Respiratory Function Flashcards

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1
Q

temporary cessation of breathing

A

apnea

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2
Q

abnormal increase in clarity of transmitted voice sounds heard when auscultating the lungs

A

bronchophony

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3
Q

direct examination of the larynx, trachea, and bronchi using an endoscope

A

bronchoscopy

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4
Q

measure of the force required to expand or inflate the lungs

A

compliance

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5
Q

shortness of breath

A

dyspnea

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6
Q

abnormal change in tone of voice that is heard when auscultating the lungs

A

egophony

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7
Q

vibrations of speech felt as tremors of the chest wall during palpation

A

fremitus

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8
Q

decrease in arterial oxygen tension in the blood

A

hypoxemia

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9
Q

temporary absence of breathing during sleep secondary to transient upper airway obstruction

A

obstructive sleep apnea

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10
Q

shortness of breath when lying flat; relieved by sitting or standing

A

orthopnea

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11
Q

percentage of hemoglobin that is bound to oxygen

A

oxygen saturation

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12
Q

portion of the tracheobronchial tree that does not participate in gas exchange

A

physiologic dead space

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13
Q

exchange of gas molecules (oxygen and carbon dioxide) from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration

A

pulmonary diffusion

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14
Q

blood flow through the pulmonary vasculature

A

pulmonary perfusion

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15
Q

deep, low-pitched snoring sound associated with partial airway obstruction, heard on chest auscultation

A

rhonchi

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16
Q

continuous, high-pitched, musical sound heard on inspiration, best heard over the neck; may be heard without use of a stethoscope, secondary to upper airway obstruction

A

Stridor

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17
Q

volume of air inspired and expired with each breath during normal breathing

A

tidal volume

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18
Q

whispered sounds heard loudly and clearly upon thoracic auscultation

A

whispered pectoriloquy

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19
Q

Upper airway structures consist of

A

the nose; paranasal sinuses; pharynx, tonsils, and adenoids; larynx; and trachea.

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20
Q

A prominent function of the sinuses is to serve as

A

a resonating chamber in speech.

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21
Q

Part of the larynx:

a valve flap of cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing

A

Epiglottis

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22
Q

Part of the larynx:

the opening between the vocal cords in the larynx

A

Glottis

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23
Q

the middle of the thorax, between the pleural sacs that contain the two lungs

A

The mediastinum

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24
Q

the conducting airways contain about 150 mL of air in the tracheobronchial tree that does not participate in gas exchange

A

physiologic dead space

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25
Q

The whole process of gas exchange between the atmospheric air and the blood and between the blood and cells of the body is called

A

respiration

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26
Q

General appearance may give clues to

A

respiratory status

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27
Q

Peripheral circulation problems S/S

A

Clubbing of the fingers
Skin color (cyanosis)

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28
Q

Tool used in routine examination of the upper airway structures

A

Penlight

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29
Q

Common phenomena that may alter bronchial diameter, which affects airway resistance, include the following:

Contraction of bronchial smooth muscle—as in

A

asthma

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30
Q

Common phenomena that may alter bronchial diameter, which affects airway resistance, include the following:

Thickening of bronchial mucosa—as in

A

chronic bronchitis

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31
Q

Common phenomena that may alter bronchial diameter, which affects airway resistance, include the following:

Obstruction of the airway—by

A

mucus, a tumor, or a foreign body

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32
Q

Common phenomena that may alter bronchial diameter, which affects airway resistance, include the following:

Loss of lung elasticity—as in

A

emphysema

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33
Q

Condition characterized by connective tissue encircling the airways, thereby keeping them open during both inspiration and expiration

A

emphysema

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34
Q

the systolic blood pressure in the pulmonary artery is

A

20 to 30 mm Hg

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35
Q

the diastolic pressure is

A

5 to 15 mm Hg.

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36
Q

Adequate gas exchange depends on an

A

adequate ventilation–perfusion (V./Q.) ratio.

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37
Q

low level of cellular oxygen

A

hypoxia

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38
Q

The air we breathe is a gaseous mixture consisting mainly of

A

nitrogen (78%), oxygen (21%), argon (1%), and trace amounts of other gases

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39
Q

PACO2 =

A

Partial pressure of alveolar carbon dioxide

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40
Q

Normal levels—PaO2

A

> 70 mm Hg

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41
Q

Relatively safe levels of PaO2—

A

45–70 mm Hg

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42
Q

Dangerous levels—PaO2

A

<40 mm Hg

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43
Q

a normal value for PaO2

A

80 to 100 mm Hg

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44
Q

Normal SaO2 level

A

95% to 98%

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45
Q

A nurse assesses a client’s respiratory status. Which observation indicates that the client is having difficulty breathing?

A

Use of accessory muscles

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46
Q

A client has been newly diagnosed with emphysema. The nurse should explain to the client that by definition, ventilation:

A

is breathing air in and out of the lungs.

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47
Q

The nurse is in the radiology unit of the hospital. The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for a lung scan. The nurse knows that lung scans need the use of radioisotopes and a scanning machine. Before the perfusion scan, what must the client be assessed for?

A

Iodine allergy

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48
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is to undergo a thoracentesis. In preparation for the procedure, the nurse places the client in which position?

A

Sitting on the edge of the bed

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49
Q

A client has recently been diagnosed with malignant lung cancer. The nurse is calculating the client’s smoking history in pack-years. The client reports smoking two packs of cigarettes a day for the past 11 years. The nurse correctly documents the client’s pack-years as

A

22

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50
Q

The nurse assessed a 28-year-old woman who was experiencing dyspnea severe enough to make her seek medical attention. The history revealed no prior cardiac problems and the presence of symptoms for 6 months’ duration. On assessment, the nurse noted the presence of both inspiratory and expiratory wheezing. Based on this data, which of the following diagnoses is likely?

A

Asthma

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51
Q

The nurse auscultates lung sounds that are harsh and cracking, sounding like two pieces of leather being rubbed together. The nurse would be correct in documenting this finding as

A

pleural friction rub.

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52
Q

The term for the volume of air inhaled and exhaled with each breath is

A

tidal volume.

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53
Q

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with asthma. While performing the shift assessment, the nurse auscultates breath sounds including sibilant wheezes, which are continuous musical sounds. What characteristics describe sibilant wheezes?

A

They can be heard during inspiration and expiration.

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54
Q

A physician has ordered that a client with suspected lung cancer undergo magnetic resonance imaging (MRI). The nurse explains the benefits of this study to the client. What is the reason the client with suspected lung cancer would undergo magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)?

A

MRI can view soft tissues and can help stage cancers.

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55
Q

The nursing instructor is teaching students about the respiratory system. The instructor knows the teaching has been effective when a student makes which statement?

A

“Ventilation is the movement of air in and out of the respiratory tract.”

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56
Q

Perfusion refers to blood supply to the lungs, through which the lungs receive nutrients and oxygen. What are the two methods of perfusion?

A

The two methods of perfusion are the bronchial and pulmonary circulation.

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57
Q

The nurse is assessing the lungs of a patient diagnosed with pulmonary edema. Which of the following would be expected upon auscultation?

A

Crackles at lung bases

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58
Q

A client has just undergone bronchoscopy. Which nursing assessment is most important at this time?

A

Level of consciousness

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59
Q

While auscultating the lungs of a client with asthma, the nurse hears a continuous, high-pitched whistling sound on expiration. The nurse will document this sound as which of the following?

A

Wheezes

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60
Q

The nurse is caring for a client diagnosed with pneumonia. The nurse assesses the client for tactile fremitus by completing which action?

A

Asking the client to repeat “ninety-nine” as the nurse’s hands move down the client’s thorax

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61
Q

A nurse is discussing squamous epithelial cells lining each alveolus, which consist of different types of cells. Which type of alveolar cells produce surfactant?

A

Type II cells

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62
Q

Which term will the nurse use to document the inability of a client to breathe easily unless positioned upright?

A

Orthopnea

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63
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is in respiratory distress. The physician orders arterial blood gases (ABGs) to determine various factors related to blood oxygenation. What site can ABGs be obtained from?

A

A puncture at the radial artery

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64
Q

A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis would be expected to have which type of respiratory pattern?

A

Kussmaul respirations

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65
Q

A nurse enters a client’s room and observes a container with sputum. Upon questioning about the specimen, which information from the client would necessitate the nurse to obtain a new specimen?

A

“I coughed that up about 8 hours ago.”

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66
Q

What finding by the nurse may indicate that the client has chronic hypoxia?

A

Clubbing of the fingers

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67
Q

A nurse is concerned that a client may develop postoperative atelectasis. Which nursing diagnosis would be most appropriate if this complication occurs?

A

Impaired gas exchange

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68
Q

When assessing a client, which adaptation indicates the presence of respiratory distress?

A

Orthopnea

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69
Q

Which hollow tube transports air from the laryngeal pharynx to the bronchi?

A

trachea

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70
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with a pulmonary disorder. What observation by the nurse is indicative of a very late symptom of hypoxia?

A

Cyanosis

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71
Q

an estimation of thoracic expansion and may disclose significant information about thoracic movement during breathing.

A

Respiratory excursion

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72
Q

describes vibrations of the chest wall that result from speech detected on palpation

A

Tactile fremitus

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73
Q

describes the ability to clearly and distinctly hear whispered sounds that should not normally be heard.

A

Whispered pectoriloquy

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74
Q

The volume of each breath is referred to as

A

the tidal volume

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75
Q

is measured by having the patient take in a maximal breath and exhale fully through a spirometer.

A

Vital capacity

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76
Q

evaluates the effort the patient is making during inspiration.

A

Inspiratory force

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77
Q

These studies aid in assessing the ability of the lungs to provide adequate oxygen and remove carbon dioxide, which reflects ventilation, and the ability of the kidneys to reabsorb or excrete bicarbonate ions to maintain normal body pH, which reflects metabolic states.

A

Arterial blood gas (ABG)

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78
Q

These studies reflect the balance between the amount of oxygen used by tissues and organs and the amount of oxygen returning to the right side of the heart in the blood.

A

Venous blood gas (VBG)

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79
Q

Imaging studies

A

Chest Xray, CT, Pulmonary Angiography, MRI

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80
Q

Radioisotope procedures (lung scans)

A

V/Q, Gallium scan, PET

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81
Q

Endoscopic procedures

A

Bronchoscopy, Thoracoscopy

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82
Q

Biopsies

A

Pleural, Lung, lymph node

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83
Q

Test that PRECEDES ALL OTHER STUDIES

A

CHEST X-RAY

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84
Q

Densities produced by fluid, tumors, foreign bodies, and other pathologic conditions can be detected by

A

X-ray

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85
Q

used for monitoring during special procedures: catheter insertion, bronchoscopy, thoracentesis, and chest tube placement.

A

Fluoroscopy

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86
Q

gives definition of small or questionable lesions and is useful for determining whether a lesion has calcification within it.

A

CT Scan

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87
Q

Test that can distinguish tumors from other structures

A

MRI

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88
Q

Used to investigate Thromboembolic diseases of the lungs.

A

Pulmonary angiography

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89
Q

Radioisotope injection usually to detect pulmonary emboli

A

Ventilation-perfusion lung scan (V/Q Scan)

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90
Q

Test that examines pulmonary fluid

A

Ultrasonography:

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91
Q

Tests lung volumes and capacities. Commonly used for asthma.

A

Pulmonary function: (PFTs)

92
Q

Test that does a direct examination of larynx

A

Bronchoscopy

93
Q

Direct examination of pleural cavity through Intercostal space via endoscope-

A

Thoracoscopy

94
Q

Fluid and specimens from thoracentesis are examined for:

A

cell counts, protein and LDH, glucose, amylase, pH, Gram stain for bacteria, cytology for malignant cells, and microorganisms.

95
Q

stiffness of the neck or inability to bend the neck

A

nuchal rigidity

96
Q

sometimes used to describe rapid onset, severe, and persistent asthma that does not respond to conventional therapy

A

status asthmaticus

97
Q

increase in the red blood cell concentration in the blood; in COPD, the body attempts to improve oxygen-carrying capacity by producing increasing amounts of red blood cells

A

polycythemia

98
Q

measured by having the patient take in a maximal breath and exhale fully through a spirometer.

A

Vital capacity

99
Q

When the vital capacity is exhaled at a maximal flow rate, the _______________ is measured.

A

forced vital capacity (FVC)

100
Q

Most patients can exhale at least 80% of their vital capacity in 1 second (forced expiratory volume in 1 second, or ________)

A

FEV1

101
Q

A reduction in FEV1 suggests

A

abnormal pulmonary airflow

102
Q

If the patient’s FEV1 and FVC are proportionately reduced, maximal lung expansion is .

A

restricted in some way

103
Q

If the reduction in FEV1 greatly exceeds the reduction in FVC (FEV1/FVC less than 85%), the patient may have

A

some degree of airway obstruction.

104
Q

alternative modes of speaking that do not involve the normal larynx; used by patients whose larynx has been surgically removed

A

alaryngeal communication

105
Q

impaired ability to use one’s voice due to disease or injury to the larynx

A

aphonia

106
Q

rebound nasal congestion commonly associated with overuse of over-the-counter nasal decongestants

A

rhinitis medicamentosa

107
Q

drainage of a large amount of fluid from the nose

A

rhinorrhea

108
Q

inflammation of the nares and paranasal sinuses, including frontal, ethmoid, maxillary, and sphenoid sinuses; replaces the term sinusitis

A

rhinosinusitis

109
Q

dryness of the mouth

A

xerostomia

110
Q

Rhonchi is the only lung sound that requires

A

suctioning

111
Q

COPD/asthma med that causes jitteriness, nausea if taken with caffeine

A

theophylline

112
Q

COPD/asthma med that smoking and caffeine can interfere with absorption

A

theophylline

113
Q

Percentage of O2 in room air

A

21%

114
Q

Patients must be weaned from high O2 to

A

normal room air

115
Q

PEEP

A

positive end expiratory pressure

116
Q

represents the volume of ventilated air that does not participate in gas exchange.

A

Dead space

117
Q

measures amount of CO2 that is being expelled

A

End tidal CO2

118
Q

If end tidal O2 is low, pt is

A

not blowing off enough CO2 (causing acidosis)

119
Q

For renal pt receiving contrast, pre-hydrate and know

A

allergies and renal function

120
Q

Another word for pus

A

empyema

121
Q

High Lactate dehydrogenase can indicate

A

infection

122
Q

Low glucose can indicate

A

TB

123
Q

Medication that can be instilled in pleural space

A

doxycycline

124
Q

compression of the heart resulting from fluid or blood within the pericardial sac.

A

Cardiac tamponade

125
Q

ARDS

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome

126
Q

is a clinical syndrome characterized by a severe inflammatory process causing diffuse alveolar damage that results in sudden and progressive pulmonary edema, increasing bilateral infiltrates on chest x-ray, hypoxemia unresponsive to oxygen supplementation regardless of the amount of PEEP, and the absence of an elevated left atrial pressure

A

ARDS

127
Q

Often difficult to identify the extent of blunt thoracic trauma due to

A

generalized/vague symptoms

128
Q

5th through 9th rib fractures can be associated with

A

spleen and liver injury

129
Q

Organ where the blood goes to be cleaned (very vascular)

A

spleen

130
Q

3 or more broken ribs increases

A

mortality
pneumonia because of shallow breathing leading to
atelectasis

131
Q

ribs take ______ weeks to heal depending on injury

A

3-6 weeks

132
Q

describes when the chest wall or the abdominal wall moves in when taking a breath and moves out when exhaling.

A

Paradoxical breathing

133
Q

CO2 retention =

A

Respiratory acidosis

134
Q

Flail chest treatment

A

Vent, suction, pain meds

135
Q

Common chest tube sizes

A

16-18fr

136
Q

If there is no venous access such as in cardiovascular collapse assess can be obtained through

A

bone

137
Q

hemorrhage is treated simultaneously as

A

other injuries

138
Q

is performed by a forceful attempt of exhalation against a closed airway,

A

The Valsalva maneuver

139
Q

blood in the chest cavity due to torn intercostal vessels, lacerations of the lungs or injured lung into the pleural cavity

A

HEMOTHORAX

140
Q

required to maintain lung inflation

A

negative pressure

141
Q

what is heard when auscultating a collapsed lung

A

little or absent sound

142
Q

in collapsed lung, breath sounds could be heard in upper lobes but

A

absent in lower

143
Q

air pressure builds to the point of compressing the heart and other structures, causing circulation problems

A

Tension pneumothorax

144
Q

An open pneumothorax can become

A

a tension pneumothorax

145
Q

S/S of tension pneumothorax

A

BP changes
Tachycardia
chest pain
SOB

146
Q

an abnormal passageway between the bronchial tubes and the pleural space in the lungs

A

A bronchopleural fistula

147
Q

air-filled cysts that form on the lung pleura, tend to be asymptomatic

A

Lung blebs

148
Q

Fistula can also be caused by

A

cancer

149
Q

Too high PEEP pressure can cause too much positive pressure to go in, same can happen with

A

CPR bag/rescue breathing

150
Q

Difference between BiPAP and CPAP

A

Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) machines release a constant level of air pressure. Bilevel positive airway pressure (BiPAP or BPAP) machines release air at two different pressure levels, one for breathing in and one for breathing out.

151
Q

Severity of pneumothorax depends on the size and the _______

A

cause

152
Q

hyperresonance can also be cause by

A

emphysema

153
Q

A small fr.28 at the 2nd lCS for pneumothorax because

A

it is the thinnest part of the skin, minimizes nerve contact, and less visible scar

154
Q

Fr.32 for hemothorax in the

A

fourth or fifth ICS

155
Q

The heart, the great vessels, and the trachea shift toward the unaffected side of the chest

A

mediastinal shift

156
Q

If kidneys shut down they do not make erythropoietin eventually leading to

A

Anemia

157
Q

PEA

A

Pulseless electrical activity

158
Q

refers to cardiac arrest in which the electrocardiogram shows a heart rhythm that should produce a pulse, but does not.

A

Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

159
Q

Difference between open pneumo and tension pneumo

A

Open = compresses but swings
Closed = compression continues to build

160
Q

refers to an exaggerated fall in a patient’s blood pressure during inspiration by greater than 10 mm Hg

A

Pulsus paradoxus

161
Q

Systolic is falling while diastolic is rising coming together

A

Narrowing pulse pressure

162
Q

Narrowing pulse pressure is caused by

A

fluid build up

163
Q

Removes a section of the pericardium to relieve pressure

A

pericardiotomy

164
Q

Chest tube drainage:

dry suction, wet seal

A

Closed drainage system

165
Q

works opposite from incentive spirometer, inspiration will lower ball

A

Pleur-Sac

166
Q

max pressure for dry system

A

80

167
Q

a disposable, single-use chest drainage system with 30-mL collection volume. Used when minimal volume of chest drainage is expected.

A

One-way (Heimlich) valve

168
Q

true or false:

Fluid fluctuation in the water seal chamber of a chest drainage system will stop when the lung has re-expanded.

A

True

169
Q

If drainage migrates from the collection chamber, .

A

replace the unit

170
Q

DVT can cause a PE but

A

not the other way around

171
Q

BUBBLING - check for air leaks. Large amount of bubbling indicates

A

a blockage. Clamp tube momentarily at various points to find blockage

172
Q

TIDALING -Normal fluctuation is

A

5 to 10cm. Fluctuation diminishes as the lung re-expands

173
Q

NEGATIVE PRESSUE- water in the tube remains at the level in the chamber of

A

2 cm. The units automatically maintains this.

174
Q

Water suction unit: Loud bubbling indicates external suction source is

A

too high

175
Q

Water level in the suction chamber regulates

A

suction intensity

176
Q

(Dry Suction Unit) Indicator (Bellow/bladder) is visible in

A

suction chamber window

177
Q

Breaking of long bones can cause

A

Fat embolism

178
Q

an inflammatory process that causes a blood clot to form and block one or more veins, usually in the legs.

A

Thrombophlebitis

179
Q

D-dimer assay

A

blood test for evidence of blood clots

180
Q

Clot buster meds

A

tPA Activase, reteplase

181
Q

Test for coumadin

A

INR-PT

182
Q

Test for heparin

A

PTT

183
Q

normal INR-PT level

A

0.8-1.2

184
Q

therapeutic range for INR is

A

2–3.5

185
Q

Normal aPTT levels

A

22-35

186
Q

Therapeutic aPTT levels

A

1.5-2.5 times baseline

187
Q

Patients who present with a PE die within

A

one hour

188
Q

An umbrella filter is in place in the ___________________ to prevent PE

A

inferior vena cava

189
Q

ARDS resembles

A

Pulmonary edema

190
Q

PaO2 < 50

A

Hypoxemia

191
Q

For ARDS, patients are put in this position

A

Prone

192
Q

50-60% of head an neck cancers are

A

laryngeal

193
Q

false vocal cords above

A

Supraglottic

194
Q

true vocal cords

A

Glottic

195
Q

below vocal cords

A

Subglottic

196
Q

True or False:

An early sign of cancer of the larynx in the glottic are is enlarged cervical nodes and foul breath

A

False, it is a late sign. Hoarseness, cough, or sore throat, and voice changes are early

197
Q

Treatment for laryngeal cancer

A

combo of radiation and chemo (methotrexate)

198
Q

Surgical treatment of laryngeal cancer:

pt usually retains voice
trach tube for 4-5 days

A

Partial Laryngectomy

199
Q

Surgical treatment of laryngeal cancer:

pt loses voice
permanent trach stoma

A

Total Laryngectomy

200
Q

Surgical treatment of laryngeal cancer:

total laryngectomy with laryngoplasty
loss of neck muscles
loss of lymph nodes
loss of jaw bones
may learn esophageal speech

A

Radical Neck Dissection

201
Q

Check gastric residual when

A

administering tube feedings

202
Q

Medical emergency:

Mispositioned end of trach pushes against

A

artery causing trach to move with pulse

203
Q

Must have a sign in the room alerting of

A

passy muir valve patient

204
Q

passy-muir valve care

A

must not sleep with it
remove to clean
deflate cuff completely

205
Q

for passy muir, patient must have

A

vocal cords

206
Q

inner cannula care at home

A

clean technique

207
Q

The decision to perform any pulmonary resection is based on the patient’s ___________ and _________ reserve.

A

Cardio status and pulmonary reserve

208
Q

Surgery usually for lung abscesses, bronchiectasis, or extensive unilateral tuberculosis.

A

pneumonectomy

209
Q

In pneumonectomy, usually no drains are used because

A

the accumulation of fluid in the empty hemithorax is the desired end result because the volume of accumulated fluid prevents media sternal shift.

210
Q

POST-OPERATIVE pneumonectomy: Turn every hour from back to operative side and

A

should not be completely turn to the inoperative side

211
Q

Lung surgery usually done for bronchogenic carcinoma, giant emphysematous blebs, benign tumors, metastatic malignant tumors, bronchiectasis, and fungus infections.

A

lobectomy

212
Q

POST-OPERTIVE lobectomy care:

A

Chest tube drains
may be turned to either side

213
Q

Lesions are located in only one segment of the lung. Disease processes may be limited to a single segment.

A

SEGMENTAL RESECTION

214
Q

Post op SEGMENTAL RESECTION care:

A

not to turn onto operative side unless the surgeon prescribes this position

215
Q

This procedure is performed for diagnostic lung biopsy and for the excision of small peripheral nodules

A

Wedge resection

216
Q

Endotracheal intubation is used up to ____ days

A

14-21 days max

217
Q

If patient has PaO2 below 50-55%

A

needs vent

218
Q

Negative-pressure ventilators (e.g., “iron lungs,” chest cuirass)

A

are older modes of ventilatory support that are rarely utilized today.

219
Q

types of positive-pressure ventilators:

ventilators deliver a preset volume of air with each inspiration

A

Volume cycled

220
Q

types of positive-pressure ventilators:

delivers a flow of air (inspiration) until it reaches a preset pressure

A

Pressure cycle

221
Q

types of positive-pressure ventilators:

delivers very high RR to open the airway; small, quick O2 to refresh oxygen

A

High-frequency oscillatory support

222
Q

refers to injuries caused by increased air or water pressure, such as during airplane flights or scuba diving

A

Barotrauma

223
Q

Alveoli rupture, may need chest tube

A

Barotrauma

224
Q

Fighting the ventilator term

A

bucking the machine

225
Q

weaning of ventilator may involve switching to

A

BiPAP or CPAP

226
Q

When weaning off ventilator, ABG’s must be drawn within

A

30 minutes

227
Q

criteria for weaning off ventilator

A

must have spontaneous respirations
have to be hemo and physiologically stable
underlying condition resolved
must have cough
Stable ABG’s