Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

PHCT MIDTERMS > Respiratory Drugs > Flashcards

Respiratory Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

Describe a wide variety of medications mainly used to relieve, treat, or prevent respiratory diseases

A

RESPIRATORY DRUGS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Acetaminophen + Doxylamine + Dextromethorphan

A

Nyquil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Guaifenesin+Dextromethorphan Hydrobromide

A

Robitussin DM
Vick Pediatric Formula 44

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Acetaminophen + Chlorpheniramine maleate + Phenylephrine HCl + Dextromethorphan

A

Triaminic DM

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

D-isomer of 3-methoxy-N-methylmorphinan, which is a synthetic analogue of codeine

A

Dextromethorphan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

L-isomer of 3-methoxy-N-methylmorphinan, which is an opioid analgesic

A

Levorphanol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

has no apparent analgesic or addictive properties and produces relatively mild opioid effects in overdose

A

Dextromethorphan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Dextromethorphan is well-absorbed orally, and effects are apparent within _______

A

15-30 minutes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Dextromethorphan duration of action

A

3-6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

3 glutamate receptors

A

NMDA, AMPA, Kainate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

major/primary excitatory neurotransmitter

A

Glutamate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

major inhibitory neurotransmitter

A

Glycine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

function of NMDA

A

Controls synaptic plasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

T/F: Dextromethorphan has anti-cholinergic properties.

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the anticholinergic properties?

A

Dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention, bowel obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

inhibits reuptake of serotonin and may lead to the serotonin syndrome in patients taking MAOi

A

Dextromethorphan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Metabolizes or degrades the catecholamines

A

Monoamine Oxidase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

MAOi drugs (PITS)

A

● Isocarboxazid (Marplan)
● Phenelzine (Nardil)
● Selegiline (Emsam)
● Tranylcypromine (Parnate)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

BN of Isocarboxacid

A

Marplan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

BN of Phenelzine

A

Nardil

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

BN of Selegiline

A

Emsam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

BN of Tranylcypromine

A

Parnate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Toxic dose of Dextromethorphan

A

> 10 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Usual recommended ADULT daily dose of dextromethorphan is ______

A

60-120 mg/d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Usual recommended daily dose of dextromethorphan in CHILDREN AGE 2-5 years old

A

30 mg/d

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Mild intoxication of Dextromethorphan produces

A

•Clumsiness
•Ataxia
•Nystagmus
•Restlessness
•Visual and auditory hallucinations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Has no apparent analgesic or addictive properties and produces relatively mild opioid effects in overdose.

A

Dextromethorphan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

With Dextromethorphan severe poisoning:

A

–Stupor
–Coma
–Respiratory depression
–Pupils may be dilated or constricted
–Seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Co-ingestion of dextromethorphan with alcohol leads to

A

Respiratory depression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Seizures are reported after ingestions of how many mg of dextromethorphan?

A

20-30 mg/kg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Dextromethorphan with therapeutic doses taking MAOI

A

–Severe hyperthermia
–Muscle rigidity
–Hypertension
–Related to serotonin syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Antidote for dextromethorphan toxicity

A

Naloxone, 0.06-0.4 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

If the patient exhibits signs of opioid intoxication, administer

A

0.4-2 mg naloxone IV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

widely used as an appetite suppressant

A

Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Banned in most countries and warnings are raised by the FDA because of having increased risk of stroke.

A

Phenylpropanolamine (PPA)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Direct alpha-adrenergic agonists

A

PPA and phenylephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

produces mild β1-adrenergic stimulation and acts in part indirectly by enhancing norepinephrine release

A

PPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Have both direct and indirect alpha- and beta-adrnergic activity

A

Ephedrine and pseudoephedrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Ephedrine and pseudoephedrine produce more ____________ stimulation than PPA or phenylephrine

A

beta-adrenergic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Toxicity often occurs after PPA ingestion of just

A

2-3 times the therapeutic dose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

slightly less toxic, with symptoms occurring after 45 times the usual therapeutic dose.

A

Pseudoephedrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Clinical presentation of PPA & related decongestants toxicity

A

Hypertension
Headache
Confusion
Seizures
Intracranial hemorrhage
Bradycardia or AV block
Myocardial infarction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

major toxic effect of PPA and other decongestants

A

Hypertension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Hypertension caused by PPA and other decongestants is treated with

A

Phentolamine (alpha-adrenergic antagonist) or Nitroprusside (vasodilator)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Treat hypertension if the diastolic pressure is higher than ________

A

100-105 mmHG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Arrhythmia caused by PPA and other decongestants is treated with

A

Propranolol (non-selective beta blocker) or Esmolol (ultrashort acting B1 blocker)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

may be useful for initial treatment

A

Ipecac-induced emesis

48
Q

may enhance the elimination of PPA, ephedrine, and pseudoephedrine

A

Urinary acidification

49
Q

Urinary acidification may also aggravate myoglobin deposition in the kidney if the patient has ___________

A

rhabdomyolysis

50
Q

the result from the death of muscle fibers and release of their contents into the bloodstream

A

rhabdomyolysis

51
Q

Theophylline IUPAC name

A

1-3-dimethylxanthine

52
Q

Caffeine IUPAC name

A

1,3,7-trimethylxanthine

53
Q

Theobromine IUPAC name

A

3,7-dimethylxanthine

54
Q

widely used for the treatment of asthma (and for COPD)

A

Methylxanthine

55
Q

used to treat bronchospasm, congestive heart failure, and neonatal apnea

A

IV infusions of aminophylline

56
Q

Commonly used orally in sustained-release preparations

A

Theo-Dur, Slo-phyllin, Theobid

57
Q

Mechanism of toxicity of Theophylline

A

Inhibit phosphodiesterase at high levels, increasing cAMP
Stimulate beta-adrenergic receptors
Release endogenous catecholamines
An antagonist of adenosine receptors

58
Q

antagonist of adenosine receptors

A

Theophylline

59
Q

How many tablets of theophylline may cause toxic effects?

A

20-30 tablets

60
Q

Acute single dose of 8-10 mg/kg will produce a therapeutic level of __________

A

15-20 mg/L

61
Q

Acute oral overdose of more than 50 mg/kg may potentially result in a level _____________

A

above 100 mg/L

62
Q

Therapeutic dose of theophylline

A

10-20 mg/L

63
Q

Dose of theophylline used for bronchodilation only

A

5-10 mg/L

64
Q

Acute single overdose of theophylline

A

–Tremor, Anxiety
–Tachycradia
–Hypokalemia, Hypophosphatemia
–Hyperglycemia
–Metabolic acidosis
–Ventricular arrhythmias
–Status epilepticus, seizures (serum levels > 100 mg/L)

65
Q

Chronic intoxication of theophylline

A

–Vomiting is common
–Tachycardia
–Hypokalemia
–Hyperglycemia
–Hypotension (rare)
–Seizures (serum levels, 40-60 mg/L….)

66
Q

T/F: Theophylline-induced seizures are resistant to most anti-seizure drugs

A

TRUE

67
Q

Acute single overdose of theophylline causes seizure if the serum level is _______

A

> 100 mg/L

68
Q

Chronic intoxication of theophylline causes seizure if the serum level is _______

A

40-60 mg/L

69
Q

Theophylline antidote

A

● Propanolol, 0.01-0.03 mg/kg IV
● Esmolol, 25-50 µg/kg/min

70
Q

Use beta blockers cautiously in patients with a prior history of ____________

A

asthma or wheezing

71
Q

First line in the tx of acute exacerbation of BA primary reliever medication

A

Short acting rapid onset
● Salbutamol
● Terbutaline
● Metaproterenol

72
Q

Primary reliever medication

A

Short acting rapid onset
● Salbutamol
● Terbutaline
● Metaproterenol

73
Q

Short acting rapid onset

A

● Salbutamol
● Terbutaline
● Metaproterenol

74
Q

prophylactic agent (acute attacks)
for controlling nocturnal attacks

A

Long acting slow onset (Salmeterol)

75
Q

Usually given through inhalation

A

Long acting with rapid onset (Formoterol)

76
Q

Long acting with rapid onset

A

Formoterol

77
Q

Long acting slow onset

A

Salmeterol

78
Q

reserved for special situations (cardiac stimulation)

A

Bronchodilators – Non-selective

79
Q

For severe asthma

A

Terbutaline

80
Q

Epinephrine dose when inhaled

A

320g per puff

81
Q

Epinephrine mechanisms

A

● activates alpha1→ vasoconstriction
● activates beta1→ increases the heart rate
● activates beta2→ increases the bronchodilation

82
Q

Lower potency than epinephrine and isoproterenol.

A

Ephedrine

83
Q

Stimulates adrenergic receptors by increasing the activity of norepinephrine

A

Ephedrine

84
Q

Isoproterenol other name

A

isoprenaline

85
Q

Isopropylamine analogue of epinephrine

A

Isoproterenol

86
Q

Isoproterenol dose if inhaled

A

80–120 g

87
Q

Common adr of isoproterenol

A

Tachycardia

88
Q

prototype of anti-cholinergic

A

Atropine

89
Q

competitively block the muscarinic receptors that prevent the binding of acetylcholine, thus blocking the contraction of the airway smooth muscle

A

Anticholinergic/Antimuscarinic

90
Q

•more useful in COPD than in asthma
•has a better safety profile compared to β2 agonists

A

Anticholinergic/Antimuscarinic

91
Q

Quaternary ammonium derivative of atropine

A

Ipratropium bromide (Atrovent)

92
Q

Longer-acting selective anti-muscarinic agent

A

Tiotropium (Spiriva)

93
Q

stabilizes the membrane of the mast cells by increasing inward conduction of membrane to chloride ions, thus inhibiting cellular activation

A

Mast cell stabilizers

94
Q

Adr of mast cell stabilizers when given alone

A

Bronchospasm

95
Q

Preadministration of ________ is needed to prevent bronchospasm

A

B2 agonist

96
Q

Prophylaxis of exercised induced asthma

A

Cromolyn sodium

97
Q

Also used in allergic rhinoconjunctivitis

A

Cromolyn sodium

98
Q

are not for acute attacks or during the attack, only as prophylaxis

A

Mast cell stabilizers

99
Q

inhibits 5 lipoxygenase, thereby preventing leukotriene synthesis

A

Zileuton (Zyflo)

100
Q

Adr of Lipoxygenase inhibitor

A

Hepatotoxicity

101
Q

prevents the binding of LTD4 and C4 to cysteinyl leukotriene 1 (CysLT1) receptor, thus inhibiting its effects on airways

A

Montelukast (Singulair) & Zafirlukast (Accolate)

102
Q

used when leukotriene is released

A

Leukotriene receptor blockers

103
Q

Adr of Leukotriene receptor blockers

A

Churg Strauss Syndrome

104
Q

disorder marked by blood vessel inflammation

A

Churg Strauss Syndrome

105
Q

acts as an anti-inflammatory agent by inhibiting phospholipase A2

A

Corticosteroids

106
Q

the most effective way to decrease the systemic adverse effects of corticosteroid therapy

A

Aerosol treatment

107
Q

helps in the production of Arachidonic acid that will be acted on by the COX enzymes

A

Phospholipase A2

108
Q

Inhaled topical corticosteroids can cause

A

Oropharyngeal candidiasis

109
Q

Beclomethasone average daily dose is

A

4 puffs twice a day

110
Q

Beclomethasone: Average daily dose of 4 puffs twice a day is equivalent _____________ of oral prednisone for controlling asthma.

A

10-15 mg/day

111
Q

Antagonize NMDA Receptor → anti-cholinergic activity

A

Dextromethorphan

112
Q

Poisoned with DM then exhibits opioid intoxication

A

Give 0.4-2 mg IV of Naloxone.

113
Q

ADR of Isoproterenol

A

Tachycardia

114
Q

Dextromethorphan is the d-isomer of

A

3-methoxy-N-methylmorphinan

115
Q

Oropharyngeal candidiasis management

A

Gargle water and spit after each inhaled treatment.

PHCT MIDTERMS (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions