Respiratory Emergencies Flashcards

1
Q

Hypoxia

A

SaO2 <94% on room air

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2
Q

Hypoxemia

A

Low arterial oxygen <60mmHg

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3
Q

What condition’s hallmark is failure to increase oxygen levels with supplemental oxygen?

A

Right to left shunt

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4
Q

Stridor

A
  • Upper airway
  • inspiratory

Causes: Foreign body, croup, epiglottitis, anaphylaxis

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5
Q

Wheezing

A
  • Lower airway
  • Expiratory
  • “musical quality”

Causes: Asthma, COPD

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6
Q

Rales

A
  • Lower airway
  • “velcro being pulled apart”

Ex. Congestive Heart Failure

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7
Q

Rhonchi

A

-Lower Airway
-Pneumonia
“loud, low, coarse. snore-like”

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8
Q

Signs of respiratory distress in children

A
  • subcostal retractions
  • nasal flaring
  • head bobbing
  • Seesaw breathing
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9
Q

Pneumonia with green-colored sputum

A

Pseudomonas, Heamophilus

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10
Q

Pneumonia with red currant jelly sputum common in alcoholics and nursing home patients?

A

Klebsiella

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11
Q

Pneumonia with bradycardia, hyponatremia

A

Legionella

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12
Q

Pneumonia with bullous myringitis (blister on the ear drum)

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

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13
Q

Hospital-acquired PNA - when does it occur?

A

PNA symptoms after 48 hours of being admitted (otherwise it is CAP)

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14
Q

Symptoms of streptococcus pneumoniae PNA

A
  • Sudden onset fever
  • Rigors**
  • Productive cough
  • Dyspnea
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15
Q

What antibiotics woud you treat with for HCAP?

A
-Cefepime 
or
-Ceftazidime
or
-Piperacillin-tazobactam
or 
-Levofloxacin
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16
Q

What does CURB65 stand for?

A

Confusion
Uremia (BUN >20)
Respiratory rate (>30 breaths/min)
Blood pressure <90mmHg or 60mmHg diastolic

65- over 65 years old?

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17
Q

What is CURB65 used for?

A

mortality predictor in PNA. Helps us decide who needs to be admitted

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18
Q

CURB 65 point ranges?

A

0-1: outpatient
2: admit
3-5: ICU

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19
Q

When is high altitude illness most pronounced?

A

During sleep (Cheyne-Stokes breathing)

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20
Q

At what elevations can High altitude illness be seen?

A

> 5000 feet (ex. Denver)

(most commonly at 8,000-14,000)

ex. Mt. Hood is 11,000ft

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21
Q

High altitude causing increased respiratory rate leading to alkalosis. What is the treatment?

A

Acetazolamide (Diamox)

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22
Q

What is the hallmark finding in Acute Mountain Sickness?

A

Fluid retention

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23
Q

Acute Mountain Sickness: treatment

A
  1. Halt ascent, descend as quickly as possible
  2. Oxygen
  3. Acetazolamide
  4. Aspirin 650mg
  5. Dexamethasone 4mg every 6 hours
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24
Q

What cranial nerve palsys are associated with High Altitude Cerebral Edema?

A

Cranial nerve 3,6

CN 3 palsy - “down and out”

25
What is the treatment for High Altitude Cerebral Edema?
- Oxygen - Dexamethasone - Loop diuretic
26
What is the most lethal form of high altitude illness?
high altitude pulmonary edema
27
What are the 3 treatments to give to a patient experiencing High altitude Pulmonary Edema?
1. Immediate descent** 2. Oxygen 3. Nifedipine
28
What is the most common reason for admission in medicare patients?
CHF
29
Which lab when over 200 is suggestive of CHF?
Pro-BNP
30
Congestive Heart Failure: EKG findings
1. LV hypertrophy 2. Dysrhythmias 3. STEMI
31
What CXR finding would help confirm suspicion of CHF?
If the heart size is >50% of the chest diameter
32
In a patient with CHF, ultrasound of the lungs may reveal what?
Kerley B lines - Equidistant, normally spaced lines - "comet tails"
33
CHF: treatment
1. Diuretic (Furosemide) | 2. Dobutamine (sympathomimetic Beta 1 agonist)
34
What treatments should be avoided in CHF (3)
1. CCB 2. NSAIDs 3. Anti-arrhythmics
35
Most common cause of nonsurgical maternal death in peripartum period
PE
36
Virchow's Triad
1. Venous Status 2. Venous Injury 3. Hypercoagulable state
37
PE symptom triad
1. Pleuritic chest pain 2. SOB 3. Hemoptysis
38
What scoring system is used for risk assessment of PE and DVT?
Wells criteria
39
What does a Wells score of >6 mean?
high probability (>6)
40
What does a Wells score of 3 mean?
Moderate risk (2-6)
41
What is PERC criteria used for?
Rule out pulmonary embolism
42
What are the 3 characteristic signs on CXR for PE?
1. Hampton's Hump - triangular pleural based infiltrate with apex pointed toward hilum (toward clot) 2. Westermark's sign - dilated pulmonary vessels proximal to embolus with sharply demarcated cutoff 3. Fleishner sign - distended central pulmonary artery
43
What is the best diagnostic test for PE?
CT scan
44
D-Dimer
If negative -->very unlikely to have a clot (false negative: warfarin, or recent onset <5 days) If positive-->not very specific (could be cancer, infection, surgery, >70 years old, trauma, MI, liver disease pregnancy...)
45
What is the most common finding on an EKG for PE?
sinus tachycardia
46
Classic EKG for PE
S1Q3T3 - demonstrating heart heart strain
47
PE: Treatment (anticoagulation)
- Heparin - Coumadin - Lovenox - Rivaroxaban (Xeralto) - Filter in Vena Cava
48
Thrombolytic treatment: Indications
- Hemodynamically unstable - Massive ileofemoral DVT - Large DVT with significant vascular compromise
49
Thrombolytic Treatment: contraindications
- Major bleeding within 6 months - Intracranial bleed, trauma, or surgery wihtin 2 months - Peri/endocarditis - Uncontrolled HTN - Pregnancy
50
What is the only FDA approved Thrombolytic treatment?
Alteplase (Activase) tPA
51
Asthma pathophysiology triad
1. Airway inflammation 2. Obstruction 3. Bronchial hyperresponsiveness
52
Asthma: clinical triad
1. Dyspnea 2. Wheezing 3. Cough
53
Chronic bronchitis
presence of a chronic productive cough for 3 months for 2 years in a row
54
When is the cough for COPD worst
in the mornings
55
What is the best route for administering epi?
IM, more dependable absorption
56
BiPAP contraindications
- If the patient is going to be intubated - cardiac or respiratory arrest - Facial trauma - Recent esophageal surgery
57
When is the peak age(s) for foreign body aspiration?
<1yr and >75yrs
58
What is a helpful CXR finding in a foreign body aspiration?
unilateral hyperinflation
59
MC location for a foreign body
thoracic inlet (level of the clavicles, site of anatomical change from skeletal to smooth muscle)