Respiratory Flashcards

1
Q

How does bronchodilation happen in conducting airways?

A

Relaxing of smooth muscle

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2
Q

What is laminar flow in a vein or artery?

A

Fluid does not touch walls of vessel

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3
Q

What is turbulent flow in a vein or artery?

A

At walls, excited, eddies, radial traction

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4
Q

What is radial traction?
(think alveoli and lungs)

A

Elastic fibres of the surrounding alveoli pull on the walls of small airways and hold them open.
The higher the elastic recoil of the lungs, the greater the radial traction will be.
Radial traction helps to prevent airway collapse in expiration.

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5
Q

What is an eddy?

A

Eddy currents are loops of electrical current induced within conductors by a changing magnetic field in the conductor’s vicinity according to Faraday’s law of induction. Eddy currents flow in closed loops within conductors, in planes perpendicular to the magnetic field.

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6
Q

What is an eddy in turbulent flow in a blood vessel?

A

Eddy is the swirling of a fluid and the reverse current created when the fluid is in a turbulent flow regime.

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7
Q

What is dyspnoea?

A

Feeling of breathlessness
Sensation of laboured breathing

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8
Q

Hyperventilation (+ examples)

A

Too much breathing
Breathing in excess of metabolic needs
e.g. asmtha, panic attack

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9
Q

Hyperpnia (+ examples)

A

Elevated breathing
Increased breathing that matches the metabolic needs
Reason behind it e.g. faster breathing in exercise to pump blood around heart faster for increased demand

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10
Q

Tachypnoea

A

Elevated frequency
Increased respiratory rate above normal (>20 breaths per minute)
Often shallow, rapid breathing

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11
Q

Hypoventilation

A

Too little breathing
Breathing that is insufficient to meet the metabolic needs
e.g. constructive airflow

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12
Q

Apnoea

A

No breathing - no airflow
An absence of airflow due to lack of respiratory effort or airway obstruction

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13
Q

Hypoxia

A

Too little oxygen

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14
Q

What type of gas is CO2 in the respiratory process?

A
  • waste
  • acidic
  • buffer system
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15
Q

What is involved in the respiratory control centre? (2)

A

Sensors - relay relevant information to the central control sites in the brain stem regarding respiratory homeostasis

Effectors - breathing adjusted through a change in the central rhythm (rate) and the neural activity of the effectors

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16
Q

What is homeostasis?

A

Any self-regulating process by which biological systems tend to maintain stability while adjusting to conditions that are optimal for survival

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17
Q

Thermoreceptors

A

Heat sensors

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18
Q

Chemoreceptors

A

Chemical sensors

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19
Q

Hypoventilation examples

A
  • central
  • spinal injury; motor neuron dysfunction
  • neuromuscular disorders
  • obesity
  • airway obstruction
  • obstructive diseases: COPD
  • restricive diseases: Pulmonary Fibrosis
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20
Q

Hypercapnia

A

Abnormally elevated levels of CO2
Hypoventilation & Lung disease
Alveolar hyperventilation clears CO2

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21
Q

What is alveolar hypoventilation?

A

Lung alveolus hypoventilation refers to insufficient ventilation in the lungs, resulting in:
- increased levels of carbon dioxide (PaCO2)
- decreased levels of oxygen (PaO2) in the blood.

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22
Q

What is the result of Alveolar hypoventilation?

A

Respiratory acidosis

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23
Q

What is a respiratory acidosis?

A

Respiratory acidosis is when your blood is acidic because your lungs can’t remove carbon dioxide.

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24
Q

What is the result of alveolar hyperventilation?

A

Respiratory alkalosis

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25
Q

What is respiratory alkalosis?

A

pH level of blood rises as there is not enough Carbon Dioxide in the blood

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26
Q

What is OSAS?

A

Obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome
Affects ~1 billion people

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27
Q

What contributes to or is associated with OSAS?

A
  • Recurrent airway obstruction
  • Insulin resistance
  • Metabolic dysfunction
  • Cardiovascular dysfunction
  • Hypersomnolence
  • Neurocognitive dysfunction
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28
Q

What is hypersomnolence?

A

An inability to stay awake & alert during major waking episodes, resulting in periods of irrepressible need for sleep / unintended lapses into drowsiness or sleep

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29
Q

Hypopnea

A

> 10s reduction in airflow by >30% and >=3% oximetry desaturation or arousal on EEG channels

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30
Q

AHI

A

Number of apnoeas and hypopnoeas per hour of sleep/study time

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31
Q

ODI

A

number of Oximetery desaturations per hour of sleep/study time

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32
Q

RDI

A

Respiratory Disturbance Index

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33
Q

Circadian Rhythm

A

a rest activity cycle in time with the 24hr rotation of our earth

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34
Q

What does an auditory click elicit in sleep?

A

Deepening of cortical sleep

It is progressively harder to wake someone up as they go from shallow stage 1 to deep SWS sleep
As such it represents a state of relative brain shutdown

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35
Q

Is REM or non-REM sleep associated with dreaming?

A

REM

REM: Rapid Eye Movements
When you are dreaming your eyes flash backwards and forwards under closed eyelids

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36
Q
A
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37
Q
A
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37
Q
A
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38
Q

What is behind the cardiorespiratory response to hypoxia?

A

Carotid bifurcation

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39
Q

What is a result of carotid bifurcation hyperactivity?

A
  • Hypertension
  • Apnoea
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40
Q

What is apnoea?

A

When breathing starts and stops in sleep

no movement of the muscles of inhalation, and the volume of the lungs initially remains unchanged. Depending on how blocked the airways are, there may or may not be a flow of gas between the lungs and the environment.

can lead to more severe problems

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41
Q

What is carotid bifurcation?

A

The point where the common carotid artery divides into internal and external carotid arteries.

This point is located in the carotid triangle, at the level of the fourth cervical vertebra or laryngeal prominence.

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42
Q

What is a carotid body? And what does it respond to? (5)

A

The carotid body is a chemoreceptor located in the adventitia of the bifurcation of the common carotid artery.

Responds to:
- Glucose
- Insulin
- Hormones
- Cytokines
- Temperature

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43
Q

What are cytokines?

A

Signalling proteins that help control inflammation

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44
Q

What is the role of the brainstem in respiratory function?

A

It controls breath-by-breath function
(Rhythm & pattern)

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45
Q

What syndrome often presents with sleep apnoea?

A

Restless leg syndrome

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46
Q

What can be used to detect or monitor sleep apnoea?

A

Polysomnography

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47
Q

What is polysomnography?

A

Records your brain waves, the oxygen level in your blood, and your heart rate and breathing during sleep

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48
Q

CSF is a common abbreviation for…

A

Cerebral spinal fluid

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49
Q

PO2 stands for…

A

The partial pressure of oxygen

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50
Q

What is central apnoea?

A

Breathing repeatedly stops and starts during sleep.
Must last a min. of 10s

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51
Q

What is obstructive apnoea?

A

Breathing stops because the throat muscles relax and block the airway.

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52
Q

Less than how many incidences per hour of sleep is sub clinical for central apnoea?

A

5

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53
Q

How many incidences of central apnoea per hour of sleep is considered severe?

A

> 30

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54
Q

Anatomical contributors to sleep apnoea? (3)

A
  • Narrow
  • Crowded
  • Collapsible
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55
Q

Non-anatomical contributors to sleep apnoea? (3)

A
  • Ineffective pharyngeal dilator muscle activity in sleep
  • Low arousal threshold to airway narrowing
  • Unstable control of breathing (high loop gain)
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56
Q

What is a risk of low lung volumes?

A

Intrapulmonary airway collapse

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57
Q

What does Fick’s Law state for Respiratory Physiology?

A

Rate of gas transfer across a tissue or membrane is directly proportional to the difference in partial pressures of the gas on the two sides of the membrane.

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58
Q

Mechanics of breathing (2)

A
  • Complianace
  • Elastance
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59
Q

What is the most performance aspect of exercise limitation?

A

Work of breathing

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60
Q

How does the mechanics of volume change work in the lungs?

A

Neuromuscular action

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61
Q

How does the mechanics of pressure change work in the lungs?

A

Encouragement of flow

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62
Q

How does a terminal bronchiole differ from a respiratory bronchiole?

A

Terminal:
- no alveoli at microscopic level
- blood delivered to it to maintain it’s structure
- no gas exchange (walls not thick enough)

Respiratory:
- respiratory epithelium condenses
- occasional alveoli
- at walls: cul-de-sac of loads of alveoli (exponential rise in surface area for gas exchange)

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63
Q

What is compliance in relation to the lung?

A

Stretchiness

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64
Q

How is compliance related to elastance?

A

Reciprical values

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65
Q

What is elastance in relation to the lung?

A

Intrinsic recoil of lungs (and chest wall)

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66
Q

What is a communicable disease?

A

An illness caused by pathogenic microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, fungi, parasites or prions.

Can be transmitted from one person, animal, or object to another, leading to the spread of infection within a community or population.

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67
Q

What is the infection pathway of a communicable disease? (6)

A
  • Infectious agents
  • Resevoirs
  • Portals of exit
  • Modes of transmission
  • Portals of entry
  • Susceptible host
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68
Q

In the infection pathway, what is an infectious agent? Give examples.

A

Microorganism capable of causing disease or illness

e.g. Bacteria, fungi, parasites, prions

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69
Q

In the infection pathway, what is a reservoir? Give examples.

A

Place in which infectious agents live, grow, and reproduce.

e.g. people, water, food

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70
Q

In the infection pathway, what is are portals of exit? Give examples.

A

Ways in which infectious agent leaves the reservoir.

e.g. blood, secretions, excretions, skin

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71
Q

What is the difference between a secretion and an excretion?

A

Excretion: elimination of waste material
Secretion: transport of material from one part of the body to another

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72
Q

In the infection pathway, what is a mode of transmission? Give examples.

A

Way in which the infectious agent spreads from the reservoir to susceptible host

e.g. physical, contact, droplets, airborne

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73
Q

In the infection pathway, what is are portals of entry? Give examples.

A

Ways in which the infectious agent enters the susceptible host

e.g. mucous membrane, resp system, dig system, broken skin

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74
Q

What is the mucous membrane?

A

The moist, inner lining of some organs and body cavities (such as the nose, mouth, lungs, and stomach).

Glands in the mucous membrane make mucus (a thick, slippery fluid)

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75
Q

In the infection pathway, what is a susceptible host? What makes a host susceptible?

A

Individuals that may have traits affecting their susceptibility and severity of disease

e.g. immune deficiency, diabetes, burns, surgery, age

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76
Q

Modes of transmission in a healthcare setting (4)

A
  • Hands
  • Equipment
  • Inhalation
  • Ingestion
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77
Q

Name some healthcare associated infections. (9)

A
  • Norovirus (vomiting bug)
  • MRSA
  • C.diff
  • CPE
  • ESBLs (superbugs)
  • VRE (superbug)
  • IV Line infection
  • Urinary catheter infection
  • C.auris (superbugs)
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78
Q

WHO 5 Moments for Hand Hygiene

A
  1. Before touching a aptient
  2. Before a procedure
  3. After a procedure or body fluid exposure risk
  4. After touching a patient
  5. After touching a patient’s surroundings
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79
Q

Steps for putting on PPE (5)

A
  1. Hand hygiene
  2. Plastic apron
  3. Surgical mask
  4. Protective eyewear
  5. Gloves
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80
Q

Steps for taking off PPE (5)

A
  1. Remove gloves
  2. Hand hygiene
  3. Remove eye wear / apron / surgical mask
  4. Dispose of waste
  5. Hand hygiene
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81
Q

Chain of transmission of influenza (8)

A
  1. Virus shedding
  2. Exposure
  3. Inhalation
  4. Attachment
  5. Entry
  6. Spread
  7. Symptoms develop
  8. Shedding
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82
Q

Respiratory reSIStance (as measured by oscillometry) Rrs

A

Degree of obstruction / opposition to flow across the tracheobronchial tree

83
Q

Respiratory reACTance (as measured by oscillometry) Xrs

A

Measure of the inertance/elastance of the stimulated airways & alveoli

84
Q

Is respiratory resistance or reactance more sensitive to changes in the peripheral part of the airways?

A

Respiratory reactance

85
Q

What type of airway pathology is respiratory resistance particularly sensitive to?

A

Central Airway Pathology

86
Q

What 2 types of sensors are in a oscillimetry machine?

A

Flow & Pressure

87
Q

What frequency range is used in oscillometry testing?

A

4/5 Hz up to 35/50 Hz

88
Q

What type of patients requires higher testing frequencies (~35 Hz)?

89
Q

What is the variable measurement in an oscillometry test? And what is its relationship to resistance?

A

Pressure
Directly proportional

90
Q

Is there a phase difference when flow and pressure are in phase?

91
Q

What is represented by the length of a flow/pressure line in the real/imaginary plane?

92
Q

What is represented by the angle of a flow/pressure line to the real axis in the real/imaginary plane?

93
Q

Is inertance positive or negative in the imaginary axis?

94
Q

Is inertance positive or negative in the imaginary axis?

95
Q

Is elastance positive or negative in the imaginary axis

96
Q

Is resistance represented by the real or imaginary axis?

97
Q

Is resistance represented by the real or imaginary axis?

98
Q

Is reactance represented by the real or imaginary axis?

99
Q

Is resistance the in-phase or out-of-phase part of impedance?

100
Q

Is reactance the in-phase or out-of-phase part of impedance?

A

Out-of-phase

101
Q

What does it mean for oscillometry and respiratory flow to be in-phase?

A

Pressure and flow are varying at the same frequency.

102
Q

What is the relation between the magnitude of a vector and the amplitude of oscillation?

A

Length of vector = peak amplitude of oscillation

103
Q

Vector division in polar form. How does it work?

A

Divide the magnitudes.
Subtract the phase angle.

104
Q

Why does the resistance rapidly increase when f < 5 Hz? (and reactance rapidly decrease)

A

Due to dominance of the mechanical properties of the lung (tissue viscoelasticity) and chest wall (elastance)

105
Q

At f > 5 Hz, what happens to the resistance and reactance?

A

Resistance is largely independent of frequency.
Reactance has a positive frequency dependence. Apparent elastance decreases, reactance becomes less negative and inertia dominates.

106
Q

What is resonant freqeuncy? What does this look like on a graph in the Re-Im plane?

A

Xrs = 0
Curve cross real axis (imaginary axis = 0)

107
Q

Is reactance positive or negative below fres? Why?

A

Negative.
Dominated by apparent elastance.

108
Q

What is resonant frequency in healthy adults?

109
Q

Is reactance positive or negative above fres? Why?

A

Positive.
Dominated by apparent inertia of gases and tissues.

110
Q

Is Ax (area of reactance) dominated by elastance or inertance?

111
Q

Does Ax increase or decrease in peripheral lung disease?

112
Q

What indicates that there is greater elastance than inertance? (2)

A
  1. Angle of flow > angle of pressure
  2. Flow first peak (crosses Im first)
113
Q

What indicates that elastance = inertance? What does this mean?

A

In-phase
It was measured at fres

114
Q

What is the Z score?

A

How well estimated value compares with real value

115
Q

Uses of oscillometry?

A

To quantify bronchodilator responses, and in bronchial challenge testing.

116
Q

What is the effect of volume history on oscillometry?

A

Volume history potentially affects impedance measurements in
individuals with airways disease and in healthy subjects during
bronchial challenge testing

117
Q

What is the difference between obstructive and restrictive lung diseases?

A

OLD: restriction of airflow during expiration
RLD: restriction of airflow during expiration

118
Q

What respiratory diseases are classed as obstructive lung diseases?

A
  • COPD (chronic obstructive pulmonary disease)
  • Cystic Fibrosis
  • Asmtha
119
Q

What respiratory diseases are classed as restrictive lung diseases?

A
  • Sarcoidosis
  • Pulmonary fibrosis
  • Insterstitial lung disease
120
Q

What are risk factors for COPD? List at least one factor from each of development factors, socioeconomic factors, and noxious exposures.

A
  • premature birth
  • asthma
  • maternal, pre-natal, and childhood exposures
  • ageing
  • access to healthcare
  • socioeconomic disadvantage
  • pollution and biomass combustion
  • tobacco smoke
121
Q

COPD

A

persistent airflow limitation that is not fully reversible, typically caused by long-term exposure to harmful irritants, most commonly cigarette smoke.

  • chronic bronchitis
  • emphysema
122
Q

Chronic bronchitis

A

inflammation and mucus buildup in the airways

123
Q

Emphysema

A

destruction of alveoli and loss of lung elasticity, leading to difficulty with expiration

124
Q

COPD Symptoms (4)

A
  • chronic cough
  • dyspnea (shortness of breath)
  • wheezing
  • excessive mucus production, which worsen over time
125
Q

Cystic Fibrosis

A

Congenital lung disease - mutation in CFTR gene

production of thick, sticky mucus in the airways, leading to recurrent lung infections, chronic inflammation, and progressive airway obstruction.

very low immune system

126
Q

How long is a person with CF expected to survive? (Based on medium in Ireland)

127
Q

What gene is affected in CF patients and how does this impact the patient?

A

CFTR

This gene regulates the movement of chloride ions in and out of cells, which is crucial for maintaining the balance of salt and water on epithelial surfaces, like those lining the lungs.

  • impaired chloride ion transport
  • disrupts the normal salt and water balance in the airway lining
  • mucus that lines the respiratory tract becomes thick, sticky, and dehydrated.
128
Q

What is observed in FEV1 capacity, FVC, and RV in CF patients?

A

FEV1: Reduced FEV1 (airway obstruction)
FVC: Low FEV1/FVC ratio (difficulty exhaling)
RV: Increased residual volume (air trapping and reduced lung elasticity)

129
Q

Hypercapnia

A

High CO2 levels

130
Q

Asthma

A

OLD characterized by hyperactive airways

  • triggered by allergens or irritants, causing bronchoconstriction
  • airway inflammation that can be relieved with medications.
131
Q

What lung function tests may be used in diagnosing OLD?

A
  • Sprirometry
  • Peak expiratory flow (PEF) measurement
  • Exhaled Nitric Oxide fraction
  • Bronchial challenge testing
132
Q

In using a peak expiratory flow measurement over a 2-week period, what % supports an asthma diagnosis?

133
Q

In a spirometry test, what FEC/FVC ratio supports an asthma dianosis?

A

Lower Limit of Normal (LLN) < 0.75

134
Q

Bronchial challenge testing is performed in secondary care when a diagnosis of asthma could not be confirmed in primary care. What amount of methacholine (PC20M) or histamine (mg·mL−1) supports a diagnosis of asmtha?

A

<8 mg·mL−1 methacholine (PC20M) or histamine in steroid-naïve patients
<16 mg·mL−1 in a patient receiving regular inhaled corticosteroids

135
Q

How do asthma patients respond after the use of a dilator?

A

improved FEV1

136
Q

What is the key pathophysiological feature of OLD?

A

increased resistance to airflow caused by
- inflammation
- mucus hypersecretion
- structural changes in the airways.

137
Q

How can OLD be managed?

A
  • reducing inflammation (with inhaled corticosteroids)
  • relaxing airway muscles (with bronchodilators)
  • improving lung function with lifestyle changes and therapies like pulmonary rehabilitation.
138
Q

People of what ethnic background are prone to Restrictive Lung Diseases?

A

African-Americans (35.5 cases per 100,000)

139
Q

What leads to hypoxemia?

A

A reduction in the lung’s ability to take in oxygen and eliminate carbon dioxide.

140
Q

What characteristics are associated with RLD?

A
  • decreased lung compliance
  • lungs become stiffer and require more effort to expand
141
Q

Intrinsic vs Extrinsic RLD

A

Intrinsic: Primarily involve diseases affecting lung parenchyma, such as interstitial lung disease (ILD), pulmonary fibrosis, and sarcoidosis, leading to fibrosis, inflammation, and scarring of lung tissue.

Extrinsic: Conditions external to the lung, such as obesity, kyphoscoliosis, pleural effusions, and neuromuscular disorders

142
Q

What is pleural effusion?

A

Fluid accumulation in the pleural space compresses lung tissue, leading to a restrictive pattern with decreased total lung capacity (TLC) and vital capacity (VC), functional residual capacity (FRC) and forced vital capacity (FVC).

143
Q

What effect does fluid accumulation in the pleural space have on the lung properties?

A

Decreased
- total lung capacity (TLC)
- vital capacity (VC)
- functional residual capacity (FRC)
- forced vital capacity (FVC)

144
Q

What happens in the lung as a result of pleural effusion?

A
  • fluid layer between the lung and chest wall disrupts ventilation-perfusion matching, leading to hypoxemia
  • lung compression from the effusion increases the effort required to inflate the lungs, leading to dyspnea
145
Q

Hypoxemia

A

Low O2 levels

146
Q

What is a pneumothorax?

A

Lung collapse & impaired ventilation

Air in the pleural space during a pneumothorax disrupts the negative pressure needed to keep the lung inflated

147
Q

Name the 3 types of Interstitial lung disease and give examples of each.

A
  • exposure: drug induced, occupational, environmental
  • autoimmune: Rheumatoid Arthritis, Scleroderma, Polymyositis, Dermatomyositis
  • idiopathic: Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF), Non-specific interstitial pneumonia (NSIP), Cryptogenic organizing pneumonia (COP)
148
Q

What does idiopathic mean?

A

Unknown cause

149
Q

What is a common physical characteristic of Interstitial Lung Disease? (2)

A

inflammation & fibrosis (scarring) of the lung interstitium, affecting the space around the alveoli.

150
Q

If a patient presented with restrictive lung pattern on PFTs, showing reduced forced vital capacity (FVC), total lung capacity (TLC), and diffusion capacity for carbon monoxide (DLCO), indicating impaired gas exchange, what type of lung disease might they be diagnosed with?

A

Interstitial Lung Disease

151
Q

Anti-inflammatory & immunosuppressive drugs, and anti-fibrotic therapies may be used to treat what form of lung disease?

A

Interstitial Lung Disease

152
Q

In what form of ILD might a patient present with a restrictive lung disease pattern, with reduced lung volumes, including total lung capacity (TLC) and forced vital capacity (FVC), while the FEV1/FVC ratio remains normal or increased?

A

Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (ILD)

153
Q

How does Idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (ILD) initiate?

A

abnormal activation of fibroblasts, which proliferate and produce excessive collagen, leading to the formation of fibrotic tissue in the lungs

154
Q

A farmer who is often exposed to environmental antigens such as mold spores, animal proteins, and organic dust has a high probability of developing what from of ILD?

A

hypersensitivity pneumoitis (HP)

155
Q

In what from of restrictive lung disease would alveolar inflammation and granuloma formation in the lung parenchyma be observed, as well as enlargement of the lymph nodes?

A

Sarcoidosis

156
Q

List the 6 areas where restrictive and obstructive lung diseases differ.

A
  • Airflow Limitation vs. Lung Volume Reduction:
  • FEV1/FVC Ratio:
  • Total Lung Capacity (TLC)
  • Pathophysiology: Airway Narrowing vs. Stiffening:
  • Breathing Mechanics: Expiratory vs. Inspiratory:
  • Gas Exchange
157
Q

Tidal Volume (Vt)

A

volume of gas entering the lungs in each breath during quiet breathing

measured by spirometry

158
Q

Forced Vital Capacity (FVC)

A

If a person subjects takes a maximal inspiration followed by a forced maximal expiration, the FVC is the max amount of air you can exhale after maximum inhalation (~80% total lung volume))

measured by spirometry

159
Q

Residual Volume (RV)

A

Volume of gas remaining in lungs after FVC

160
Q

Total Lung Capacity (TLC)

A

Volume of gas in the lung after a deep breath

161
Q

Explain the mechanism and muscles involved in the inspiration part of the respiratory cycle.

A

Contraction of the diaphragm forces abdominal contents downwards expanding the abdomen and thorax outward
- external intercostals: pull the ribs forwards and upwards, does <20% work
- accessory muscles: scalene lifts the first 2 ribs and sternocleidomastoids elevate the sternum (exercise & respiratory disease)
- contraction of the inspiratory muscles expand the thorax outward, creating a more negative intrapleural pressure (Ppl) which pulls on the lungs
- as lungs inflate, alveolar pressure drops below atmospheric pressure, drawing air into the lungs
- process continues until lung volume reaches a point where maximal F exerted by the inspiratory muscles = lung and chest wall elastic recoil causing inspiratory flow to stop

162
Q

Vital Capacity (VC)

A

VC = TV + IRV + ERV,
IRV = inspiratory reserve volume
ERV = exspiratory reserve volume

Vital capacity is the volume of gas from maximum inspiration to maximum expiration.

163
Q

What is the difference between FVC and VC?

A

FVC = forced, volume of air exhaled with maximal effort from inspiration
VC = relaxed form of FVC

164
Q

At what point in the respiratory cycle does inspiration stop?

A

When lung volume Fmax = lung & chest elastic recoil

165
Q

What happens to the lung and chest wall at the end of the respiration cycle?

A

The lung and chest wall are elastic and tend to return to their equilibrium positions.

166
Q

What does relaxation of the respiratory muscles do to the lung and chest wall?

A

Relaxation of the respiratory muscles causes an inward elastic recoil of the lung and chest wall.

167
Q

Functional Residual Capacity (FRC)

A

Volume of gas remaining in the lung upon reaching the relaxation volume (Vr) or at the end of tidal expiration

168
Q

At what point in the respiratory cycle does inward lung recoil equal the outwards chest wall recoil?

A

Functional Residual Capacity

169
Q

What muscles do 80% of the work in the respiratory process?

A

Internal muscles, mainly diaphragm

170
Q

What muscles are involved in the respiratory cycle?

A

Internal muscles, mainly diaphragm and external intercostals

171
Q

At what point in the respiratory cycle does alveolar pressure = atmospheric pressure?

A

Functional Residual Capacity

172
Q

What is the avg pleural pressure?

173
Q

In the supine position, what happens to FRC?

A

reduced FRC
abdominal contents are displaced towards the chest wall

174
Q

What are the most important muscles in expiration?

A

Abdominal wall muscles
(Rectus abdominis, internal and external oblique muscles and transverse abdominis)

175
Q

What happens to intraobdominal pressure during expiration?

A

Raised

Abdominal wall muscles raise intra-abdominal pressure pushing diaphragm upwards

176
Q

What happens to intra-thoracic volume during expiration?

A

Decreased

Internal intercostal muscles assist expiration by pulling the ribs downwards and inwards

177
Q

What techniques can be used to measure TLC, RV, and FRC?

A
  • gas dilution
  • body plethysmography
178
Q

Body plethysmography

A

Measures the total volume of gas in the lung, including any that is trapped behind closed airways

Consists of a large, airtight box, like a telephone booth, where the subject sits

179
Q

Helium dilution

A

Helium virtually insoluble in the blood

Subject is asked to inhale and exhale in a closed-circuit spirometer containing a known concentration of helium and oxygen

180
Q

Name the 2 regions of the lungs

A
  • Conducting
  • Respiratory (acinar)
181
Q

Why does the left lung have 2 lobes whereas the right lobe only has 3?

A

Heart is where middle left lobe would be

182
Q

Ventilation

A

Total volume of gas exchanged from atmosphere and the lung in minute

183
Q

Name the 3 lobes of the right lung

A

Superior, middle, inferior

184
Q

How to exhale more CO2? (2)

A
  • increase TV
  • increase respiratory rate
185
Q

The conducting zones of the lungs consist of: (3)

A

Nose to Bronchioles
- Bronchi
- Bronchioles
- Terminal Bronchioles

Path for conduction of inhaled gases

186
Q

The respiratory zones of the lungs consist of:

A
  • Respiratory Bronchioles
  • Alveolar ducts
  • Alveolar sacs

Gas exchange takes place

187
Q

What is the pulmonary dead space?

A

No gas exchange occurs in the dead space
Concentration of CO2 in expired gas comes only from 𝑉̇A

188
Q

What is a common critical lung volume value?

189
Q

Lung compliance

A

Stiffness of lungs (curve on Volume vs Pressure graph for TLC)

Low lung compliance in COPD and ILD (less stretchy)

190
Q

Dynamic hyperinflation

A

can’t get all air out

192
Q

What is the key difference between aerobic and non-aerobic respiration?

A

Aerobic: OXYGEN
Anaerobic: NO Oxygen

193
Q

What is the key difference between aerobic and non-aerobic respiration?

A

Aerobic: OXYGEN
Anaerobic: NO Oxygen

194
Q

What are some key characteristics for aerobic respiration? (4)

A

Uses O2
Efficient way of releasing energy from food
Complete breakdown of glucose
2 stages:
- stage 1 is anaerobic and takes place in cytosol of cell, aka glycolysis
- stage 2 id aerobic and takes place in mitochondria of cell, Krebs cycle and electron transport

195
Q

Mechanisms of airflow in asmtha (3)

A
  • Bronchoconstriction by airway muscle.
  • Obstruction of airflow by intraluminal mucus.
  • Inflammation and remodeling of the airway wall.
196
Q

Mechanisms of airflow in COPD (3)

A
  • Mucus hypersecretion.
  • Abnormal bronchiolar (small airways) tissue repair.
  • Alveolar wall destruction.
197
Q

Name 3 types of bronchodilator drugs

A
  • Beta-2 agonists.
  • Anticholinergics.
  • Methylxanthines.
198
Q

By what mechanism do bronchodilator drugs work?

A

Relaxation of airway smooth muscle

199
Q

Name 3 types of anti-inflammatory drugs

A

Corticosteroids.
Biologics (Anti-IGE, Anti-IL-5, and Anti IL-4 monoclonal antibodies)
Leukotriene Modifiers.

200
Q

Targeted therapy in cystic fibrosis is is directed towards…

A

CFTR protein (Chloride channel) function restoration.

201
Q

How can OLD be managed?

A
  • reduce inflammation
  • relax airway muscles
  • improve lung function
202
Q

What is OLD?

A

AIrflow limitation due to airway narrowing or obstruction

Difficult to fully exhale

203
Q

Key features of OLD (3)

A
  • increased resistance to airflow caused by inflammation
  • mucus hypersecretion,
  • structural changes in the airways
204
Q

General OLD Symptoms (7)

A

Shortness of breath
Exertional dysnpnea
Persistent chesty cough with phlegm
Frequeny chest infections
Wheezing
Fatigue
Swelling in ankle, fee, or legs (adema)

205
Q

Notes on breathing mechanics in CF (3)

A

Airway obstruction
Reduced pulmonary function
Impaired gas exchange