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Patho Exam 4 > Respiratory Conditions > Flashcards

Respiratory Conditions Flashcards

0
Q

What would the FEV1/FCV test be used to diagnose ?

A

COPD and asthma

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1
Q

What is the FEV1/FCV test and what are the normal %’s

A

this stands for Volume that has been exhaled at the end of the first second of forced expiration
And Forced vital capacity: the determination of the vital capacity from a maximally forced expiratory effort

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2
Q

What is the normal level for sodium

A

135 to 145

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3
Q

What is the normal level for potassium

A

3.5-5

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4
Q

With the normal one for calcium

A

8.8–10.5

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5
Q

What is a normal GFR and what level would indicate liver failure

A

100–120

If it is below 60 is indicative of kidney failure

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6
Q

What is gas transport

A

Delivery of O2 to cells and removal of CO2 from cells

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7
Q

What three things is gas transport dependent on?

A

Ventilation
Diffusion
Perfusion

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8
Q

Define ventilation

A

Minute volume equals respirations. Rate X’s tidal volume

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9
Q

Describe diffusion

A

The movement of gases between air spaces in the Longs and The bloodstream

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10
Q

Describe perfusion

A

the movement of blood into and out of the capillary beds of the lungs to body organs and tissues.

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11
Q

Which stuck in gas transport is reliant on an intact cardiovascular system

A

Perfusion

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12
Q

What are some factors that could negatively influence ventilation

A

Airway resistance
Noncompliance
Decreased mobility of the best wall

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13
Q

How is parasympathetic stimulation affect ventilation

A

Bronchoconstriction which would cause airway resistance to increase

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14
Q

How does sympathetic stimulation affect ventilation?

A

Bronchodilation would occur changing resistance in the airway

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15
Q

What are some factors of ventilation compliance

A

Elasticity of the lung tissue

Mobility of the chest wall

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16
Q

How is mobility of the chest wall affected by one’s age?

A

Chest wall compliance increases in children while chest wall compliance decreases with the elderly

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17
Q

How much O2 transportation occurs in the plasma

A

3%

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18
Q

How much O2 transport occurs on saturated hemoglobin?

A

97%

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19
Q

PaO2 isn’t abbreviation for what?

A

The partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood

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20
Q

What is the definition of SaO2?

A

The oxygen saturation (Sao2) is the percentage of the available hemoglobin that is bound to oxygen and can be measured using a device called an oximeter.

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21
Q

What is a normal hemoglobin concentration value

A

15g/dl of blood

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22
Q

On the oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve a shift to the left would indicate what?

A

Increased affinity which means hemoglobin is holding onto O2

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23
Q

On The Oxyhemoglobin dissociation curve a shift to the RIGHT would indicate what?

A

Shift to the right would indicate decreased affinity to O2 or in another words hemoglobin is releasing O2

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24
Q

In terms of ventilation with increased resistance but what happened to flow?

A

Flow of air in ventilation would be decreased

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25
Q

What are the major contributing factors that affect oxygen transport

A

PH of the blood
PCO2 (carbon dioxide partial pressure)
Temperature

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26
Q

How is CO2 transported

A

5 to 10% is transported in plasma as bicarbonate

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27
Q

What is the normal pH of blood

A

7.35–7.45

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28
Q

What is the normal level of PaCO2 in an adult

A

35–45 mmhg

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29
Q

In the adult what is the normal PaO2

A

80–100 mmHg

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30
Q

And a healthy adult what is a normal HCO3 value

A

22–26 Milliequivalent’s/ liter

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31
Q

What is the normal SAT 02

A

95–100%

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32
Q

What are some major respiratory responses in the elderly population?

A

Decreased elasticity and recoil of lung tissue
Lung tissue expands easier but does not recoil as was well
Stiffer chest wall

Decreased vital capacity
Hypertrophy Of mucous glands
Decreased intercostal muscle tone
Decreased ciliary action and inability to cough

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33
Q

What is the definition of ventilatory compliance?

A

Ease of inflation related to elasticity of lung tissue and mobility of the chest wall

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34
Q

What are the major signs and symptoms of respiratory distress?

A 
Loss of consciousness and anxiety
Cyanosis
Posture(tripod position)
A/P 1:2 no barrel chest
Rate and depth of respirations
Use of accessory muscles
The change in breeding patterns
Dyspnea
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35
Q

Describe dyspnea

A

Breathlessness

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36
Q

What are the major O2 delivery devices?

A

Nasal cannula
Mask
Rebreather mask

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37
Q

How many years of oxygen can be delivered via a nasal cannula

A

2–4 L

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38
Q

What is the technical term for a buildup of CO2?

A

Hypercapnia

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39
Q

How would you define hypo ventilation

A

Decreased rate or depth of respirations
Buildup of CO2
PCO2 greater than 45 mm HG

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40
Q

How do you define hyperventilation

A

Increased minute volume
Frequent sighing
Too much CO2 a blown off (CO2 greater than 35 mm of hemoglobin)

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41
Q

How would you define hypercapnia

A

PCO2 greater than 45 mm HG

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42
Q

What is the common etiologies of hypercapnia?

A 
Respiratory depression(drugs)
Problems in the mid Dula due to infection or injury
Neuromuscular disease
COPD
Sleep apnea
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43
Q

What is the main clinical manifestation of hypercapnia?

A

Decreased level of consciousness

44
Q

What is hypoxemia

A

Lack of O2 in blood (satO2 less than 95%)

45
Q

What are the common etiologies of hypoxemia ?

A

Decreased O2 delivery to the Alveoli
Change in 02 carrying capacity
Problems with the diffusion into Alveolar capillaries
Imbalance of ventilation and perfusion (V/Q RATIO)

46
Q

What is the V /Q ratio ? And it’s normal value ?

A

Ventilation to perfusion ratio in regards to air that reaches the alveoli versus blood that reaches the alveoli
4 L alveolar ventilation/5 L blood flow

47
Q

What does a high V/Q value mean? And what is the value ?

A

Hi ventilation without perfusion this is indicative of a pulmonary embolus

4 L of your ventilation /5 L blood flow

48
Q

What does a lower VQ ratio mean? And what would be the lab value ?

A

Poor ventilation with moderate perfusion.
Pneumonia, asthma, COPD, (responds to O2 therapy as some ventilation is occurring)

2 L of your ventilation/5 L blood flow

49
Q

What is the treatment for hypoxemia ?

A

Give the patient O2 and fix the underlying cause of hypoxemia.

50
Q

In regards to the VA/Q shunt what is happening

A

No ventilation/ ok perfusion.

this will not respond O2 therapy and is known as acute respiratory distress syndrome or ARDS

51
Q

How is acute respiratory failure defined?

A

But in adequate gas exchange. PaO2 greater than 50 and PaCO2 less than 50

52
Q

What are the 4 most common etiologies of acute respiratory failure

A

Pneumonia,
surgery,
trauma,
pulmonary edema.

53
Q

How do you treat acute respiratory failure

A

Ultimately you need to reverse the cause and support respirations

54
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of acute respiratory distress syndrome

A

The classic signs and symptoms of ARDS are marked dyspnea; rapid, shallow breathing; inspiratory crackles; respiratory alkalosis; decreased lung compliance; hypoxemia unresponsive to oxygen therapy (refractory hypoxemia); and diffuse alveolar infiltrates seen on chest radiographs, without
688
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evidence of cardiac disease. Symptoms develop progressively, as follows:

Dyspnea and hypoxemia ↓ Hyperventilation and respiratory alkalosis ↓ Decreased tissue perfusion, organ dysfunction, and metabolic acidosis ↓ Increased work of breathing, decreased tidal volume, and hypoventilation ↓ Respiratory acidosis and worsening hypoxemia ↓ Hypotension, decreased cardiac output, death

55
Q

What is chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)

A

It is the coexistence of chronic bronchitis and emphysema and is an important cause of hypoxemic and hypercapnic respiratory failure.
This is an obstructive disorder of the Lungs

56
Q

What are the three types of obstructive lung disease

A

Asthma chronic bronchitis chronic emphysema COPD

57
Q

What are some common triggers for an asthma attack

A 
Air pollution 
medication 
cigarette smoke 
woodsmoke 
stress 
exercise 
upper respiratory infections 
menstruation
 GERD
58
Q

With the pathogenesis of asthma?

A

Inflammation

59
Q

What is the early response of an asthma attack

A

Type one hypersensitivity. Release of inflammatory mediators leads to vasodilation and increased capillary. Ability. Adema, bronchoconstriction, and increased mucus production obstruct the airflow

60
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of an asthma attack

A

Coughing, wheezing, anxiety, tachycardia, cyanosis, level of consciousness

61
Q

What is the first-line treatment for an asthma attack

A

Inhaled corticosteroid (Flovent and Asthmacort)

62
Q

What is a long-term treatment for asthma

A

Long acting beta agonist Lucot trying modifiers, singular.

63
Q

In terms of an asthma action plan green indicates what?

A

Patient is doing well/controlled symptoms

64
Q

In terms of an asthma patient yellow indicates what?

A

Trouble with activity/added medication

65
Q

In regards to an asthma patient and their action plan read indicates what

A

The patient should seek medical attention

66
Q

What is the leading cause of COPD

A

Smoking and a genetic component

67
Q

What is the fourth leading cause of death

A

COPD

68
Q

Chronic bronchitis is characterized by what

A

Excessive mucus secretions, cough producing sputum, at least three months to two years. Sputum is Thick and obstructs airflow

69
Q

What are the pathophysiology behind chronic bronchitis?

A 
Inhaled Particles and gases
Bronchial edema and goblet cell hypertrophy
Excessive mucus
Low V/Q
Increased CO2
Central chemoreceptors/hypercapnia
Cyanosis
Congestive heart failure or
70
Q

What are the four classifications of asthma

A

Intermittent
Mild persistent
Moderate persistent
Severe

71
Q

What would my FEV be if I were an asthma patient in the green zone

A

80 to 100%

72
Q

FEV if in yellow zone ?

A

50–80%

73
Q

Red zone FEV ?

A

Less than 50%

74
Q

Was the primary cause of a pneumothorax

A

Spontaneous

75
Q

What is a secondary causes of a pneumothorax

A

Traumatic events and diseases

76
Q

Name some clinical manifestations of emphysema

A

Decreased activity tolerance and dyspnea

77
Q

Define emphysema

A

Enlargement of gas that exchange airways company but instruction of the walls and without obvious fibrosis, air trapping, prolonged expiration, impaired gas exchange

78
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of pneumothorax

A

Chest pain and dyspnea
Breath sounds are unequal or absence on one side
Subcutaneous emphysema air under the skin
Jugular vein distention would be seen with a tension pneumothorax
CXR is definitive

79
Q

What is a pneumothorax

A

Collapse of the lungs

80
Q

What is atelectasis

A

Collapse of the alveoli due to compression absorption or surfactant impairment

81
Q

What are the clinical manifestations of atelectasis

A

Coughing fever leukocytosis coughing.

82
Q

In regards to post op patients what can we do to prevent atelectasis

A

Encourage the patient to cough and use incentive spirometry.

83
Q

What is Marfan syndrome

A

Tall skinny emails that have pulmonary lack both at rest and during exercise

84
Q

Where’s the secondary causes pulmonary pneumothorax

A

Genetic diseases such as Cushing syndrome, or gunshot and knife wounds, cancer and tumors may also cause this

85
Q

How do you treat ARDS

A

I see you, ventilator long-term, treat the underlying cause of ARDS, please patient in the prone position, inhale nitric oxide

86
Q

Who is at risk for infant respiratory distress syndrome

A

Premature neonates born 25 weeks or less

87
Q

What causes infant respiratory distress syndrome

A

Lack of surfactant leaves the pulmonary edema, Atelectasis and profound hypoxemia

88
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of the tension pneumothorax

A

Tracheal deviation
Chest pain and dyspnea
Plearle pain that changes with the cough
Jugular vein distention

89
Q

What is pleural effusion

A

Fluid in the plural space

90
Q

What are the three types of pleural effusion

A

Empyema
Transudative
Hemorrhagic

91
Q

How do you treat a pleural effusion

A

Drain off the fluid with a thoracentesis or chest tube normal you should see 10–20 L of fluid

92
Q

What are some clinical manifestations of atelectasis

A

Cough and fever with increased white blood cell count and leukocytosis
Which may lead to pneumonia

93
Q

What is pulmonary Adema

A

Excess fluid buildup in The Alveoli leading to impaired ventilation and gas exchange

94
Q

What is the main clinical manifestation of pulmonary edema and the leading cause

A

Pink frothy sputum, left sided heart failure or leads to backflow into lungs

95
Q

What is the pathogenesis of ARDS

A

Massive pulmonary inflammation, widespread pulmonary edema, ventilation and perfusion a mismatch V/Q 0/5, acute respiratory failure, pulmonary fibrosis,SRIS, multiple organ failure or mods

96
Q

What is the most common cause of death from an infection

A

Pneumonia

97
Q

What is the etiology of pneumonia

A

Viral; influenza bacterial; strep pneumonia

98
Q

What are the 3 pathogenesis of pneumonia

A

Aspiration,
inhalation of infectious agents,
contamination from systemic circulation

99
Q

How will pneumonia represent the elderly

A

Hey symptomatic or changes in level of consciousness

100
Q

How is pneumonia treated

A

Vaccines are given to the elderly, younger with asthma, and Those with autoimmune diseases

101
Q

How much money you spend annually on tuberculosis

A

9 million

102
Q

What is epidemiology of tuberculosis

A

One third of the worlds population

103
Q

What is the cause of tuberculosis

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

104
Q

Clinical manifestations of tuberculosis

A

Persistent cough, profuse night sweats, Progressive weight loss

105
Q

Evaluation of tuberculosis

A

Tuberculin skin test
For acid-fast bacilli
And treatment for 6 to 9 months

106
Q

Most common site of DVT

A

Lungs pulmonary embolism

107
Q

How do you diagnose a pulmonary embolism

A

Lung scan or CT scan

Patho Exam 4 (2 decks)

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