Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

pathology > resp quiz > Flashcards

resp quiz Flashcards

1
Q

what does the upper resp tract consist of?

A

nasal cavity
sinuses
nasopharynx
larynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the three function divisions of the resp system?

A

conduction
transitional
exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what does the lower resp tract consist of?

A

trachea
lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what is the conducting system made up of?

A

nasal cavity
sinuses
nasopharynx
larynx
trachea
bronchi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the transitional division made up of?

A

bronchioles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is the exchange division made up of?

A

alveoli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the nasal turbinates (bone), nasal septum, trachea, and bronchi (cartilage) all lined with?

A

ciliated pseudo stratified columnar epithelium and goblet cells which helps coat in mucus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the defenses of the conducting portion of the resp system?

A

-bony nasal turbinates (increases surface area for forge in debris to get trapped)
-normal bacterial flora (outcompete pathogenic microbial colonization)
-mucocililary appartus
-mechanisms of clearance (cough, sneeze, phagocytosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where does the mucociliary apparatus extend from?

A

bronchi to the pharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

explain the mechanism of the mucociliary apparatus

A

there is a gel layer that is produced by the goblet cells and submucosal glands which is called the gel layer, that entraps the foreign debris or particles and lining the bronchial wall are cilia that are moving through the sol liquid layer that are transporting the mucus towed the pharynx to get swallowed or coughed out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what do cells in the nose, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles secrete in order for defense

A

secreted antimicrobial products (lysozymes, antibodies) and mucus to entrap/neutralize pathogens and make them less apt to disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

cell defense at the bronchial bifurcation

A

antigen presenting cells in the region phagocytose and transport particles to bronchiole-associated lymphoid tissue (BALT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are factors impairing pulmonary defense

A

-viral (primary cause of infection_
-toxic gases
-immunodeficiency
-other factors (endotoxemia, uremia, dehydration, etc)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the main routes of entry?

A

-aerogenous (inspired air)
-hematogenous (septicemia, bacteriemia, parasites)
-direct extensions (penetrating wounds)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are the three congenital disease of the upper respiratory tract

A

palatoschisis
choanal atresia
ciliary dyskinesia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are the anatomic features that contribute to brachycephalic airway syndrome

A

-stenotic nares
-elongated soft palate
-everted laryngeal saccules
-hypoplastic trachea +/- collapsed trachea
(all of these cause airway obstruction)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

empyema

A

accumulation of pus within the guttural pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

eustachitis

A

inflammation of the guttural pouch

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

rhinitis

A

inflammation of the nasal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

sinusitis

A

inflammation of the sinuses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

catarrhal (mucoid) exudate

A

-thick but clear
chronic irritation, moderate injury -> goblet cell hyperplasia and submucosal glandular hyper secretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

fibrinous exudate

A

-tan, stringy fibrillary material on mucosa
severe tissue injury causing fibrinogen to leak from nasal vessels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

purulent/suppurative exudate

A

-thick, yellow, opaque
infection with pyogenic organisms (bacteria) -> accumulation of neutrophils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

granulomotous exudate

A

-nodular, more space occupying
chronic inflammation with pathogens that are resistant to phagocytosis -> accumulation of macrophages/lymphocytes/plasma cells and fibrous connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

most common viral cause of canine rhinitis/canine resp disease complex

A

canine distemper virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what are the two most common bacterial causes that occur secondary to the viral rhinitis of canine resp disease complex

A

bordetella bronchiseptica
pasturella multocida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

most common fungal cause of canine rhinitis/ canine resp disease complex

A

aspergillus spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

multifactorial disease of canine infectious tracheobronchitis (kennel cough)

A

-crowding/mixing
-poor ventilation and stress
-predisposes infection to bordetella bronchiseptica and other viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what does canine infectious tracheobronchitis result in

A

suppurative mucopurulent rhinitis, tonsillitis -> tracheitis with goose honk cough -> can progress to bronchopneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

most common fungal disease in dogs

A

aspergillus fumigatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what specific breed and type of dogs are affected most by the fungus aspergillus fumigatus

A

German Shepards and dolichocephalic breeds (long nose breeds), fungus gets trapped and can’t get out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

viral causes of feline rhinitis and conjunctivitis/ feline resp disease complex

A

-feline calicivirus
-feline infectious rhinotracheitis (feline herpesvirus 1, FHV-1)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what are the secondary bacterial causes of feline rhinitis and conjunctivitis/ feline resp disease complex

A

mycoplasma felis
chlamoydophila felis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

fungal cause of feline resp disease complex

A

cryptococcus spp

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what is the most common sign of feline calicivirus

A

oral ulcerations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what is the most common sign of FHV-1 (feline herpes virus)

A

corneal ulcerations
dendritic ulcerations
(pathognomonic)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how would you describe cryptococcus neoformans/ C. gatti in cats

A

-gelatinous polypoid mass
-masses consist of yeast with few macrophages
-granulomatous rhinitis
-roman nose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what is the cause of infectious bovine rhinotracheitis (IBR- bovine herpesvirus 1)

A

mannheimia haemolytica synergism
-bacterial infection that will occur together and worsten together)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

in bovine herpes virus 1 (infectious bovine rhinotracheitis) what will form on the trachea to cause tracheitis

A

fibrinonecrotic (diphtheritic) membrane which is a layer composed of fibrin, necrosis, neutrophils lining the trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

causes of atrophic rhinitis in pigs

A

co-infection with bordatella bronchispetica and toxigenic agents of pasturella multocida
(bacterial)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

pathogenesis of atrophic rhinitis in pigs

A

co-infection -> inhibits osteoblast and increase osteoclast activity -> osteopenia, atrophy, loss of nasal conchae -> septal deviation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

cause of parasitic rhinitis in sheep

A

oestrus ovis
-myiasis infection with fly larvae in living tissues, deposits larvae in nostrils

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

cause of parasitic rhinitis in cats

A

cuterebra spp
-larvae migrate in the nasal cavity and within the trachea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is sequela to upper respiratory disease, dehorning complication, and periodontitis/ periodontal abscess

A

sinusitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

common equine viral infections

A

-equine influenza (highly contagious)
-equine viral rhinopneumonitis (herpes viruses 1 and 4)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

how does equine viral rhinopneumonitis present based on ages

A

-foals (4-8 months): mild respiratory disease
-mares: myeloencephalopathy and abortions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

pathogenesis of equine herpes virus 1 and 4

A

herpes virus can remain latent in trigemical ganglia -> reactivated during time of stress and immunosuppression and shed -> aerogenous transmission to susceptible hosts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what important things run through the guttural pouch

A

-internal carotid, external carotid, maxillary artery
-CN VII,IX, X, XI, XII
-atlanto-occiptical joint

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what species is strangles and what is the most common age group it effects

A

-streptococcus equi, comes from environment
-highly contagious
-most often seen in young horses

50
Q

pathogenesis of strangles

A

aerogenous infection of nasopharyngeal mucosa -> lymphatic vessels -> mandibular and retropharyngeal lymph nodes -> suppurative rhinitis and lymphadenitis resulting in clinical signs of cough, nasal discharge, conjunctivitis and swollen lymph nodes

51
Q

what can occur in a severe case of strangles

A

bastard strangles
-when goes systemic (bc bacterial)
-abcess formation in organs throughout body

52
Q

possible sequela of strangles

A

-bronchopneumonia
-nerve compression
-purpura hemorrhagica
-guttural pouch empyema +/- chondrosis (fibrin and neutrophil ball of pus)
-recovered horses can become carriers and shed

53
Q

common cause of guttural pouch mycosis (fungal infection)

A

aspergillus fumigatus

54
Q

possible sequela to guttural pouch mycosis

A

-guttural pouch problems
-epistaxis (thrombosis of carotid artery -> cerebral infarcts, cranial nerve deficients

55
Q

what are the two non-neoplastic space occupying masses

A

-nasopharyngeal polyps
-ethmoid hematoma

56
Q

what species is nasal neoplastic masses most prevalent

A

dogs» cats> horses

57
Q

what is the most common nasal tumor in dogs

A

adenocarcinomas

58
Q

what is the most common nasal tumors in horses

A

squamous cell carcinomas

59
Q

what is the viral induced nasal carcinoma

A

enzootic nasal tumor virus (ENTV 1 and 2)
-retroviral- induced neoplasia of sheep and goats

60
Q

where does the tumor from enzootic nasal tumor typically arise from

A

ethmoid conchae
-expands into the nasal cavity and destroying the nasal conchae causing facial distortion

61
Q

where is the origin of sarcomas

A

mesenchymal neoplasms in the nasal cavity connective tissue, bone and cartilage

62
Q

what is the most common nasal tumor of cats

A

nasal lymphoma

63
Q

what is the secondary infection of calf diphtheria cause by

A

fuscobacterium necrophorum
-disease of larynx

64
Q

important sequela of calf diphtheria

A

-death from toxemia or bacteremia
-asphyxiation
-bronchopneumonia

65
Q

what is the cause of laryngeal hemiplegia

A

causes left-sided atrophy of the cricoidarytenoids dorsalis muscles that open and close (abduct and adduct) the arytenoid cartilages which is due left recurrent laryngeal nerve damage

66
Q

in what breed does tracheal collapse occur most

A

middle-ages, small breed dogs
-degeneration of tracheal cartilage

67
Q

what parasitic disease most commonly occurs at the tracheal bifurcation in dogs

A

oslerus osleri

68
Q

what is a special cell type of the bronchioles

A

Clara or club cells

69
Q

what is the function of Clara or club cells

A

-act like stem cells
-secrete protective factors like antimicrobials, surfactant, and mixed function oxidases

70
Q

what is the predominant cells type in alveoli

A

-type I pneumocytes which have flattened conformation (necessary for gas exchange)

71
Q

what is the structure and function of type II pneumocytes

A

-cuboidal
-produce surfactant
-stem cell properties, that proliferate if there is damage to the type I cells and can eventually differentiate into type I

72
Q

what are the innate pulmonary defenses and susceptibility in alveoli

A

-have the least pulmonary defenses, most vulnerable portion of resp system
-alveolar and intravasucalr macrophages, rapid phagocytose particles

73
Q

cause of heaves or recurrent airway obstruction in horses

A

hypersensitivity

74
Q

mechanism of heaves/recurrent airway obstruction

A

chronic hypersensitivity reaction -> goblet cell metaplasia -> mucus plug -> smooth muscle constriction/hypertrophy

75
Q

feline asthma cause

A

hypersensitivity , very similar to RAO in horses

76
Q

what are the circulatory disturbances of the lung and what is the differences in their causes

A
  1. congestion= passive process (usually left sided heart failure)
  2. hyperemia= active process (acute inflammation, physiological)
77
Q

what is the cause of equine exercise induced pulmonary hemorrhage

A

massive rupture of small alveolar capillaries

78
Q

what are the other possible causes od pulmonary thromboembolism

A

-exogenous-endogenous steroids
-glomerular disease (loss of antithrombin III)
-immune mediated hemolytic anemia
-heartworm infections
-neoplasia
*lots of these are secondary to endocarditis

79
Q

what are the common causes of pulmonary edema

A

-increase hydrostatic pressure
-increase vascular permeability
-decrease oncotic pressure
-lymphatic obstruction
-type I pneumocyte damage

80
Q

define emphysema/ bullae

A

too much air

81
Q

define atelectasis

A

too little air

82
Q

emphysema vs bullae

A

-emphysema is hyperinflation of alveoli potentially leading to septal rupture and fusion of air spaces
-bullae is larger air pockets caused by obstruction and increased alveolar pressures and /or alveolar septal weaknesses
*these are usually secondary to chronic respiration

83
Q

describe what goes in in atelectasis

A

deflation (collapse) of alveoli leading to partial or complete loss of air in alveolar spaces
-negative pressure is lost so lungs are fighting against positive pressure

84
Q

how is bronchopneumonia gross appearance in the lung

A

cranioventral is most common

85
Q

how does interstitial pneumonia diffuse in lung

A

caudodoral to diffuse

86
Q

how is granulomatous pneumonia gross appearance in the lung

A

multifocal

87
Q

how is embolic pneumonia gross appearance in the lung

A

mutifocal
-coming from the blood

88
Q

what is the route of infection, cause and gross appearance present in suppurative bronchopneumonia

A

-gross: cranioventral, checker board patchy, suppurative exudate
-route: aerogenous
-cause: bacteria

89
Q

what is the route of infection, gross appearance, and cause of fibrinous bronchopneumonia

A

-gross: cranioventral, abundant fibular material, pleuropneumonia
-route: aerogenous
-cause: bacteria

90
Q

what is the multifactorial causes of bovine respiratory disease complex

A

-environmental: crowding, air quality, stress (weaning for calves, shipping adults)
-primary viral infection: bovine resp syncytial virus, bovine viral diarrhea virus, parainfluenza, BHV 1
-secondary opportunistic bacterial inf: mannheimia haemolytica

91
Q

what are the three main bovine reps disease complex diseases/infections

A
  1. bovine enzootic pneumonia (calf pneumonia)- high morbidity , low mortality
  2. pneumonic mannheimiosis (shipping fever)- low morbidity, high mortality
  3. mycoplasma bovis infection- bronchopneumonia and bronchlectaisis
92
Q

what is the multifactorial disease of procine respiratory disease complex

A

-environmental factors: crowding, poor ventilation, improper waste removal, increase ammonia and dust, mixing age groups
-primary viral infection: swine influenza *zoonotic
-primary bacterial infection: mycoplasma hypopneumoniae (long term infection), actionobacillus pleuropneumoniae
-secondary opportunistic bacteria: actintobacillus suis

93
Q

acinobacillus suis vs acinobacillus pleuropneumoniae

A

-suis: apart of the normal flora, septicemia, high morbidity and mortality
-plueropneumoniae: from environment, persistent infection, high morbidity and mortality

94
Q

cause of interstitial pneumonia

A

cause: direct damage to alveolar/type I pneumocyte injury
-the tissue and space surrounding the space around the airsacs are damaged

95
Q

gross appearance of interstitial pneumonia

A

-caudodorsal to diffuse
-fail to collapse when thorax open
-rib impressions on lungs
-lack of visible exudate within airways

96
Q

cause (what happens anatomically) of interstitial pneumonia

A

direct damage to alveolar damage to alveolar type I pneumoctye injury

97
Q

causes of interstitial pneumonia

A

-toxins: generated in lung 3-methylindole, systemic endotoxin, urea, sepsis
-viruses: influenza, herpesvirus, paramyxoviruses
-hypersensitivity reactions
-hematogenous insults

98
Q

what type of pneumonia is canine distemper virus

A

starts as upper resp virus, then secondary bacterial
-bronchointersitial pneumonia
-mucopurulent rhinitis

99
Q

secondary effects of canine distemper virus

A

immunosuppression causing lymphoid and thymus atrophy
-can affect skin, brain, teeth

100
Q

what are unique microscopic features of canine distemper virus

A

-viral inclusion
-viral syncytia (multiple cells come together and become giant cell with bunch of nuclei)

101
Q

what are other dog and cat viral differentials for interstitial pneumonia

A
102
Q

pathogenesis/ casus of bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema/ atypical interstitial pneumonia

A

consumption of grass containing L-tryptophan-> 3-methylindole in rumen -> 3-methylindole transformed by cytochrome P450 in club cells (bronchioles -> toxic intermediate -> free radical generation -> necrosis of bronchiolar cells and type I pneumocytes -> fibrin and exudation edema emphysema

103
Q

other potential causes of bovine pulmonary edema and emphysema

A

-pneumotoxins: perilla mint= perilla ketones, moldy sweet potatoes= 4-ipomeanol
-inhaled allergens
-hypersensitivity
-inhaled toxic gas

104
Q

ovine progressive pneumonia and caprine arthritis and encephalitis

A

-lentivirus
-long incubation
-chronic lifelong infection
-mastitis
-meningitis and encephaliitis
transmission: ingest of colostrum or milk

105
Q

uremia pneumonitis/pneumonopathy

A

-severe kidney disease that leads to uremia
-mineralization in different sites of body including lungs and pleura

106
Q

gross of uremia pneumonitis/pneumonopathy

A

lungs are gritty/ crunchy
palor or white areas
pleural looks like frosting

107
Q

histo of uremia pneumonitis

A

basement membrane and vascular mineralization

108
Q

rhodococcus equi

A

-gram positive bacteria in soil
-common young foals
-shed bacteria
-intestinal and mesenteric lymph node lesions
route: inhalation

109
Q

mycobacterium bovis

A

-ruminants
-TB
- gram +, acid fast
-granulomoatous pneumonia
-unpasturalized milk
*zoonotic

110
Q

embolic pneumonia gross, route, cause

A

-gross: dark red, white centers
-route: hematogenous
-cause: bacterial (need to find primary source)

111
Q

where is the primary site of ostoesarcoma metastasis

A

lung

112
Q

what type of patter is metastatic neoplasia

A

embolic pattern but not inflammatory process

113
Q

what is the primary pulmonary neoplasia in dogs/cats

A

-carcinoma (adenocarcinoma
-intrapulmonary metastasis common

114
Q

gross appearance of primary pulmonary neoplasia in dogs/cats

A

-large primary mass
-multifocal random distribution smellers similar masses throughout the other lung lobes

115
Q

histo of primary pulmonary neoplasia in dogs/cats

A

acinar/glandualr structures

116
Q

feline lung-digit syndrome

A

metastasis of primary pulmonary neoplasia
-metstaisi occurs frequently prior to the onset of clinical signs from the primary neoplasm

117
Q

ovine pull onary adenocarcinoma

A

etiology: retrovirus
-ventral aspect of lung lobes
- fills in the space

118
Q

granular cell tumors in horses

A

-typically arise from and protrudes into large airways
-can be feral or widespread
-often incidental but if becomes large enough -> bronchial obstruction and cause resp signs

119
Q

pulmonary interstitial fibrosis

A

-cause idiopathic
-genetic predisposition; west highland terriers

120
Q

equine multi nodular pulmonary fibrosis cause and etiology and distribution

A

-cause: infection with equine herpesvirus 5
-viral etiology start with interstitial pneumonia that progresses to be increasingly fibrotic
-caudodorsal distribution

pathology (10 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions