Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

what are the classic features of Asthma

A

wheezing and episodic SOB, worse at night/on exercise, cough/nocturnal cough, tight chest, decreased FEV1 relieve by B2 agonist

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2
Q

what factors should be specificall asked about in Asthma history taking

A

Precipitants (cold air, exercise, emotion, allergens, infection, drugs), diurnal variation in symptoms and peak flow (morning dip of peak flow common), exercise tolerance, acid reflux (known association with asthma), other atopic disease/family hx atopy, home (pets/carpet, feathered furnishings), occupation, days per week off school/work, how often waking up at night (sign of serious asthma)

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3
Q

what are the typical features of occupational asthma?

A

something at work triggering, better at weekends/holidays, not necessarily getting better in evenings as can last hours after trigger

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4
Q

what are some of the most common precipitants of an asthma attack?

A

environmental allergens (house dust mite, grass pollen, pets), cold air, emotion, viruses (rhinovirus, parsinfuenza, RSV), atmospheric pollution (sulphur dioxide, ozone, particulate matter), drugs (NSAIDS, B-Blockers), dusts/vapour and fumes (eg perfumes, cigarette smoke)

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5
Q

what are the differences between extrinsic and intrinsic asathma

A

extrinsic, mostly early onset, most frequent in atopic individuals. Can develop late onset, especially from causes such as occupational agents, aspirin intolerence or B2-adrenoreceptor agonists for hypertension/angina)

Intrinsic, usually late onset, often middle age, no causitive agent can be identified but cold exposure and exertion may trigger

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6
Q

what are the typical features of an acute severe asthma attack

A

RR >25 breaths/minute, tachycardia, PEF < 50% of predicted normal/best, widespread expiratory wheeze, inability to complete sentence in one breath, pulsus paradoxus

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7
Q

what are the typical features of a life-threatening asthma attack

A

silent chest, cyanosis, feeble respiratory effort, exhaustion, confusion, coma, bradycardia/hypotension, PEF <30% normal/best or 150L/min

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8
Q

what might the ABG findings of a severe asthma attack be?

A

High PaCO2 >6kPa, severe hypoxaemia (PaO2 < 8kpa despite O2 therapy, low and falling arterial pH

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9
Q

what is pulsus paradoxus

A

abnormal fall in bp on inspiration. Normally SBP and pulse pressure (SBP-DBP) fall during inspiration due to increased pulmonary intravascular volume but not more than 10mmHg

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10
Q

what conditions may pulsus paradoxus be present

A

respiratory, pulmonary embolism
tension pneumothorax
asthma
chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

cardiac Peridcardial effusion, cardiac tamponade
constrictive pericarditis
pericardial effusion
cardiogenic shock

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11
Q

explain the cellular mechanisms involved in asthma

A

T1 hypersensitivity, mast cells release histamine, T cells (particularly Th2) in the mucosal cellular infiltrate release IL-4 and IL-13, eosinophiles migrate in response to chemotactic factors releasing leukotrienes (LTC4 and LTD4), these constrict airways and likely are responsible for remodelling bronchii. Stimulation of afferent nerves, release of local neuropeptides which mediate odema and mucus hypersecretion, inflammation of bronchial wall causing airflow restriction by depletion of surfactant in small airways making opening difficult.

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12
Q

what will be the physiological features of lungs with chronic asthma

A

bronchoconstriction (increased responsiveness of bronchial smooth muscle), hypersecretion of mucus and mucus plugging, mucosal odema (narrowing of airway lumen), infiltration of bronchial mucosa by eosinophils, mast cells, lymphoid cells and macrophages, focal necrosis of airway epithelium, collagen deposition beneath bronchial epithelium in long standing cases, sputum containing charcot-leyden crystals from eosinophil granules and curshman spirals (mucus plugs from small airways(

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13
Q

Early phase asthma is characterised by …..

A

Early phase asthma is characterised by production of spasmogens (histamine, prostaglandin D2, leukotrienes C4 and D4 leading to bronchospasm

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14
Q

… is characterised by production of spasmogens (histamine, prostaglandin D2, leukotrienes C4 and D4 leading to bronchospasm

A

Early phase asthma is characterised by production of spasmogens (histamine, prostaglandin D2, leukotrienes C4 and D4 leading to bronchospasm

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15
Q

Late phase asthma is characterised by ……

A

Late phase asthma is characterised by production of chemotaxins (LB4, PAF) which attract leukocytes, especially eosinophils and mononuclear cells leading to inflammation of airway and hyperreactivity

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16
Q

…… is characterised by production of chemotaxins (LB4, PAF) which attract leukocytes, especially eosinophils and mononuclear cells leading to inflammation of airway and hyperreactivity

A

Late phase asthma is characterised by production of chemotaxins (LB4, PAF) which attract leukocytes, especially eosinophils and mononuclear cells leading to inflammation of airway and hyperreactivity

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17
Q

what is the definition of COPD?

A

Airflow limitation that is not fully reversible, usually progressive and associated with abnormal inflammatory response of lungs to noxious particles

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18
Q

What are the 3 main pathologies contributing to COPD

A

emphysema (destruction of air spaces and loss of elastic recoil), chronic bronchitis (mucus hypersecretion and luminal narrowing of airways) and bronchiolitis (narrowing of small airways by inflammation/scarring)

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19
Q

how would emphysema be defined

A

permanent dilation of any part of the respiratory acinus (distal to terminal bronchiole) with destruction of tissue in the absence of scarring

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20
Q

what are the pathalogical features of emphysema

A

parenchymal destruction by extracellular proteases due to reduction of normal defensive protease inhibitors, loss of elastic recoil as connective tissue in alveolar walls is destroyed, reduction in area available for gas exchange. Reduced O2 uptake despite increased ventilation. Maintain O2 blood level but become breathless on slightest exertion and become hypoxic (T1 resp failure). Large, voluminous lungs with large, dilated air spaces

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21
Q

What are the 2 main forms of emphysema? what are their characteristics?

A

Centriacinar, most common, most cases smoking related, most often in upper lobes, dilation of respiratory bronchioles at centre of respiratory acinus, dilated air spaces surrounded by normal alveoli

Panacinar, involves whole respiratory acinus, first affecting terminal alveoli and alveolar ducts, associated with smoking but more with a1 trypsinase deficiency, affects both upper and lower lobes

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22
Q

how is chronic bronchitis defined?

A

productive cough on most days for 3 months of year for at least 2 succesive years

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23
Q

what is the pathogenesis of chronic bronchitis

A

secretion of abnormal amounts of mucus causing plugging and narrowing of airway lumen, hypertrophy and hyperplasia of bronchial mucus glands, inflammation typically not present although may occur from repeated RTI, can lead to squamous metaplasia in pts with repeated infections. This leads to alveolar hypoventilation, hypoxaemia and hypercapnia (T2 RF). Individuals will typically be cyanosed but not usually having distressing dyspnoea. Hypoxic pulmonary vasoconstriction may cause hypertension and RHF (cor pulmonale)

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24
Q

hereditary a1 antitrypsin deficiency accounts for around … of emphysema cases

25
Q

what proportion of pts with COPD smoke(d)?

26
Q

what are the risk factors for COPD

A
Cigarette smoke 
Age older than 40 years 
Exposure to occupational dust and chemicals 
Exposure to indoor air pollution 
Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
27
Q

what features differentiate COPD from asthma

A

age >35, smoking, dyspnoea is constant, no marked diurnal/day to day variation, sputum production

28
Q

what are the typical symptoms of somebody with COPD?

A

Cough, sputum production, wheeze, breathlessness, frequent chest infections, worsened by cold/foggy weather/pollution, severe breatlessness even with mild exercise

29
Q

what will be the clinical findings in somebody with COPD

A

wheeze throughout chest, tachypnoeic with prolonged expiration, use of accesory muscles, intercostal indrawing on inspiration and pursing of lips on expiration, hyperinflated lungs, hyperresonance on percussion of liver and heart, barrel shaped chest, tracheal tug

With hypercapnia, peripheral vasodilation, bounding pulse, CO2 flap

30
Q

what will be the clinical findings in somebody with Asthma

A

audiable, widespread polyphonic wheeze, hyper-inflated chest

31
Q

what should be the ABG findings in a patient suffering an acute asthma attack?

A

normal/slightly reduce PaO2 and reduced PaCO2. If PaCO2 is raised transfer to HDU/ITU for ventilation

32
Q

what will a chest xray be used for in asthma

A

exclude pneumothorax/infection

33
Q

what will be the clinical features of a pt with bronchiectasis

A

copious amounts of purulent (bad smelling discoloured) sputum, recurrent cough and infections, intermittent haemoptysis

34
Q

what may be the clinical findings of a patient with bronchiectasis

A

clubbing, course inspiratory crackles over infected areas, wheeze

35
Q

what investigations may be performed on a pt with bronchiecstasis

A

sputum culture, CXR, HRCT chest, spirometry (showing obstructive pattern), bronchoscopy to locate site of haemoptysis and exclude obstruction, CF sweat test, serum immunoglobulins

36
Q

what are some of the common causes of bronchiecstasis

A

Congenital (young’s syndrome, Kartagener’s syndrome, post infective (measles, TB, pneumonia, sarcoidosis, immunological post-lung transplant and allergic bronchopulmonaryaspergillosis, immune deficiencies (primary and IgA and IgG2)

37
Q

symptoms of pneumonia

A

Fever/rigor, dyspnoea, malaise, nausea, productive cough, haemoptysis, pleuritic chest pain

38
Q

what will be the signs of pneumonia on examination of the chest

A

diminished expansion, dull percussion, increased tactile vocal fremitus/resonance, bronchial breathing, pleural rub

39
Q

explain the CURB65 criteria for assessing severity of Pneumonia

A

Confusion,
Urea > 7 mmol/l
RR >30
BP65

0 or 1 likely suitable for home treatment and oabx

2, hospital treatment

> 3 assess for ICU

40
Q

what organisms commonly cause CAP

A

Strep pneumonaie most common, then H.Influenzae (spcially in elderly with comorbidities eg COPD), mycoplasma pneumoniae, staph aureus, legionella (specially if foreign travel), Moraxella catarhallis and chlamydia. chlamydia and myc oplasma common in young rare in elderly. Rarely gram -ve/anaerobes rare, viruses in about 15%

41
Q

what organisms commonly cause HAP

A

most commonly g-ve enterobacteria and staph aureus, less commonly E.Coli, klebsiella, pseudomonas, bacteriodes and clostridia

42
Q

What abx would be chosen for pt with CAP

A

mild, oral amoxicillin AND eryth or fluoroquinalone. Ampicillin/eryth if IVI req

severe; IV co-amox or cephalosporin eg cefuroxime and eryth

43
Q

what abx would be chosen for HAP

A

aminoglyclaside (eg gent) AND antipseudomonal penicillin IV or 3rd gen cephalosporin

44
Q

what factors predispose to pneumonia

A

viral infection with influenza/parainfluenza(staph aureus), hospitalised, smoking, alcohol excess, bronchiectasis, bronchial obstruction, immunosuppression, IV drugs, oesophageal obstruction, pets, travel

45
Q

what is the typical presentation of pneumothorax

A

possibly nothing if small, sudden onset pleuritic pain, progressively increasing breathlessness, sudden deterioration COPD/Asthma

46
Q

What might be the signs in somebody with pneumothorax

A

Pallor, tachy, reduced expansion on affected side, reduced/absent breath sounds, increased resonance on percussion, decreased/absent vocal resonance, tracheal deviation away from affected side in tension pneumothorax.

47
Q

what are the typical risk factors of pneumothorax

A

asthma, COPD, TB, pneumonia, lung abscess, carcinoma, CF, lung fibrosis, ehlers-danlos, marfans, trauma,

48
Q

what are the main histological types of lunc carcinoma and their incidence

A

squamous cell (50%), adenocarcinoma inc bronchoalveolar (20%), small cell/oat cell anaplastic (20%), large cell anaplastic (10%)

Clinically generally separated into small cell and none-small cell due to prognosis/treatment differences

49
Q

what is the mean survival rate in pts with none small cell LC

A

50% 2 year survival without spread, 10% with

50
Q

what is the mean survival rate in pts with SCLC

A

median survival less than 3 months if untreated, 1-1.5 years treated

51
Q

What are the causes of SOB

A

Lungs -airways (Asthma/COPD/Tumours/Bronchiectasis)

  • Parenchyma (atypical pneumonia/TB, fibrosis (pneumoconiosis/asbestos/all alveolitis), inflammatory (sarcoid/RA/Lupus)
  • Circulation (PE/vasculitis)
  • Pleural (pneumothorax/Pleural effusion/asbestos)

Cardiac (Failure, myopathy, mitral valve disease, constrictive pericarditis)

Neuromuscular (G.Barre, M.Gravis)

Structural (kyphoscoliosis)

52
Q

What are the criteria of CURB65 score. How do they relate to severity?

A

Confusion (AMT 7, resp >30, BP 65

score of 5, risk of death 27.8%, 0.6%

0-1, treat as OP, oral amoxy/clarith
2-3, consider hospital
4-5, hospital plus consider ITU

Mild oral amoxy/macrolide (claryth), sever but won’t go to hospital offer both, severe in hospital plus IV B-lacamase (co-amox) plus macrolide

53
Q

what are the commonest causes of bronchiectasis

A

childhood infections (whooping cough, measles, pneumonia), CF, allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosus often associated with Asthma)

54
Q

features of churg strauss

A

Asthma, eosinophilia, mono/polyneuropathy, spots/lesions on CXR, sinus probs, WBC outside blood vessel (from tissue sample) Any 2 of above. Antibodies blood test can also be done

55
Q

What are the criteria for Churg-Strauss syndrome

A

Any 2/3 of Asthma, eosinophilia, mono/polyneuropathy, spots/lesions on CXR, WBC outside blood vessels (from biopsy). Anbody blood test can also be done

56
Q

What is the treatment regime for TB

A

Rifampicin, isoniazid (6/12), 2 additional pyrazinamide and ethambutol daily 2/12

Extrapulmonary TB may be longer and steroids eg brain

57
Q

How can somebody with TB expect to recover

A

Usually not infectious after about 2/52, may be weeks/months before feeling better and important to take course as directed as resistance will mean longer course of druges. Rare to return if treatment taken as advised

58
Q

When should latent TB be treated

A

<35, HIV, healthcare worker, scars on CXR

59
Q

What advice should be given regarding side effects/interactions of TB medication

A

Rifampicin interacts with COCP, use other protection

May rarely damage liver, LFTs before starting and monitor. Ethambutol can cause eye damage. Contact if being sick, yellow skin/eyes, tingling hands/feet, rash, blurred/altered vision, unexplained fever