Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

Signs of COPD on Examination

A

Inspection

Inhalers

Peak flow meter

Nebuliser

Pursed lip breathing

Splinting diaphragm

Cushingoid

Cyanosed

Cachetic

Hands

Tar staining

CO2 retention flap

Face

Plethora - polycythaemia

Central cyanosis

Chest

Barrel-shaped

Decreased cricosternal distance

Decreased expansion bilaterally

Resonant PN

Auscultation: reduced breath sounds, expiratory wheeze, prolonged expiratory wheeze

Hyperexpansion

Decreased cricosternal distance

Loss of cardiac dullness

Palpable liver edge

Extras

Cor pulmonale: Raised JVP, left parasternal heave, loud P2 and S3, mid-diastolic murmur of tricuspid regurg, ascites, peripheral oedema, hepatomegaly (pulsatile)

Significant negatives: CO2 retention, Cor pulmonale, clubbing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Differential for COPD

A

Chronic asthma

Bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Definition of COPD

A

Disease state characterised by airflow limitation that is not fully reversible.

It encompasses both emphysema and chronic bronchitis. The airflow limitation is usually progressive and is associated with an abnormal inflammatory response of the lungs to noxious particles or gases.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Management of COPD

A

Conservative / General management

smoking cessation advice

Pulmonary rehabilitation programme

annual influenza vaccination

one-off pneumococcal vaccination

Bronchodilator therapy

a short-acting beta2-agonist (SABA) or short-acting muscarinic antagonist (SAMA) is first-line treatment

for patients who remain breathless or have exacerbations despite using short-acting bronchodilators the next step is determined by the FEV1

FEV1 > 50%

long-acting beta2-agonist (LABA), for example salmeterol, or:

long-acting muscarinic antagonist (LAMA), for example tiotropium

FEV1 < 50%

LABA + inhaled corticosteroid (ICS) in a combination inhaler, or:

LAMA

For patients with persistent exacerbations or breathlessness

if taking a LABA then switch to a LABA + ICS combination inhaler

otherwise give a LAMA and a LABA + ICS combination inhaler

Oral theophylline

NICE only recommends theophylline after trials of short and long-acting bronchodilators or to people who cannot used inhaled therapy

the dose should be reduced if macrolide or fluoroquinolone antibiotics are co-prescribed

Mucolytics

should be ‘considered’ in patients with a chronic productive cough and continued if symptoms improve

Cor pulmonale

features include peripheral oedema, raised jugular venous pressure, systolic parasternal heave, loud P2

use a loop diuretic for oedema, consider long-term oxygen therapy

ACE-inhibitors, calcium channel blockers and alpha blockers are not recommended by NICE

Factors which may improve survival in patients with stable COPD

smoking cessation - the single most important intervention in patients who are still smoking

long term oxygen therapy in patients who fit criteria

lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients

Home Emergency Pack (rescue)

Antibiotics

Surgical Mx

Recurrent pneumotjoraces or large bullae

Bullectomy or lung reduction surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Factors that Improve Patient Survival

A

Factors which may improve survival in patients with stable COPD

Smoking cessation - the single most important intervention in patients who are still smoking

Long term oxygen therapy in patients who fit criteria (15h / day)

Lung volume reduction surgery in selected patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Obstructive spirometry

A

Increased Total Lung Capacity (TLC)

Increased Residual Volume (RV)

FEV1: <80%

FEV1: FVC ratio: 0.7

Decreased transfer factor (not tested on spirometry)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
A

Hyperinflation

>10 posterior ribs

flat diaphragm

DDx: long-standing asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Criteria for LTOT in COPD

A

Offer LTOT to patients with a pO2 of < 7.3 kPa

OR

pO2 of 7.3 - 8 kPa and one of the following:

  • secondary polycythaemia
  • nocturnal hypoxaemia
  • peripheral oedema
  • pulmonary hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

GOLD Staging

A

Stage I - IV

All have FEV1 : FVC ratio <0.7

Mild: FEV1% >80%

Moderate: FEV1% 50-79%

Severe: FEV1% 30-49%

Very Severe: FEV1% <30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

CXR signs of COPD

A

Acute

Consolidation

Pneumothorax

Chronic

Hyperinflation

Pulmonary HTN

Bullae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

BODE Index

A

Body-mass index, airflow Obstruction, Dyspnea, and Exercise

Calculates index of function for COPD patients

Used to long-term outcomes

Four factors to predict risk of death from the disease

Weight loss = bad

Good lung function = good

modified MRC dyspnea scale, less SOB = good

6-min walk test, greater distance = good

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Definition of Chronic Bronchitis

A

Cough productive of sputum on most days for >3 months on 2 or more consecuitive years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Definition of Emphysema

A

Histological description of alveolar wall destruction with airway collapse and air trapping

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Investigations for COPD

A

Invx

spirometry

pulse oximetry

ABG

CXR

ECG: RV strain/hypertrophy

echo: RVH

sputum culture

PFTs

chest CT scan

alpha-1 antitrypsin level

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Signs of Asthma on Chronic Examination

A

Inspection

Inhalers

Peak flow meter

Nebuliser

General: cushingoid

Specific: oral thrush

Chest

Harrison sulcus

Auscultation: Usually normal, may be decreased air enrty and mild wheeze

Significant negatives: CO2 retention, Cor pulmonale, clubbing

Differential:

Pulmonary oedema: cardiac wheeze

COPD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Definition of Asthma

A

Chronic inflammatory airway disease characterised by intermittent airway obstruction and hyper-reactivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Investigations for Asthma

A

Bedisde: PEFR

exhaled nitric oxide

Bloods:

FBC (eosinophilia)

Increased IgE

Aspergillus serology

CXR: hyperinflation

Spirometry: obstructive

Reduced FEV1:FVC ration <0.75

Reduced FEV1

Increased residual volume

>12% improvement with inglaed SABA

PEFR diary

Atopy

Skin-prick testing

RAST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Spirometry results for Asthma

A

Spirometry: obstructive

Reduced FEV1:FVC ration <0.75

Reduced FEV1

Increased residual volume

>12% improvement with inglaed SABA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Management of Asthma

A

General

MDT: GP, specialist nurse, respiratory team

TAME

Technique for inhaler

Avoidance of allergens, smoke, dust

Monitor: peak flow diary

Educate: specialise nurse, develop action plan

Medical

ICS, SABA, LABA, LTRA

Well controlled: no exacerbations, no reliever therapy, no night time waking, <20% diurnal variation, normal lung function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Signs of Pulmonary Fibrosis on Examination

A

General

Clubbing

cushingoid

No sputum

Tachypnoea

Central cyanosis

Evidence of cause:

Rheumatoid arthritis

Sarcoidosis: erythema nodosum

Systemic sclerosis: sclerodactyl, calcinosis, microstomia, beak nose, telangiectasia

SLE: malar rash

Ankylosing spondylitis: kyphosis

Radiation: skin tattoos on chest

Chest

Thoracotomy scar: single lung trasplant

Tracheal shift towards fibrosis: upper lobe

Fine end-inspiratory crackles: No change with coughing

Extras: cor pulmonae

Apex beat

Peripheral oedema

Differential:

Bronchiectasis

Chronic lung abscess

Significant negatives: signs of causes (e.g. RA hands), cor pulmonale, cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Causes of Pulmonary Fibrosis

A

Commonest: idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis

Upper Lobe: PATEN

Pneumoconiosis: coal, silica

Aspergillosis: Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis

TB

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis

Negative, sero-arthopathy

Lower Lobe: STARI

Sarcoidosis

Toxins: BANSME

Asbestosis

Rheumatological: Rheumatoid arthritis, Systemic Lupus Erythematosus, Sjogren’s

Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrosis

BANSME

Bleomycin, Busulfan

Amiodarone

Nitrofurantoin

Sulfasalazine

MEthotrexate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Investigations for Pulmonary Fibrosis

A

Bedside:

PEFR

ECG (RVH)

Bloods

FBC: anaemia exacerbates SOB

ABG: decreased PaO2, Increase PaCO2

Idiopathic PF: increased ESR, increased CRP, ANA+ve in 30%, Rheumatoid factor +ve 10%, Increase Ig

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis: +ve serum precipitins

Connective tissue disease: C3/C4, RF, ANA, scl-70, centromere

Sarcoid: serum ACE, Calcium

Spirometry

Normal or increased FEV1: FVC ratio

Reduced FEV1

Reduced TLC, FVC and RV

TLCO: reduced transfer factor

Imaging

CXR: reticulonodular shadowing, reduced lung volume

HRCT: honeycomb, fibrosis

Echo

Pulmonary hypertension

Bronchoalveolar lavage

Lung biopsy: usual interstitial pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Management of Pulmonary Fibrosis

A

MDT: GP, respiratory team, Physio, Psych, Pallative care, specialist nurse

Specific to Idiopathic Pulmonary Fibrisos: Pirfenidone (an antifibrotic agent)

Acute flare: give 4 weeks of prednisolone

Treat specific cause:

Extrinsic allergic alveolitis: steroids

Sarcoidosis: steroids

Connective tissue disease: steroids

Supportive care

Smoking cessation: most beneficial

Pulmonary rehabilitation

Long term oxygen therapy

Symptomatic relief: anti-tussive (codiene), Heart failure (b-blockers, ACE-i)

Surgery: lung transplant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Signs of Bronchiectasis on Examination

A

General

Clubbing

Sputum pot

Small and young = Cystic fibrosis

Cachexia

Tachypnoea

Evidence of specific cause:

Rheumatoid arthritis: rheumatoid hands

Yellow nails

Cystic fibrosis: Young, nasal polyps

Hypogammaglobulinaemia: splenomegaly

Inflammatory bowel disease: abdo scars

Chest

Thoracotomy scars

Portacath or hickman lines + scars: Cystic fibrosis

Coarse, wet crackles - may change with cough,

Localised patchy crackles = focal consolidation

Widespread crackles = secondary to systemic disease

+/- monophonic wheeze

Dextrocardia –> Primary ciliary dyskinesia

Extras: cor pulmonale

Completion: examine nose for nasal polyps, examine abdo for scars and splenomegaly

Significant negatives: cor pulmonale, specific cause e.g. rheumatoid hands

Differential

Pulmonary fibrosis

Chronic lung abscess

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Causes of Bronchiectasis

A

Congenital

Cystic fibrosis

Primary ciliary dyskinesia (Kartagener’s)

Young’s: azoospermia and bronchiectasis

Hypogammaglobulinaemia: X-linked, CVID, specific antibody def

Acquired

Idiopathic

Post-infectious: pertussis, TB, measles

Obstructive: tumour, foreign body

Associated: Rheumatoid arthritis, ulcerative colitis (and corhn’s), ABPA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Investigations for Bronchiectasis

A

Bedside

PEFR

Urine dip: proteinuria —> amyloidosis

Sputum: MC+S, cytology

Bloods

FBC:

Serum Ig

Aspergillus: RAST, precipitins, IgE, eosinophilia

Precipitins: These tests detect the presence of IgG antibodies to Aspergillus fumigatus

RA: anti-CCP. RF, ANA

Imaging

CXR: tramlines and ring shadows (bunch of grapes)

HRCT:

signet ring sign = thickended dilated bronchi and small adjacent vascular bundle

Pools of mucus in saccular dilatations

Spirometry: obstructive

Other

Bronchoscopy + biopsy

CF sweat test

Aspergillus skin prick testing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Complications of Bronchiectasis

A

Cachexia

Pulmonary HTN

Massive haemoptysis

Type 2 respiratory failure

Amyloidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Management of Bronchiectasis

A

MDT approach: GP, Respiratory team, Dietician, Immunologist, Genetics

Physio:

Postural drainage

Active cycle breathing

Rehabilitation

Medical

Antibiotics: Ciprofloxacin for 7 days, Azithromycin for prophylaxis

Bronchodilators: nebulised salbutamol

Treat underlying cause:

CF: DNAse, Creon, ADEK vitamins

ABPA: steroids

Immune def: IV Ig

Vaccination: flue, pneumococcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Cause of Cystic Fibrosis

A

Autosomal recessive

Mutation in CFTR gene on chromosome 7

Cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductase regulator

Commonly deltaF508

Deletion of three nucleotides = loss of phenylalanine (F)

Decreased luminal CI- secretion and Increased Na resorption leading to viscous secretions

Because chloride is negatively charged, this modifies the electrical potential inside and outside the cell that normally causes cations to cross into the cell. Sodium is the most common cation in the extracellular space. The excess chloride within sweat ducts prevents sodium resorption by epithelial sodium channels and the combination of sodium and chloride creates the salt, which is lost in high amounts in the sweat of individuals with CF. This lost salt forms the basis for the sweat test.

CFTR not only allows chloride ions to be drawn from the cell and into the ASL, but it also regulates another channel called ENac, which allows sodium ions to leave the ASL and enter the respiratory epithelium. CFTR normally inhibits this channel, but if the CFTR is defective, then sodium flows freely from the ASL and into the cell. As water follows sodium, the depth of ASL will be depleted and the cilia will be left in the mucous layer

Bronchioles –> bronchiectasis

Pancreatic duct –> DM, malabsorption

GIT –> Distal intestinal obstruction syndrome

Liver –> gallstone, cirrhosis

Fallopian tubes —> decrease female fertility

Seminal vesicles —> Male infertility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Diagnosing Cystic Fibrosis

A

Immunoreactive trypsinogen on heel-prick (neonatal screening)

AND

Sweat test >60mM Cl- = diagnostic

(false positive in hypothyroidism and Addison’s)

Faecal elastase - test of pancreatic exocrine function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Investigations in Cystic Fibrosis

A

Bloods

FBC, LFTs, clotting, ADEK levels, GGT

Sputum: MC+S

CXR

Diffuse tramlines and rings

Abso USS

Fatty liver, cirrhosis, pancreatitis

Spirometry

Obstruction

Aspergillus serology / skin prick test (20% develop allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Management of Cystic Fibrosis

A

MDT: GP, Gastroenterologist, Chest, Physio, Dietician, Specialist nurse

Portacath insertion

Physio

Postural drainage

Active cycle breathing

Chest

Antibiotics: Prophylaxis and Acute

Mucolytics: DNAse

Segregation from other CF patients, reduce risk of pseudomonas and burkholderia transmission

Advanced disease ==> heart lung transplant

GI

Creon

Overnight feeds to increase nutrition

ADEK supplements

Insulin

Other

Fertility and genetic counselling

DEXA and osteoporosis screen

Mx complicatiosn e.g. DM

Mean survival 35 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Primary Ciliary Dyskinesia

A

Autosomal recessive defect in ciliary motility

Poor mucociliary clearance –> chronic recurrent inflammation and bronchiectasis

Decreased sperm motility in males –> infertility

Kartagener’s Syndrome: Situs invertus + Primary ciliary dyskinesia

Situs invertus

Chronic sinusitis

Bronchiectasis

34
Q

Young’s Syndrome

A

Bronchiectasis

Rhinosinusitis

Azospermia (no sperm in semen) –> inferility

35
Q

Yellow Nail Syndrome

A

Very rare

Yellow dystrophic nails

Pleural effusions

Lymphoedema: lymphatic hypoplasia

Bronchiectasis

36
Q

Allergic Bronchopulmonary Aspergillosis

A

ABPA

Type 1 and Type 3 hypersensitivity reaction to Aspergillus fumigatus

Causes bronchoconstriction —> Bronchiectasis

Presentation

Dyspnoea

Wheeze

Cough

Bronchiectasis

Invx

Increased IgE and eosinophilia

positive IgG precipitins (not as positive as in aspergilloma)

+ve skin prick test or RAST

CXR

Mx

Prednisolone

Itraconazole is sometimes introduced as a second line agent

Bronchodilators

37
Q

Signs of Pleural Effusion on Examination

A

Inspection

Chest drain

Evidence of cause:

Cancer: clubbing, cachexia, LNs

Pneumonia: febrile

CCF: increased JVP, S3, ascites, ankle oedema

CLD: clubbing leukonychia, spider naevi, gynaecomastia

CTD: rheumatoid hands, malar rash

Chest

Tracheal shift away from effusion

Decreased expansion on the affacted side

Stony dull percussion

Recuded air entry

Reduced tactile fremitus

Significant negatives: Fever, Clubbing, Peripheral oedema, CTD

38
Q

Differentials for Pleural Effusion

A

Consolidation: bronchial breathing + crackles

Collapse: Increased VR

39
Q

Causes of Pleural Effusion

A

Transudate and Exudate

Transudate: bilateral, protein<25g/L

Three failures, a thyroid and a meig

CCF

Renal fialure

Decreased albumin (liver failure)

Hypothyroidism

Meig’s syndrome

Exudate: unilateral, protein >30g/L

IIICT

Infection: pneumonia, TB

Inflammation: Rheumatoid arthritis, SLE

Infarction: PE

Ca: primary or secondary

Trauma

40
Q

Light’s Criteria

A

Differentiate a transudate and exudate if 25-30g/L

Take a pleural tap

Effusion:serum protein ratio >0.5

Effusion:serum LDH ratio >0.6

Effusion LDH is 0.6x ULN

41
Q

Hx Questions for Pleural Effusion

A

Identify cause:

Fever

Sputum

Smoking

Weight loss

Haemoptysis

Previous MI

Orthopnoea

PND

Hepatitis

42
Q

Investigations for Pleural Effusion

A

Bloods

FBC: anaemia, U+E: creatinine raised, LFTs: hypoa;buminaenia, TFT: raised TSH, ESR raised in CTD, Ca raised in cancer

CXR: homogenous opacification wih meniscus, signs of cause e.g. mets

USS: guide pleuocentesis

Volumetric CT

Diagnostic pleurocentesis:

Send to chemistry for protein, LDH, pH, glucose, amylase

Send for micro: MC+S, auramine stain, TB culture

Send for cytology

Send for immunology: RF, ANA, complement

Pleural biopsy

43
Q

Management of Pleural Effusion

A

Treat underlying cause

May use drain / repeated aspiration

Drain <2L per day!

Pleurodesis if recurrent malignant effusion

Persistent effusions may require surgery

44
Q

Signs of Lung Cancer on Examination

A

Inspection

Cachexia

Hoarse voice or stridor

Hands

Clubbing

Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy (HPOA)

Tar staining

Claw hand and wasting of interossei

Face

Anaemia

Horner’s

Plethora

Neck

LNs

Dilated veins

Chest

Thoracotomy scar

Radiotherapy square birn + tattoo

Acanthosis nigrans

Collapse

Tracheal deviation towards collapse

Decreased expansion

Dull percussion note

Absent air entry

Increased VR

Effusion

Tracheal deviation away from effusion

Reduced expansion

Stony dull percussion

Reduced air enrty

Reduced VR

45
Q

Hypertrophic Pulmonary Osteoarthopathy

A

HPOA

Present in up to 10% lung cancers

More common in non-small cell cancer

46
Q

Complications of Lung Cancer

A

Superior vena cava obstruction

Plethroic

Oedematous face

Oedematous upper limbs

Dilated neck and chest veins

Stridor

Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

Hoarse voice

Bovine cough

Pancoast tumour

Horner’s

Claw hand with wasting of interossei - compression of ulnar nerve

Dermatomyositis

47
Q

Signs of Lobectomy / Pneumonectomy on Examination

A

Inspection

Clubbing

Cachexia

Scars

Lateral throacotomy

Clamshell: double lung transplant

Chest drains

VATS

Chest wall asymmetry or deformity

Pneumonectomy

Tracheal and apex shift to abnormal side

Decreased expansion
Dull percussion

NO breath sounds

Lobectomy

Tracheal shift (mainly upper lobectomy)

Focal signs

Reduced expansion

Dull percussion

Reduced breath sounds

48
Q

Differential for a Lobectomy scar

A

Lobectomy

Pneumonectomy

Normal lung

Abscess

Empyema

Biopsy

Wedge

Transplant

49
Q

Indications for lobectomy

A

Non-disseminated bronchial carcinoma (90%)

Other

bronchiectasis

COPD: lung reduction

TB: historic, upper lobe

50
Q

Risk of Lobectomy

A

Mortality

Lobectomy: 7%

Pneumonectomy: 12%

Increased risk:

ASA grade

Age >70

Poor respiratory reserve: FEVA:FVC ratio <55%

51
Q

Paraneoplastic Lung Cancer

A

ADH –> SIADH —> hyponatraemia

Cushing’s syndrome (ACTH)

Carcinoid syndrome (Serotonin)

Hypercalcaemia (PTHrP)

SCC

52
Q

Histopathology of Lung Cancer

A

Non-small cell

Squamous cell carcinoma: 35%

Central, smokers

Adenocarcinoma: 25%

Peripheral, Non-smoker

Large-cell: 10%

Small-cell lung cancer: 20%

Central, Smokers

53
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

Highly related to smoking

Central

PTHrP –> hypercalcaemia

Non-Small Cell

54
Q

Adenocarcinoma

A

Female non-smokers

Peripheral

80% present with extra-thoracic mets

Non-Small Cell

55
Q

Small Cell Lung Cancer

A

Highly related to smoking

Central

80% present with advanced disease

Ectopic hormone secretion

56
Q

Paraneoplastic Signs of Lung Cancer

A

Endocrine

ADH –> SIADH

ACTH –> Cushing’s

Serotonin –> Serotonin syndrome

PTHrP –> primary hyperparathyroidism (Squamous cell)

Rheumatological

Dermatomyositis

Polymyositis

Neuro

Cerebellar degeneration

Peripheral neuropathy

Derm

Acanthosis nigricans

Trousseau syndrome: thrombophlebitis migrans

57
Q

Complications of Lung Cancer

A

Local

SVCO

Horner’s

Phrenic nerve palsy

AF

Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy

Paraneoplastic

SIADH

Cushing’s

Hypercalcaemia

Metastatic

Pathological #

Hepatic failure

Neurological

Addison’s

58
Q

Investigations for Lung Cancer

A

Bloods

FBL anaemia, increased WCC (if consolidation)

U+Es: Hyponatraemia (SIADH)

LFTS: deranged due to liver mets

Bone profile: Increased calcium (PTHrP Sqaumous cell)

Imaging

CXR

Contrast enahnced volumetric CT of thorax

Cytology

Induced sputum

Pleural fluid (USS-guided pleurocentesis)

Histology

Percutaneous FNA

Endoscopic transbronchial USS guided

Staging

CT
PET

Thoracoscopy

Pulmonary function tests

Assess fitness for surgery

Pneumonectomy contraindicated if FEV1 <1.2L

59
Q

Management of Lung Cancer

A

General Mx

MDT

Stop smoking

Optimise nutrtion and CV function

Non Small Cell

Surgery first line if

Curative radiotherapy

Chemo: platinum based + biologics

50% 5ys with no spread, 10% 5ys with spread

Small Cell

Chemo Radio therapy

Pallative

3 months untreated survival, 1-1.5 yrs median treated

Pallative Care

Analgesia: opiates for pain and cough

Radiotherapy

SVCO: dexamethasone + radiotherapy +/- stent

Persistent effusion: Pleurodesis

60
Q

Signs of Pneumonia on Examination

A

Inspection

Febrile

Looks unwell

Tachypenoeic

Tachycardia

Cough

Rusty sputum

Chest: Consolidation

Decreased expansion

Dull percussion

BRonchial breathing

Decreased air entry

Focal coarse crackles

Pleural rub

Increased vocal resonance

Para-pneumonic effusion

Erthyema multiforme = mycoplasma pneumonia

DDx

Collapse

Effusion

61
Q

Investigations for Pneumonia

A

Bedside

Sputum MC+S

Urine:

Pneumococcal antigen

Hb (cold agglutins–> haemolysis)

Bloods

FBC, U+Es, CRP, LFT, Culture

Paired sera: mycoplasma, chlamydia, Legionella

ABG

CXR

Conslidation with air bronchogram

Effusion

Cavities: staph aureus, klebsiella

Pleurocentesis

Bronchoalveolar lavage

62
Q

Management of Pneumonia

A

CURB-65 Score

Specific: Antibiotics and Analgesia

Supprortive

Oxygen

Fluids

Chest physio

Complications

Septic shock –> MOF

Para-pneumonic effusion

Empyema

Resp failure

Abscess

Follow-Up

CXR at 6 weeks to rule out cancer

Smoking cessation

Pneumovax (23 valent)

>65 years

At-risk

Revaccinate every 6 years

63
Q

Anatomic Classification of Pneumonias

A

Bronchopneumonia:

Patchy consolidation of different lobes

Lobar pneumonia:

Fibrosuppuratve consolidation of a single lobe

Congestion –> red hepatization –> grey hepatization –> resolution

64
Q

Causes of Community-Acquired Pneumonias

A

Streptococcus Pneumoniae: 50%

Mycoplasma: 6%

Haemophilus (increased in COPD)

Chlamydia pneumonia

Viruses: 15%

65
Q

Causes of Hopsital-Acquired Pneumonia

A

Pseudomonas

MRSA

Gram negative enterobacteria (Klebsiella)

66
Q

Antibiotics to treat CAP

A

Amoxicillin

AND

Clarithromycin

Cover atypicals

67
Q

Antibiotics for HAP

A

Co-amoxiclav

OR

Tazocin

+/- Vancomycin

68
Q

Aspiration Pneumonia

A

Increased risk: stroke, bulbar palsy, decreased GCS, GORD, Achalasia

Posterior segment of Right lower lobe

Co-amoxiclav

69
Q

Treatment of fungal pneumonia

A

Amphotericin

70
Q

Treatment for CMV / HSV Pneumonitis

A

Ganciclovir

71
Q

Causes of Atypical Pneumonia

A

Fever, Headaches, Myalgia,

Mycoplasma

Chlamydia

Legionella

72
Q

CURB 65 score

A

Confusion: AMT 8 or less

Urea: >7

Resp: >30/min

Blood pressure: systol <90, diastol <60 mmHg

Age: > 65

0-1 –> manage in community unless significant comorbities

2 = hospital

3 or more –> consider ITU

73
Q

Complications of Pneumonia

A

**Sepsis and MOF

Para-pneumonic effusion / epyema**

Abscess: staph aureus, klebsiella, anaerobes

Respiratory failure

74
Q

Signs of Old TB on Examination

A

Inspection

Asymmetry: absent ribs

Scars: thoracoplasty (removal of several ribs to collpase upper portion of lung)

ScarL supraclavicular fossa - phrenic nerve crush

Chest

Tracheal deviation towards apical fibrosis

Decreased expansion

Dull to percussion

+/- bronchial breathing

Reduced air entry

Crackles

Increased vocal resonance

75
Q

Historic Management of TB

A

Lower PaO2 would inhibit TB

Healed cavities seemed to be closed - hence the logic of closing cavities would heal them

Induction of apical collapse

Techniques

Pliombage: insetion of polystyrene balls into thoracic cavity

Phrenic nerve cursh –> diapohragm paralysis

Thoacoplasty (rib removal and collapse)

Apical lobectomy

76
Q

Current Management of TB

A

Initial Phase 2 months: RIPE

Rifampicin (6 months)

Isoniazid (6 months)

AND Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)

Pyrazinamide

  • converted to pyrazinoic acid by mycobacterial pyrazinamidase
  • lowers environmental pH
  • works best within macrophages

Ethambutol

  • blocks arabinosyltransferase
  • inhibits carbohydrate polymerization of mycobacterial cell wall
  • resistance arises from increased production of arabinosyltransferase by bacteria
77
Q

Side Effects of TB Medications

A

Rifampicin:

Hepatitis

Orange/Red secretions: urine and tears

Enzyme induction

Isoniazid

Peripheral sensory neuropathy (give B6)

Hepatitis

Pyrazinamide

Hepatitis

Arthralgia

Breaks down into uric acid and causes gout

(CI in gout and prophyrias)

Ethambutol

Optic neuropathy –> Red-green colour blind

78
Q

Pathology of TB

A

Primary TB

Naive TB infection

Multiples at pleural surface –> Ghon focus

Macrophages take TB to LNs –> Ghon complex

Mostly asymptomatic, may have fever and essusion

Fibrosis of Ghon complex into calcified nodule (Ranke complex) occurs in 95% ~ immunocompetent people

Rarely, primary progressive TB in immunocompromised

Resembles acute pneumonia

Mild and lower zone consolidation

Effusions, Hilar LNs

Spead to extra-pulmonary and miliary TB

Latent TB

Infected but no clinical of x-ray signs of active TB due ot host immunity

Non-infectious

Weakended host immunity –> reactivation

Secondary TB

Usually reactivation of latent TB

May be due to reinfection

Develops in upper lobes

Hypersenisitivity: tissue destruction —> caseating granulomas

79
Q

Diagnosing TB

A

Latent TB

Tubercullin skin test

If positive —> IGRA

Active TB

CXR

If suggestive –> 3 spuutm samples –> MC+S with Ziehl-Neelsen stain and Lowenstein-Jensen media culture

PCR

Can detect Rifampicin resistance

Can be used if unable to grow anything

80
Q

Tuberculin Skin Test

A

Intradermal injection of purified protein derivative

Induration measured at 48 hours

False positive = BCG, other mycobacteria, prev exposure

False negative = HIV, sarcoid, lymphoma

81
Q

Interferon Gamma Release Assay

A

IGRA

Patient’s lymphocytes incubated with mycobacterium tuberculosis specific antigens

Cuases IFN-y release if previous exposure

Will not be positive is BCG only as BCG uses M.bovis

82
Q
A