire pneumonia?

A

Sputum culture - purulence/viral PCR

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24
Q

Which viruses can cause community acquire pneumonia?

A
Flu A/B
Rhinovirus
RSV
Human metapneumovirus (hMPV)
Parainfluenza 1-4
Adenovirus
Coronaviru
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25
Q

Describe the clinical features of legionella pneumonia

A

Flu like illness which may progress to a severe pneumonia, with mental confusion, acute renal failure and GI symptoms.
Mortality 5-30%

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26
Q

How is legionella spread?

A

water droplets

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27
Q

What are the risk factors for legionella (2)?

A
  • exposure of contaminated aerosolised water

- impaired immunity: >55yo, diabetes, smoking, malignancy, altered immunity

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28
Q

How is legionella pneumonia diagnosed?

A

-Legionella urinary antigen
Detects serogroup 1 only

-Culture
Slow on selective media

-Paired serology
Rise in titres

Now PCR available direct from Sputum

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29
Q

What is the antibiotic treatment for legionella pneumonia?

A
  • clarythromycin, erythromycin

- quinolones (e.g. levofloxacin)

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30
Q

What is the treatment for severe vs non-severe aspiration pneumonia?

A

Severe:
-IV amox + met + gent
(if penicillin allergic change amox to co-trimoxazole)
step down to:
PO co-trim. + metronidazole (total IV/PO 7 days)

Non-severe:
-PO amox + metronidazole 5 days

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31
Q

What organisms can cause exac. of COPD?

A

Haemophilus influenzae & Moraxella catarrhalis (gram -ve coccus), Streptococcus pneumoniae (gram +ve diplococci), Gram-negatives & others

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32
Q

What is the treatment for COPD exac.?

A

Only treat if increase in sputum purulence or new CXR changes or pneumonia

Empiric treatment as per NHST policy
1st line Amoxicillin 500 mg TDS (5 days)
2nd line Doxycycline 200mg D1 > 100 mg D2-5

Aim to cover in 1st instance H. influenzae, M. catarrhalis & S. pneumoniae

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33
Q

What is the diagnosis for pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

BAL > Sputum > Gargle
Microscopy: Immunofluorescence
PCR

34
Q

What is the difference between pneumocystis pneumonia in a patient with HIV vs non-HIV

A

General: fever, dry cough, shortness of breath, and fatigue

HIV: sub-acute, low grade fever > severe pneumonia
Non-HIV: more acute, higher fever

35
Q

What is the treatment for pneumocystis pneumonia?

A

co-trimoxazole

36
Q

what is the difference of aspergillus pneumonia in immunocompromised vs immunocompetent patients?

A

Immunocompromised/suppressed patients
Severe pneumonia and invasive disease.

Immunocompetent patients:
Localised pulmonary infection
Aspergilloma (fungus ball) in pre-existing chest cavities

37
Q

what is the diagnosis and treatment of aspergillus pneumonia?

A

Diagnosis
BAL ideally: Fungal culture (PCR)

Tissue: Histopathology

Treatment

  • Amphotericin B
  • Voriconazole
  • Surgery
38
Q

What type of organism is tuberculosis?

A

-acid alcohol fast bacilli with a thick waxy coat

39
Q

TB clinical features respiratory (7)

A
LT cough
Chest pain
Sputum +/- haemoptysis
Weakness or fatigue
Weight loss
Fever &amp; chills
Night sweats
40
Q

What is the diagnosis of TB?

A
Microscopy of sputum/tissue
Culture on selective media - slow
PCR - fast (1-2hrs) but expensive
(immune reaction)
Ziehl-Neelson stain: dye red - cheap
41
Q

What is formed when someone is exposed to TB? Do patients remain well or not?

A

Granuloma is formed - host walls off infection (type IV hypersensitivity)

  • 90% remain well
  • 50% clear TB spontaneously
  • 5% active TB
  • 5% reactivity of latent disease
42
Q

What is heard on auscultation in TB infection?

A

-upper zone crackles

43
Q
TB clinical features:
Meningeal
GI
Spinal
Pericardial
Renal
Joints
Adrenal
other?
A

Meningeal:

  • headache
  • drowsy
  • fits

GI:

  • pain
  • bowel obstruction
  • perforation
  • peritonitis

Spinal:

  • pain
  • deformity
  • paraplegia

Pericardial:
-tamponade

Renal:
-renal failure

Septic arthritis:
-cold monoarthritis of large joints (never inject steroids into a solitary arthritic joint)

Adrenal:
-hypoadrenalism

Other:

  • lymphadenopathy
  • cold abscess (collections of pus without pain and acute inflamm.)
44
Q

What is seen on histology for TB?

A
  • Multinucleate giant cell granulomas
  • Caseating necrosis
  • Sometimes visible mycobacteria
45
Q

What are they characteristics on x-ray for TB? (5)

A
Upper lobe predominance
Cavity formation
Tissue destruction
Scarring and shrinkage
Heals with calcification
46
Q

What is the treatment for TB?

A

RIPE then drop the PE

Two months of
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

Then four months of
Rifampicin
Isoniazid

47
Q

side effects rifampicin?

A

Colours urine and all bodily fluids orange
Is a potent inducer of cytochrome enzymes
Rapid breakdown of all steroid molecules including hormonal contraception.
Similar breakdown of opiate analgesics and many other drugs

48
Q

Side effects ethambutol?

A

Ethambutol can cause optic neuritis

49
Q

What is the criteria for latent TB?

A

No evidence of active TB

  • Symptoms
  • X-ray
  • Culture

Evidence of previous TB infection

  • History of TB prior to 1960
  • Calcification on x-ray
  • Exposure to High Prevalence area
50
Q

What are the two tests for previous TB exposure?

A

Interferon Gamma Release Assay
( Blood test )
Detects previous exposure to TB

Mantoux ( tuberculin ) test.
( Skin test )
Detects previous exposure to TB and BCG

51
Q

What are the differences between IGRA and mantoux test?
Visit number
sensitivity/specificity
Does it require immunocompetence?

A
TST:
2 visits
Operator dependent
False negatives
False positives
Type 4 hypersensitivity reaction - has to be immunocompetent
IGRA
1 visit
Laboratory environment
High sensitivity
Ignores BCG
52
Q

What is the treatment for latent TB?

A

Treat or leave it alone
However if you want to give anti-TNF drugs (as this can cause reactivation)

6 months of isoniazid
or
3 months rifampicin + isoniazid

Caution: both drugs are associated with disturbance of liver function. This is more frequent in women.

53
Q

What can cause reactivation TB?

A

-HIV
(all TB cases offered HIV test, all HIV cases offered CXR)
-steroids
-immunosupressant drugs

54
Q

Risk factors for pleural infection (6)

A
diabetes mellitus 
immunosuppression including corticosteroids
gastro-oesophageal reflux
alcohol misuse 
intravenous drug abuse
55
Q

What are the three different types of pleural infection?

A

Simple parapneumonic effusion
Complicated parapneumonic effusion
Empyema- pus in the pleural space

56
Q

What is a complicated parapneumonic effusion?

A

+ve G stain, pH <7.2, low glucose, septations, loculations

57
Q

Treatment for pleural infection

A
Simple effusion = none of the above may be treated with antibiotics alone but may need drainage later on if things change
Large effusion = chest drainage
V small (<1cm) effusions may be left untapped
58
Q

What are the four pathological complications of pneumonia?

A
  • organisation (fibrous scarring)
  • Abscess
  • Bronchiectasis
  • Empyema (susupect if slow to resolve pneumonia)
59
Q

What is bronchopneumonia?

A

Infection starting in airways and spreading to adjacent alveolar lung
Most often seen in the context of pre-existing disease
-COPD
-Cadiac failure (elderly)
-complication of viral infection (flu)
-aspiration pneumonia

60
Q

What does abscess cause and when is this usually seen?

A

Localised collection of pus
Tumour-like
Chronic malaise and fever
Context - aspiration (vomiting/lowered conscious level/pharyngeal pouch)

61
Q

What is bronchiectasis?

A
  • Abnormal fixed dilatation of the bronchi
  • Usually due to fibrous scarring following infection (pneumonia, tuberculosis, cystic fibrosis)
  • Also seen with chronic obstruction (tumour)
  • Dilated airways accumulate purulent secretions
  • involved bronchi are dilated, inflamed and easily collapsable
  • airflow obstructions
  • impaired clearance of secretions
62
Q

What are the primary and secondary tissue changes seen in TB?

A

Primary

  • Small focus (Ghon focus) in periphery of mid zone of lung
  • Large hilar nodes (granulomatous)

Secondary
-Fibrosing and cavitating -apical lesion (cancer an important differential diagnosis

63
Q

What are the risk factors for developing chronic pulmonary infection?

A

Abnormal host response:

  • immunodeficiency: congenital/acquired
  • immunosuppression: drugs/malignancy

Abnormal innate host defence:

  • damaged bronchial mucosa
  • abnormal cilia
  • abnormal secretions

Repeated insult:

  • aspiration (NG feeding/poor swallow/pharyngeal pouch)
  • indwelling material (NG tube in wrong place/chest drain/foreign body)
64
Q

What are 4 reasons for immunodeficiency?

A

Immunoglobulin deficiency:

  • IgA deficiency (common, increased risk of acute infections, rarely chronic infections)
  • Hypogammaglobulinaemia(rare, increased risk of acture and chronic infections)
  • CVID (commonest cause of immunodeficiency, recurrent infections)
  • Specific polysaccharide antibody deficiency

Hypo-splenism

immune paresis:
-myeloma/lymphoma/metastic malig.

HIV

65
Q

what are 3 reasons for damaged bronchial mucosa?

A
  • smoking
  • recent pneumonia/viral infection
  • malignancy
66
Q

What are 2 reasons for abnormal cilia?

A
  • kartenagers syndrome

- youngs syndrome

67
Q

What are 2 reasons for abnormal secretions?

A

cystic fibrosis

channelopathies

68
Q

What are 5 forms of chronic infection?

A
  • intrapulmonary abscess
  • empyema
  • chronic bronchial sepsis
  • bronchiectasis
  • cystic fibrosis (and other rare conditions)
69
Q

Intrapulmonary abscess

  • clinical features (6)
  • when does it occur?
A

Clinical features:

  • indolent presentation
  • wt loss
  • lethargy
  • tiredness
  • weakness
  • cough +/- sputum

Usually occurs after a preceding illness of some sort:

  • pneumonic infection
  • post viral
  • foreign body

REMEMBER: flu -> staph pneumonia -> cavitating pnuemonia -> abscess

70
Q

what bacterial and fungal pathogens cause intrapulmonary abscess?

A

Bacteria:

  • streptococcus
  • staphylococcus (esp. post flu)
  • E-coli
  • Gram -ves

Fungi:
-aspergillus

71
Q

What is a septic emboli?

A
Right sided endocarditis 
•Infected DVT 
•Septicaemia 
•Intravenous drug users 
Inject into groin / DVT/ Infection /PE + Abscesses
72
Q

What pathogens cause empyema?
Gram +ve
Gram -ve

A

Gram +ve:

  • strep. milleri
  • staph. aureus (usually post op or nosocomial or immunocompromised)

Gram -ve:

  • e-coli
  • pseudomonas
  • h. influenzae
  • klebsiella

Anaerobes in 13% of cases (usually in severe pneumonia or poor dental hygeine)

73
Q
How do:
-CXR
-USS
-CT
help with the diagnosis of empyema?
A

CXR:

  • persisting effusion, particularly if loculations visible
  • D sign
  • remember lateral (retrodiaphragmatic collections)

USS:

  • PREFERRED Ix
  • simple/bedside/targetted sampling

CT:
-differentiating between empyema and abscess

74
Q

What is the treatment for empyema?

A

IV antibiotics:
Amox and met initially

Oral:
directed against cultured bacteria - AT LEAST 14 days

75
Q

What is the presentation of bronchiectasis? (4)

A
  • recurrent ‘chest infections’
  • recurrent abiotic prescriptions
  • no/short lived response to abiotics
  • persistent sputum production
76
Q

How is bronchiectasis diagnosed?

A

Clinically:

  • cough productive of sputum
  • chest pain
  • recurrent LRTI’s

Radiological:
-high resolution CT

77
Q

what is chronic bronchial sepsis?

A
  • All hallmarks of bronchiectasis but no bronchiectasis on HRCT
  • confirmed positive sputum results
  • same work up as bronchiectasis
78
Q

What demographic of patients get chronic bronchial sepsis?

A
  • often younger patients, mainly women, often involved in childcare
  • others are older with COPD or airways disease
79
Q

What are the treatment options for bronchiectasis?

A
  • Stop smoking
  • Flu vaccine
  • Pneumococcal vaccine
  • Reactive antibiotics - get sputum culture and sensitivities from lab
80
Q

What are the treatment options for bronchiectasis when it is colonised with persistent bacteria?

A
  • prophylactic abiotics
  • neb. gentamicin/colomycin
  • pulsed IV abx
  • alternating oral abx

Low dose macrolide antibiotics have been shown to reduce exacerbation rates in bronchiectasis
–Clarithromycin 250 mg OD
–Azithromycin 250mg Three Times a Week
•Particularly effective in pseudomonas colonised
individuals