Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Paediatrics > Respiratory/ ENT > Flashcards

Respiratory/ ENT Flashcards

1
Q

What are the key signs of choking in a child?

A
  • Inability to talk
  • Inability to breathe or noisy breathing
  • Weak or ineffective cough
  • Cyanosis
  • Potential loss of consciousness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the most common cause of choking in a child?

A

Aspiration of food or small objects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the management of choking in a child?

A

If conscious and can cough:
- Encourage the child to cough to dislodge the obstruction

If conscious but unable to cough effectively:
- Alternate between giving 5 back blows and 5 chest (infant)/ abdominal (child) thrusts

If unconscious:
- 5 rescue breaths, then immediately commence CPR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the first step in asthma management of a child 0-5 years old?

A

SABA (for relief of symptoms)

Salbutamol inhaled: 100micrograms/dose metered-dose inhaler)
1-2 puffs every 4-6 hours when required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What indicates that an asthmatic child 0-5 years old on step 1 of managment needs treatment escalation?

A

Use of SABA inhaler on average more than twice a week over 1 month
OR
Newly-diagnosed asthma with symptoms >=3/ week or night-time waking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the second step in asthma management of a child 0-5 years old?

A

SABA+8 week trial of paediatric moderate-dose inhaled corticosteroid

Beclometasone, budesonide, ciclesonide, fluticasone, mometasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What should be done after 8 weeks in an asthmatic child 0-5 years old on step 2 of treatment?

A

Stop the ICS and monitor the symptoms:
- If they haven’t resolved consider another diagnosis
- If symptoms have stopped and then reoccur within 4 weeks, restart the ICS at a low dose as first-line maintenance therapy
- If symptoms resolve but reoccur beyond 4 weeks, repeat the 8 week trial

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the third step in asthma management of a child 0-5 years old?

A

SABA + low-dose ICS + leukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the fourth step in asthma management of a child 0-5 years old?

A

Stop the LTRA and refer to a paediatric asthma specialist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the first line asthma management for children 5-16?

A

SABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the second line asthma management for children 5-16?

A

SABA+paediatric low-dose inhaled corticosteroid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the third line asthma management for children 5-16?

A

SABA+paediatric low-dose ICS+leukotriene receptor antagonist (LRTA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the fourth line asthma management for children 5-16?

A

SABA+paediatric low dose ICS+LABA

Stop a LTRA at this point if it’s not helping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the fifth line asthma management for children 5-16?

A

SABA+switch ICS/LABA for a maintenance and reliever therapy (MART), that includes a paediatric low-dose ICS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the sixth line asthma management for children 5-16?

A

SABA+paediatric moderate-dose ICS MART
OR
Consider changing back to a fixed-dose of a moderate-dose ICS and a separate LABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the seventh line asthma management for children 5-16?

A

SABA+one of the following options:
- Increase ICS to paediatric high-dose, either as part of a fixed-dose regime or as a MART
- A trial of an additional drug (eg. theophylline)
- Seeking advice from a healthcare professional with expertise in asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the asthma maintenance and reliver therapy (MART)?

A
  • A form of combined ICS and LABA treatment in which a single inhaler, containing both ICS and a fast-acting LABA, is used for both daily maintenance therapy and the relief of symptoms required
  • MART is only available for ICS and LABAL combinations in which the LABA has a fast-acting component (eg. formoterol)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What does NICE recommend in terms of patients who have well controlled asthma, but the guidelines have changed?

A

It does not advocate for changing treatment in patients who have well-controlled asthma simply to adhere to the latest guidance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What constitutes the low, moderate and high doses of ICS?

A
  • Low dose: <= 200 micrograms budesonide
  • Moderate dose: 200-400 micrograms budesonide
  • High dose: >400 micrograms budesonide
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Why does NO correlate with levels of inflammation?

A

NO is produced by three types of nitric oxide synthases - one of the types is iNOS (inducible) and levels tend to rise in inflammatory cells, particularly eosinophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the age threshold for objective testing for asthma?

A

Children >=5 years old

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What are the diagnostic tests for asthma in children 5-16 years old?

A
  • Spirometry with a bronchodilatory reversibility test
  • FeNO should be requested if there’s normal spirometry or obstructive spirometry with a negative bronchodilatory reversibility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What FeNO threshold is considered a positive result in children?

A

> = 35ppb

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the spirometry vale that indicates asthma?

A

FEV1/FVC ratio less than 70% is considered obstructive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What indicates a positive bronchodilator reversibility test in children?

A

Improvement in FEV1 or 12% or more

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What constitutes a life-threatening asthma attack in children >5?

A
  • SpO2 <92%
  • PEF <33% best or predicted
  • Silent chest
  • Poor respiratory effort (CO2 levels normal on blood gas - exhaustion meaning CO2 can’t be blown off)
  • Agitation
  • Altered consciousness
  • Cyanosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What constitutes a severe asthma attack in children >5?

A
  • SpO2 <92%
  • PEF 33-50% best or predicted
  • Too breathless to talk or feed
  • Heart rate (>125 >5 years, >140 1-5)
  • Respiratory rate (>30 breaths/ min >5, >40 breaths/ min 1-5)
  • Use of accessory neck muscles
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What constitutes a moderate asthma attack in children >5?

A
  • SpO2 >92%
  • PEF >50% best or predicted
  • No clinical features of severe asthma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the management of a mild-moderate acute asthma attack?

A

Bronchodilator therapy
- Beta-2 agonist via spacer (children <3 use close-fitting mask)
- 1 puff every 30-60 seconds up to a max of 10 puffs
- If symptoms are not controlled, repeat beta-2 agonist and refer to hospital

Steroid therapy
- All children with asthma exacerbation
- Treatment for 3-5 days
- Oral prednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the doses of oral prednisolone given during asthma attacks?

A

2-5 years
- 20mg od (1-2mg/kg od, max 40mg)

> 5 years
- 30-40mg of (1-2mg/kg od, max 40mg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the A-E management of acute severe asthma?

A
  • Continuous O2 sats monitoring
  • High flow O2 via non-rebreathe mask to achieve sats 94-98%
  • Nebulised salbutamol (2.5-5mg) every 20 mins with ipratropium bromide (250mcg) for first 2 hours
  • Oral prednisolone
  • Consider IV Mg and amiophylline if the child is still unresponsive after the maximum doses of bronchodilators and steroids
  • Consider ABG if poor response to early treatment
  • Refer to PICU
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the mechanism of ipratropium bromide?

A

Acetylcholine antagonise via blockade of muscarinic cholinergic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the A-E management of life-threatening acute asthma?

A
  • Continous O2 sats monitoring
  • High-flow O2 via non-rebreathe mask titrated to achieve sats of 94-98%
  • Refer to PICU
  • Salbutamol (2.5-5mg) every 20 mins with ipratropium bromide (250mcg) for first 2 hours
  • Oral prednisolone
  • Repeat dose of oral pred if vomiting, or consider IV steroids (hydrocortisone 4mg/kg every 4 hours)
  • Give bolus of IV Mg
  • Consider bolus of IV salbutamol if child has responded poorly to all other treatments, followed by infusion
  • Consider aminophylline if still unresponsive to maximal doses
  • Consider ABG if poor response to early treatment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is the most common causitive pathogen of bronchiolitis?

A

Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) - 70-80% of cases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

When is the incidence of bronchiolitis higher?

A

Winter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which patient group are most affected by bronchiolitis?

A

Most common serious lower respiratory tract infection in <1 year olds, peak incidence 3-6 months
- Maternal IgG provides protection to newborns against RSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What are the non-RSV causes of bronchiolitis?

A
  • Mycoplasma
  • Adenoviruses
  • Influenza
  • Rhinovirus
  • Parainfluenza virus
  • Human metapneumovirus
  • Can be secondary to a bacterial infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the clinical features of bronchiolitis?

A

Coryzal symptoms (including mild fever) proceeding:
- Dry cough
- Increasing breathlessness
- Wheezing, fine inspiratory crackles
- Feeding difficulties associated with increasing dyspnoea
- Nasal flaring
- Grunting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

When should a child immediately be referred (usually be ambulance) to hospital in suspected bronchiolitis?

A
  • Apnoea
  • Child looks seriously unwell
  • Severe respiratory distress eg. grunting, marked chest recession, resp rate >70 breaths/ min
  • Central cyanosis
  • Persistent O2 sats <92% when breathing air
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When should clinicians consider referring a suspected case of bronchiolitis to hospital?

A
  • Resp rate >60 breaths/ minute
  • Difficulty with breastfeeding or inadequate oral fluid intake (50-70% of usual volume)
  • Clinical dehydration
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What investigations can be done for bronchiolitis?

A

It should be diagnosed clinically, but if there is doubt:
- Immunofluorescence of nasopharyngeal secretions may show RSV
- Chest x-ray may be considered in severe cases or if there’s concern about complications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the management of bronchiolitis?

A
  • Humidified O2 given via a head box, recommended in O2 sats are persistently <92%
  • NG feeding if children can’t take enough fluid/ feed by mouth
  • Suction sometimes used for excessive upper airway secretions
  • Ribavirin (antiviral) may be used in severe cases
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is given prophylactically to prevent bronchiolitis in high risk patients?

A

Palivizumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the complication of bronchiolitis?

A

Bronchiolitis obliterans
- Bronchioles are injured due to infection leading to overactive cellular repair and build up of scar tissue
- Scar tissue obstructs the bronchioles, impairing O2 absorption
- Scarring can worsen over time leading to resp failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Which patient group is at highest risk of developing bronchiolitis obliterans as a complication of bronchiolitis?

A

Lung transplant recipients, ~50% develop condition within 5 years of transplant due to organ rejection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What is croup?

A

An upper respiratory tract infection seen in infants and toddlers. Characterised by stridor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What causes stridor in croup?

A
  • Laryngeal oedema (mainly this)
  • Tracheal oedema
  • Bronchial oedema
  • Secretions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What is the most common cause of croup?

A

Parainfluenza virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is the peak incidence of croup?

A

6 months - 3 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are the general features of croup?

A
  • Stridor
  • Barking cough (worse at night)
  • Fever
  • Coryzal symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the features of mild croup?

A
  • Occasional barking cough
  • No audiable stridor at rest
  • No or mild suprasternal and/ or intercostal recession
  • The child is happy and prepared to eat, drink and play
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the features of moderate croup?

A
  • Frequent barking cough
  • Easily audiable stridor at rest
  • Suprasternal and sternal wall retraction at rest
  • No or little distress or agitation
  • The child can be placated and is interested in its surroundings
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What are the features of severe croup?

A
  • Frequent barking cough
  • Prominent inspiratory (and occasionally expiratory) stridor at rest
  • Marked sternal wall retractions
  • Significant distress and agitation, or lethargy or restlessness (hypoxaemia)
  • Tachycardia occurs with more severe obstructive symptoms and hypoxaemia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What are the features of croup that prompt admission?

A
  • Moderate or severe croup
  • <6 months
  • Known upper airway abnormalities
  • Uncertainty about diagnosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What are the investigations for croup?

A
  • Majority are diagnosed clinically
  • Chest x-ray can be indicated
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What would a chest x-ray of croup show?

A

Subglottic narrowing, the steeple sign

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is the of mild or moderate croup?

A

Oral dexamethosone, 0.15mg/kg

2nd line
Oral prednisolone, 1mg/kg with a repeat dose the following evening

Discharge once stridor free at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What is the management of severe croup?

A

Nebulised adrenaline, high flow oxygen and dexamethosone (0.6ml/kg)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What viruses, other than the parainfluenza virus, can cause croup?

A
  • Adenovirus
  • Influenza
  • RSV
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What is the appearance of a normal tympanic membrane?

A

Left tympanic membrane (malleolus process is pointing left)

  • Cone of light indicates a healthy ear
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the features of ear wax?

A
  • Antiseptic
  • Pathogen collector
  • Moisturizing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What is otitis externa?

A

Infection of the skin of the external auditory canal

Commonest in hot, humid countries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What are the symptoms of otitis externa?

A
  • Irritable child
  • Worsening otalgia
  • Otorrhoea
  • Itchiness
  • Ear fullness/ tugging of the ear/ hearing loss
  • Tinnitus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the risk factors for otitis externa?

A
  • Young children
  • Females > males
  • Frequent contact with water
  • Obstruction of the ear canal
  • Ear trauma
  • Foreign body in the ear
  • Skin conditions: eczema, psoriasis
  • Immunocompromised patients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What is the presentation of bacterial otitis externa on otoscopy?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What is the presentation of fungal otitis externa on otoscopy?

A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What is the management of bacterial otitis externa?

A

Localised:
- Analgesia and heat application
- Oral abx rarely required

Acute lasting <3 months:
- Keep ears clean and dry
- Consider over the counter acetic acid 2% ear drops (over 12 yrs, morning and evening, after showering etc max 7 days)
- Ibuprofen/ paracetamol
- Consider antibacterial + topical corticosteroid ear drops

Chronic lasting >3 months:
- Avoid triggers
- Analgesia PRN
- Arrange ear swab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is the management of fungal otitis externa?

A

6 weeks of treatment even if the tympanic membrane appears normal, due to possibility of remaining spores that aren’t visible to the naked eye

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Which pathogens cause otitis externa?

A

Pathogens of the upper respiratory tract:
- Pseudomonas aeruginosa (~40%)
- S. Epidermis
- S. Aureusa
- Anaerobes
- Fungal infections (typically Aspergillus spp.)

70
Q

What is acute otitis media?

A

Acute inflammation of the middle ear cavity

30% of children <3 are seen in the GP with AOM

Peak incidence 6-15 months

71
Q

What are the risk factors for acute otitis media?

A
  • Young children going to nursery
  • Male
  • Passive smoking (reduced immune response)
  • Bottle feeding (reduced immune response)
  • Craniofacial abnormalities: cleft palate, Down’s syndrome
  • Large adenoids
72
Q

What are the commonist organisms causing acute otitis media?

A
  • RSV and rhinovirus
  • Streptococcus pneumoniae (40%)
  • Haemophilus influenzae (25%)
73
Q

Why are younger children more prone to otitis media?

A

Infants have thinner and flatter eustachian tubes therefore easier for infections from the nose and posterior nasopharynx to enter the inner ear

74
Q

What is suspected if a child with acute otitis media becomes happy again, unilateral hearing loss persists and there is discharge leaking from the ear?

A

Perforation of the tympanic membrane

75
Q

What is mastoiditis?

A

A severe complication of acute otitis media (ENT emergency)

The child becomes more unwell, protruding ear with red, hot, tender mass over the mastoid

Infection can spread to the brain causing meningitis and cerebral abscess

76
Q

What is the presentation of mastoiditis on otoscopy?

A

Bulging and opaque tympanic membrane (red, pink or yellow) with evidence of effusion posteriorly

77
Q

What is the management of mastoiditis?

78
Q

What is the management of acute otitis media?

A
  • 80% self limiting and resolves within 3 days
  • > 4 days and systemically well - consider oral abx
79
Q

When would admission with acute otitis media be considered?

A
  • Younger than 2
  • Systemically unwell
  • Immunocompromised
80
Q

What is the management for recurring acute otitis media?

A

> 6 episodes per year

  • Consider grommet insertion
  • Consider adenoidectomy
81
Q

What is this?

A

Otitis media with effusion

82
Q

What are the causes of tympanic membrane perforation?

A
  • Loud sounds
  • Head trauma
  • Infection
  • Foreign bodies in the ear
  • Iatrogenic
  • Cholesteatoma
83
Q

What is this?

A

Traumatic perforation

84
Q

What is this?

A

Perforation secondary to cholesteatoma

Migration of middle ear mucosa to the outer ear causing gradual erosion

Recurrent ear discharge that doesn’t improve with antibiotics

85
Q

What is the management of small perforations?

A

Watch and wait, usually heals within 6 weeks

Treat any infection

86
Q

What is the management of cholesteatoma?

A

Urgent referral to ENT

87
Q

What is otitis media effusion with glue ear?

A

The presence of fluid in the middle ear for >=3 months

Chronic Eustachian tube dysfunction leading to difficulty in ventilating the middle ear

88
Q

What is the epidemiology of glue ear?

A
  • 80% of children experience 1 or more episodes before age of 10
  • Peak incidence 2-5 years
  • More common in winter months
89
Q

What can glue ear cause if left untreated?

A
  • Irreversible hearing loss
  • Delay in speech development
  • Poor performance in school
90
Q

What are the risk factors for otitis media with effusion?

A
  • Male
  • Children under 7
  • Bottle fed (reduced immunity)
  • Recurrent nose infections
  • Passive smoking
  • Craniofacial abnormalities (cleft palate, Down’s syndrome etc)
  • Mucociliary abnormalities (cystic fibrosis)
91
Q

What is the presentation of otitis media with effusion?

A
  • Majority asymptomatic (incidental finding)
  • Unilateral conductive hearing loss
  • Poor behaviour, attention deficit
  • Delay in speech development
  • Mild otalgia
  • Poor coordination
92
Q

What is the presentation of otitis media with effusion on otoscopy?

A

May be normal, or may look dull/ opaque with evidence of fluid level or bubbles posteriorly

93
Q

What is a tympanogram?

A

A way of measuring how mobile the tympanic membrane is

94
Q

What is the management of otitis media with effusion?

A

Active monitoring:
- 90% of cases resolve within 3 months

Non-surgical managment:
- Treating rhinitis
- Otovent balloon
- Hearing aids for persistent hearing loss

Surgical management:
- Myringotomy and ventilation tube insertion (grommet)
- Adenoidectomy

95
Q

How is Weber’s test conducted?

A

512Hz tuning fork
- Create a vibration and place in the centre of the head
- Healthy patients should hear ringing equally bilaterally
- Conductive hearing loss will be louder on the affected side
- Sensorinerual hearing loss will be louder on the unaffected side

96
Q

How is Rinne’s test conducted?

A

512Hz tuning fork
- Create a vibration and place beside the ear
- Then place the tuning fork on the mastoid process
- Sounds being heard louder via air conduction are healthy
- Sounds heard louder via bone conduction are pathological

97
Q

What are audiographs?

A

Charts used to record an individual’s hearing in different frequencies and volumes

Audiologist plays and sound and patient clicks a button everytime they hear a sound (repeated on each side)

98
Q

What is the classification of mastoiditis?

A
  • Acute: secondary to acute otitis media (days/ hours)
  • Chronic: secondary to chronic suppurative otitis media or cholesteatoma (days/ weeks) (recurrent otitis media, recurrent headaches, recurrent otalgia, may show no peri-mastoid inflammation)
99
Q

What are the complications of mastoiditis?

A
  • Meningitis
  • Facial nerve paralysis
  • Extradural abscess
  • Brain abscess
  • Subdural abscess
100
Q

What is the management of mastoiditis?

A

Investigations:
- FBC, Us&Es, CRP, Blood cultures
- Ear swab

IV abx
Topical abx ear drops
Contrast enhanced CT petrous bone +- brain

101
Q

What is the management of mastoiditis if there is no response within 24 hours?

A
  • Imaging of the brain
  • Myringotomy + grommet insertion
  • +- cortical mastoidectomy
102
Q

What are the symptoms of cholesteatoma?

A
  • Persistent oderous discharge, not improving with abx
  • Progressive/ severe hearing loss
  • Dizziness
  • Acute mastoiditis
  • Facial palsy
103
Q

When should foreign bodies in the ear be removed?

104
Q

What is a pinna haematoma?

A

Boggish, bluish swelling of the pinna

Caused by:
- Blunt ear injury eg. rugby, boxing etc
- Infection of the pinna usually secondary to a piercing

105
Q

What is the management of pinna haematoma?

A
  • Urgent drainage under general anaesthetic
  • Apply pressure dressing
  • Abx
106
Q

What is a cauliflower ear?

A

Chronic inflammation due to blood between the skin and the cartilage leading to chronic misshape of the ear secondary to this (pinna haematoma preceeds)

107
Q

What hearing test is offered to all neonates?

A

Automated otoacoustic emission testing

108
Q

What is automated otoacoustic emission testing?

A
  • Gentle clicking sound played through an earpiece
  • Echo reflected back into the canal and measured by a microphone
109
Q

What should be offered if there is a reduced echo on automated otoacoustic emission testing?

A

Auditory brainstem response testing

110
Q

What is auditory brainstem response testing?

A
  • Sounds played using earphones
  • Electrodes placed on the baby’s head
  • Electrodes detect responses from auditory vestibulocochlear nerve
111
Q

What is the age limit for auditory brainstem response testing?

A

Up to 6 months

112
Q

What could a reduced echo on automated otoacoustic emission testing mean?

A
  • Baby unsettled
  • Background noise
  • Temporary blockage in the ear
  • Genuine hearing loss
113
Q

Which patient group is epistaxis less common in?

A

Children <2, therefore raises suspicion of trauma or serious illness

114
Q

Which area is most vulnerable to epistaxsis?

A

Kiesselbach’s plexus/ Little’s area (site of anastamosis for the anterior and posterior ethmoid arteries)

115
Q

What is the management of epistaxsis?

A
  1. A-E approach (tilt the child’s head forward and hold in position shown for 15 minutes, stars indicate areas where ice can be placed to stimulate vasoconstriction)
  2. Use of topical medication to cause vasoconstriction (lidocaine/ adrenaline)
  3. Identify bleeding point and cauterize with silver nitrate stick

These are all interventions for bleeding in the anterior section of Kiesselbach’s plexus/ Little’s area, posterior bleeding requires different interventions

116
Q

How can posterior epistaxsis be managed?

A

Using a foley catheter and chord clamp - catheter is inflated via water/ air to compress the bleeding site

Other methods of creating pressure:
- Merocel
- Rapid rhino

117
Q

What is naseptin cream?

A

Contains an antibiotic and disinfectant and is used pre and post cauterization to promote wound healing

118
Q

What is the mechanism of adenoidal hypertrophy?

A

Adenoids that have not regressed in size past the age of 7 are exposed to air on inhalation, collect bacteria and create a biofilm causing recurrent infection

Recurrent infection/ inflammation leads to adenoidal hypertrophy

119
Q

What is the presentation of adenoidal hypertrophy?

A
  • Persistent mouth breathing
  • Hyponasal speech
  • OSA
  • Otitis media with effusion
  • Acute otitis media
120
Q

What are the indications for an adenoidectomy?

A
  • Airway obstruction leading to OSA
  • Otitis media with effusion
121
Q

What is the most important post-operative care for an adenoidectomy?

A
  • Very tender area for surgery, therefore frequent analgesia
  • Encourage the child to eat and drink as soon as possible to reduce the inflammation
122
Q

What is allergic rhinitis?

A

Type 1 hypersensitivity reaction causing inflammation of the nose (secondary to certain allergens)

Usually caused when a child isn’t exposed to certain allergns from a young age (exposure = protective)

Aka. hayfever

123
Q

How does allergic rhinitis present?

A

All related to excess fluid in facial tissues:
- Red, itchy, swollen eyes
- Nasal congestion
- Frequent bouts of sneezing

Symptoms persisting for weeks:
- Poor concentration
- Reduced sleep
- Poor attendance at work/ school

124
Q

What is allergic rhinitis associated with?

A
  • Asthma
  • Family history of atopy
  • First born child
125
Q

How is allergic rhinitis diagnosed?

A
  • Skin prick test
  • Patch test
126
Q

What is the managment of allergic rhinitis?

A
  1. Avoid the allergen
  2. Antihistamines (cetirizine) - can cause drowsiness
  3. Nasal toileting (constant flushing of water up and down the nose)
  4. In severe cases encourage desensitization (slow exposure to reduce histamine release)
127
Q

What is rhinosinusitis?

A

Acute inflammation of the nose and paranasal sinuses from viral infection - this leads to inadequate drainage

Only 2% are bacterial (strep)

128
Q

What are the most common viral causes of rhinosinusitis?

A
  • Rhinovirus
  • Coronavirus
129
Q

What are the risk factors for rhinosinusitis?

A
  • Air pollution
  • Damp housing
  • Winter months
  • Exposure to tobacco smoke and other allergens
130
Q

How does rhinosinusitis present?

A
  • Headache
  • Nasal obstruction leading to hyposmia
  • Rhinorrhoea
  • Facial pain
  • Fever
131
Q

What is the management of rhinosinusitis?

A
  • Most resolve spontaneously <7 days
  • Abx (only if there is fever or for symptoms lasting >7 days)
  • Nasal steroids

If all fails, admit for IV abx and CT sinuses +- functional endoscopic sinus surgery

132
Q

What is perioribital cellulitis?

A

Infection from the nasal sinuses, the eyes or the skin of the face that extends to surround the eye

ENT emergency - can cause perminent damage to the eye in terms of loss of vision and reduced mobility

133
Q

How is periorbital cellulitis classed?

A
  • Pre-septal: infection from the conjunctiva or eye lids
  • Post-septal: infection from the frontal or ethmoid sinuses
134
Q

How does perioribital cellulitis present?

A
  • Prodrome of URTI
  • Acute swelling of the eye
  • Proptosis
  • Restricted eye movement
135
Q

What is the management of periorbital cellulitis?

A
  • Nasal decongestants
  • IV abx
  • +- surgical drainage
136
Q

What are the complications of periorbital cellulitis?

A
  • Cavernous sinus thrombosis (neurological signs, visual loss, muscle paresis and papilloedema)
  • Erosion of orbital bones, causing blindness
  • Brain abscess
  • Meningitis
137
Q

What are the symptoms of a foreign body inside the nostril?

A
  • Unilateral nasal discharge
  • Offensive smelling discharge
  • Excoriation around the nostril with foreign body
138
Q

Why should a nasal foreign body be removed on the same day?

A

Due to the risk of the child inhaling it into the lung - can cause lung abscesses

If unable to remove in an ED setting, must be removed under general anaesthetic

139
Q

What is the ‘magic kiss’ method for nasal foreign body removal?

A
  • Close the nostril with the foreign body
  • Ask the mother/ parent to blow air into the child’s mouth
140
Q

How should nasal foreign bodies stuck behind the inferior tubinate be removed?

A
  • Jobdon Horn
  • St Bart’s Wax Hook
  • Foley catheter
141
Q

What are the complications from acute tonsillitis?

A

Rheumatic fever and glomerulonephitis from group B strep

142
Q

What are the causes of pharyngitis?

A
  • Viral disease
  • EBV
  • Scarlet fever
  • Typhoid fever
  • Coxackie infection
  • Diptheria (gray film)
143
Q

What are the complications of pharyngitis?

A
  • Peritonsillar abscess
  • Uvulitis
144
Q

What is the management of pharyngitis?

A
  1. 90% resolve spontaneously within 7 days
  2. Analgesia, pain should start to reduce after 16 hours:
    - Ibuprofen
    - Paracetamol
    - Difflam mouth wash
145
Q

Which scores should be used in pharyngitis before prescribing antibiotics?

A

FeverPAIN or Centor Criteria scores

Prescribe antibiotics:
- FeverPAIN 4 or 5
- Centor 3 or 4

146
Q

Why should all post-tonsillectomy bleeds be admited?

A

ENT Emergency

Majority are self limiting, however can cause airway obstruction and hypovolemic shock

147
Q

How are peritonsillar bleeds divided?

A

Primary:
- Occurs within 24 hours and is usually due to lack of haemostasis during the proceedure

Secondary:
- Occurs within 10 days or more of the tonsillectomy, due to onset of infection

148
Q

What is the management of post-tonsillectomy bleed?

A

A-E approach
1. Airway - lean the head forward
2. Breathing - if tollerated and indicated give O2 via nasal cannula
3. Circulation - IV access, bloods, IV tranexamic acid
4. Stop the bleeding using silver nitrate sticks
5. Hydrogen peroxide gargles
6. Keep NBM
7. If not bleeding for >24hrs can head home

149
Q

What are the symptoms of foreign body aspiration?

A
  • Short sudden episode of respiratory distress, cyanosis, coughing or gagging
  • The the child appears well
  • Stridor
  • Unilateral wheezing
  • Persistent recurrent cough
150
Q

What is the management of foreign body aspiration?

A

Object needs to be removed the same day

151
Q

What are the complications of foreign body aspiration?

A
  • Airway obstruction (especially if in the upper airway)
  • Lung abscess
  • Fistula formation
152
Q

What is the difference between stridor and stertor?

A

Both occur on inspiration

Stridor: Caused by obstructed air flow through narrow airway, indicates blockage in upper airway

Stertor: Caused by upper respiratory obstruction, sounds like nasal obstruction heard in snoring

153
Q

How does wheeze differ from stridor and stertor?

A

Wheezes are expiratory, commonly heard in Croup and Bronchiolitis

154
Q

What is the main investigation for foreign body ingestion?

A

AP and lateral chest x-ray

Lateral x-ray helps to determine whether the object is in the oesophagus or trachea

155
Q

What is epiglottitis?

A

Localised infection of the supraglottic larynx causing swelling of the epiglottis

A. Lateral x-ray
B. Severe epiglottitis
C. Moderate epiglottitis

156
Q

Which organism causes acute epiglottitis?

A

Haemophilus influenza type B

157
Q

What are the risk factors for epiglottitis?

A
  • Unvaccinated children
  • Children 2-6 years old
  • Foreign body inhalation
  • Chemical or allergens
158
Q

What is the management of epiglottitis in primary care?

A
  • Do not examine the child, anything that could make the child cry/ cause irritation risks losing the airway
  • Urgent admission to a hospital with PICU
  • Pre-alert for difficult paediatric airway, these children need intubation and IV steroids
159
Q

What is the presentation of acute epiglottitis?

A
  • Tripod position
  • Muffled voice
  • Duck cough
  • Mouth open and drooling
  • Stridor
  • Child is quiet, unwell and terrified
160
Q

What is laryngomalacia?

A

When the child’s larynx is soft, floppy or malformed

Common cause of stridor

161
Q

What is the management of laryngomalacia?

A
  • 90% of cases self resolve by 20 months
  • Cause of GORD, therefore manage the GORD
  • Surgery (to allow for normal development and growth)
162
Q

What is the presentation of laryngomalacia?

A
  • Stridor - worse when supine or crying
  • Difficulty breathing
  • Poor oral intake/ choking while eating
  • Failure to thrive
163
Q

What presentation of laryngomalacia would indicate an urgent referral to ENT?

A
  • Life-threatening apneas
  • Significant blue spells
  • Failure to thrive
  • Significant chest and neck retractions (increased use of accessory muscles)
  • Secondary heart and lung disease
164
Q

What is cervical lymphadenitis?

A

Enlargement of cervical lymph nodes secondary to an inflammatory condition

165
Q

What are the causes of cervical lymphadenitis?

A
  • URT viral infection
  • Bacterial infection (TB)
  • Cancer
  • Immunological response
166
Q

What is the presenation of cervical lymphadenitis?

A
  • Tired child, off their food, not sleeping well
  • Enlarging neck lump
  • Tender
  • Hot
  • Erythematous
  • Fluctuant (abscess formed)
167
Q

What is the management of cervical lymphadenitis?

A
  • Antibiotics (PO–>IV)
  • USS neck (doesn’t expose the child to significant radiation)
  • Surgery for drainage of collection (if abscess formed)
168
Q

What is the management of chronic (>3 months) otitis externa with a fungal cause?

A
  • Clotrimazole
  • Acetic acid
  • Clioquinol and corticosteroid
169
Q

What is the management of chronic otitis externa with no evident cause?

A

7-day topical preparation containing only corticosteroid and no antibiotic, consider co-prescribing acetic acid spray

170
Q

When is urgent admission for ear infection indicated?

A

If malignant otitis is suspected (systemic abx and debridement)

Paediatrics (16 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions