Resp Final Flashcards

1
Q

The autonomic nervous system is comprised of the ____ and ___ systems

A

Parasympathetic + sympathetic

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2
Q

The chemical portion of the nerve transmission is referred to as _____

A

Neurotransmitters

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3
Q

The ____ drug phase describes the mechanisms of drug action, by which a drug molecule causes its effect in the body

A

Pharmacodynamis

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4
Q

The primary uses for using neuromuscular blocking agents are:

A

Muscle paralysis
Facilitate endotracheal intubation
Facilitate mechanical ventilation

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5
Q

The term describing the effects of medication on the heart rate is ____

A

Chronotropic

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6
Q

RT’s primarily use ____ as a medication to break down secretions

A

Mucomyst

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7
Q

____ medications form the basis of respiratory care drugs that stimulate bronchodilator or prevent bronchoconstriction

A

Anti-cholinergic

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8
Q

____ is used to reverse narcotic induced respiratory depression

A

Narcan

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9
Q

When giving epinephrine via ETT during a code, the adult dose may be given in doses ____ times the IV dose

A

2-2.5

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10
Q

Ribavirin is used to treat ____

A

RSV

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11
Q

The duration of salmeterol is ___ hours

A

12

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12
Q

Dornase Alfa (Pulmozyme) is indicated in the management of ____

A

Cystic fibrosis

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13
Q

To reverse or lessen the degree of airflow obstruction is the indication for ___ bronchodilators use

A

Adrenergic

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14
Q

The aerogen is an example of a ____ nebulizer

A

Vibrating mesh

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15
Q

____ is what the respiratory therapist recommendation should be to prevent Pneumocystis jiroveci pneumonia in patients infected with HIV

A

Pentamidine

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16
Q

____ is the drug of choice for intubation

A

Anectine

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17
Q

Activation of the ___ receptor site causes bronchodilation

A

Beta-2

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18
Q

____ is used to increase the heart rate

A

Atropine

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19
Q

___ is common antihypertensive that is commonly used to decrease SVR and PVR

A

Nipride

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20
Q

_____ will cause you to have vasodilation, decreased BP, and decreased CO

A

Nitroglycerin

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21
Q

_____ blocking agents include Curare, Pavulon, and Anectine

A

Neuromuscular

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22
Q

Epinephrine can be repeated during a code every ____ according to ACLS protocol

A

3 min

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23
Q

Several attempts to insert a CVP catheter into the right subclavian vein of a patient who is being mechanically ventilated have been unsuccessful. Immediately the B/P drops, there is a significant increase in the PIP, and the breath sounds are absent over the right upper chest. Which of the following should the respiratory therapist recommend?

A

Begin cardiac compressions

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24
Q

The Fick equation calculates ___

A

Cardiac Output

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25
The amount of blood ejected from the LV during one cardiac cycle is called ___
Cardiac Output
26
Inflation of the balloon in the pulmonary artery (PCWP) will give you what readings either directly or indirectly:
LV PCWP LA PAP
27
An abnormally high or low reading from a pulmonary artery catheter is most likely caused by the ___
Transducer level
28
PCWP should not be maintained for greater than ___ to prevent the occurrence of pulmonary infarcation
15 seconds
29
The waveform depicted below was generated as a pulmonary artery catheter was floated into position. Section B of the tracing represents ____
Right ventricular pressure
30
____ is the bet-known index of cardiac output when VO2 is known
CaO2-CVO2
31
____ reflects pulmonary artery pressure
PCWP
32
C.O.
4-8 L
33
PCWP
4-12 torr
34
SVR
15-20 torr/L/min
35
PVR
1-3 torr/L/min
36
CVP
0-8 torr
37
PAP
25/10
38
Common substances of emboli include
Fat Blood clot Air
39
In patients with suspected pulmonary thromboembolism whose ordinary x-rays are negative, what procedure would best help to establish a diagnosis?
CT w/ contrast or V/Q scan
40
Dead space ventilation is ____ with pulmonary embolism
Increased
41
If a patient goes into ventricular tachycardia and a pulse is not obtainable, ____ is the correct treatment in this situation
Defibrillation
42
What are the 3 medication that will prevent blood clots
Coumadin, heparin, warfarin sodium
43
To control pain and anxiety for an acute MI you would use ____
Morphine sulfate
44
You would see a ___ area with ___ lung markings present, if it was indicated there was presence of a pneumothorax on a chest x-ray
Dark, no
45
Treatment of the pulmonary emboli includes
Heparin, streptokinase, oxygen
46
Myocardial ischemia is a reversible reduction of ___ to the heart
Blood supply
47
The most likely origin for venous thrombi are the _____
Deep veins of the lower extremities
48
In most patients with pulmonary embolism, ___ is noted on the arterial blood gas finding
Hypoxemia
49
An increased PCWP may indicate ____ or ____
Left sides heart failure, mitral stenosis
50
The greatest risk of thrombolytic therapy is _____
Hemorrhage
51
Closure of the pulmonic and aortic valves is noted by the ____
Diacrotic notch
52
The RCP is assisting the physician in the insertion of a Swan_Ganz catheter. The patient is hemodynamically stable at the time. The therapist would know the catheter tip has entered the pulmonary artery when ___ mmHg pressure is observed
25/10
53
____ is the most important initial treatment for an MI patient
Oxygen
54
T or F: Anticoagulants dissolve existing clots
False
55
____ is effective in destroying existing clots
Streptokinase
56
____ is used for the management of supra ventricular arrhythmias as well as ventricular rate control for atrial fib
Adenoside
57
This EKG change represents myocardial ischemia ___
T wave changes
58
This EKG change represents myocardial injury ____
ST changes
59
This EKG change represents myocardial infarction
Abnormal Q waves
60
____ should be assessed and monitored when delivering aggressive diuretic therapy
Electrolytes
61
Diuretics increase the loss of ___
K+
62
Low doses of ___ are used to increase cardiac output
Dopamine
63
_____ is characterized by acute circulatory failure, hypotension, and multi-organ failure
Septic shock
64
Pulmonary edema may suggest a ____ problem
Left-ventricular failure
65
Management of ____ includes digoxin, mechanical ventilation and/or lasix
Pulmonary edema
66
Clinical signs of a patient with ___ include rales, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, and peripheral edema
Pulmonary edema
67
Contributing factors for sepsis include:
Diabetes mellitus Cirrhosis Leukopenic states Urinary tract infection
68
The pulmonary edema patient will commonly have this type of secretions _____
Pink and frothy
69
Oxygen therapy and CPAP or Bi-PAP can be very effective for heart failure because it provides oxygenation by all the following mechanisms:
Decrease WOB Improve gas exchange Reduce pulmonary congestion
70
Clinical problems associated with ____ include oxygen toxicity and sepsis
ARDS
71
____ pulmonary edema seen with ARDS patients
Non-cardiogenic
72
Increased static compliance, increased cardiac output, and decreased intrapulmonary shunting would demonstrate that an increased ___ level has been beneficial for a mechanically ventilated patient
PEEP
73
Auscultation in a pulmonary edema patient reveals bi-basilar crackles and scattered wheezes throughout all lung fields. The therapist should suggest ____
Furosemide
74
To manage a mechanically ventilated patient with ARDS, increasing the ___ would decrease intrapulmonary shunting
PEEP
75
The pathophysiology of ____ includes decreased compliance, decreased lung volume, decreased resistance increased V/Q mismatch, an tissue hypoxia
Pulmonary edema
76
Bacteria produces changes in circulation and tissue perfusion is critically reduced with ___
Sepsis
77
Reaction of the respiratory system to high levels of physiologic stress is ___
ARDS
78
Altered permeability of capillary endothelial cells, increased quantity of fluid in interstitial space is _____
Pulmonary edema
79
Abnormal accumulation of fluid in lung tissue/alveolar spaces which result from abnormal heart function is ____
CHF