Resp Flashcards

0
Q

Chronic dyspnea DDx (10)

A
Pulmonary causes include:
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Pleural effusions
Interstitial lung disease
Pulmonary hypertension
Neuromuscular disease
Severe kyphoscoliosis

Cardiac causes include:
Heart failure (e.g., related to decreased cardiac output or valvular disease)
Restrictive pericarditis

Other causes include:
Chronic anemia
Severe obesity

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1
Q

Acute dyspnea DDx (15)

A
Pulmonary causes include:
Asthma
Bronchitis
Pneumonia
Pneumothorax
Pulmonary embolism
Large airway obstruction (aspiration of foreign body, epiglottitis)
Airway irritants (smoke, aerosols)

Cardiac causes include:
Heart failure (including failure related to an acute myocardial infarction)
Tamponade

Other causes include:
Hemorrhage
Hemolysis
Carbon monoxide poisoning
Psychogenic (hyperventilation syndrome, panic attack)
High altitude
Exercise
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2
Q
Acute dyspnea + each of the following DDx:
Cough (4)
Sputum production (2)
Pleuritic chest pain (3)
Visceral chest pain, angina (1)
Hemoptysis (3)
A

Cough (bronchitis, asthma, pneumonia, airway irritation)
Sputum production (bronchitis, pneumonia)
Pleuritic chest pain (spontaneous pneumothorax, pulmonary embolus, pneumonia)
Visceral chest pain, angina (heart failure)
Hemoptysis (pulmonary embolus, bronchitis, pneumonia)

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3
Q

For each Disease: FVC, FEV1, FEV1%, TLC, RV, DLCO

Emphysema
Chronic bronchitis
Asthma (active flare of disease)
Interstitial lung disease
Extrapulmonary restriction (e.g., kyphoscoliosis)
Heart failure (early, increased blood flow)
Heart failure (late, with pulmonary edema)
Pulmonary embolus

A

Disease, FVC, FEV1, FEV1%, TLC, RV, DLCO

Emphysema ↓↓↓↑↑↓
Chronic bronchitis↓↓↓—↑—
Asthma (active flare of disease)↓↓↓—↑—/↑
Interstitial lung disease↓— —/↑↓↓↓
Extrapulmonary restriction (e.g., kyphoscoliosis)↓↓—↓—/↓—
Heart failure (early, increased blood flow) —————↑
Heart failure (late, with pulmonary edema) —————↓
Pulmonary embolus —————↓

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4
Q

Acute cough is most commonly due to _________(1) while chronic cough is most commonly due to ___________(4).

A

acute upper respiratory tract pathology (general viral infection)
secondary to chronic upper airway conditions (allergies, sinusitis), asthma, and gastroesophageal reflux disease.

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5
Q

Patient with cough: things to look for on physicals exam to help narrow DDx (10)

A

Sinus tenderness (sinusitis)
Conjunctival injection, rhinitis (URI)
Tympanic membrane erythema (otitis)
Oropharyngeal “cobblestoning” (chronic sinusitis)
Loose rhonchi (infection; i.e., bronchitis or pneumonia)
Consolidation (pneumonia)
Fine crackles (pulmonary edema)
Focal wheezing (local obstructing lesion; i.e., tumor or foreign body)
End-expiratory wheezing (obstructive airways disease; i.e., asthma/chronic obstructive pulmonary disease [COPD])
Nature of the cough itself (eg dry, irritant, nonproductive cough secondary to ACE inhibitors, or productive early morning cough encountered in chronic bronchitis).

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6
Q
Causes of cough due to:
Upper Respiratory Infection (3)
Lower Respiratory Infection (3)
Environmental Pollutants (3)
Mechanical Irritation (of upper or lower respiratory tract) (4)
Chronic Inflammatory States (4)
Drugs (2)
A

Upper Respiratory Infection (generally viral):
Pharyngitis
Sinusitis (via persistent nasal secretions into the pharynx—“postnasal drip”)
Tracheitis

Lower Respiratory Infection:
Bronchitis
Pneumonia
Tuberculosis

Environmental Pollutants:
Dust
Pollen, animal dander, and other allergens
Cigarette smoke

Mechanical Irritation (of upper or lower respiratory tract):
Tumor
Aortic aneurysm
Cerumen
Pulmonary edema
Chronic Inflammatory States: 
Asthma
Chronic aspiration
Gastroesophageal reflux disease
Sarcoidosis

Drugs:
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
Psychogenic

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7
Q

Two major entities encompass COPD: what are they and how are they defined?

A

emphysema and chronic bronchitis.
Both result in airflow obstruction that is not fully reversible.

Chronic bronchitis is defined as excess tracheobronchial mucus production resulting in a productive cough that occurs for at least 3 months a year for 2 or more consecutive years. (Clinical Dx)
Emphysema is defined as abnormal dilatation of terminal airspaces with destruction of the alveolar septa. (Pathological Dx)

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8
Q

Chronic bronchitis: Pathophysiology? Is there V/Q mismatch?

A
  • distinctive hypertrophy and hyperplasia of the mucus-producing glands that line the airways.
  • chronic mucosal and submucosal inflammation, intraluminal mucus plugging, and smooth muscle hypertrophy; more pronounced in most distal, smaller caliber airways.
  • The loss of ventilation in regions distal to the airway obstruction results in ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) mismatches and hypoxia.
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9
Q

Emphysema: 2 types; what pattern and risk factors are associated with each? Is there V/Q mismatch?

A
  • centrilobular emphysema: areas most affected are respiratory bronchioles and the central alveolar ducts. Assoc with cigarette smoking.
  • panacinar emphysema: destruction throughout the acinus. Assoc with α1-antitrypsin deficiency

Destruction of airspace and blood vessels is equal; therefore, marked V/Q mismatch does not occur.

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10
Q

Physiologic changes that result from COPD: (5)

A

Decreased FEV1 (FEV1 dep on Airway diameter, Collapsibility of the airways, Elastic recoil of the lung parenchyma)
V/Q mismatches (generally shunt, i.e., blood flow to nonventilated areas, resulting in hypoxia)
Pulmonary hypertension (in part because of loss of blood vessels from alveolar destruction, but more important is vessel constriction caused by hypoxia)
Abnormal ventilatory responses (blunted response to hypercapnia and a reliance on hypoxic respiratory drive, generally seen in patients with chronic bronchitis)
Right heart failure (caused by long-standing pulmonary hypertension, so-called cor pulmonale)

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11
Q

What are blue bloaters and pink puffers?

A

Blue bloaters: patients with chronic bronchitis.

  • comfortable at rest.
  • Obesity and cyanosis, maybe peripheral edema.
  • Lung examination is usually resonant, often with coarse rhonchi and wheezes.
  • clubbing is rare and, if present, is suggestive of an additional condition (eg lung cancer).

Pink puffers: pt with emphysema

  • dyspnea at rest
  • appears thin without cyanosis.
  • markedly prolonged expiratory phase, often through pursed lips.
  • Hypertrophy of accessory muscles in neck, and retraction of intercostal muscles with inspiration.
  • lung exam: hyperresonant, with decrease in breath sounds, an increased anteroposterior chest diameter, and lowered diaphragms.
  • distant heart sounds, absent signs of right heart overload.
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12
Q

Spirometric Classification of COPD Severity Based on Post-Bronchodilator FEV1 (staging)

A

Stage I: Mild

FEV1/FVC <50% predicted plus chronic respiratory failure

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13
Q

Bronchodilator therapy can alleviate symptoms significantly in some COPD patients. Agents fall into three classes:

A

Anticholinergics (e.g., ipratropium, tiotropium)
β-Adrenergic agonists (e.g., albuterol, salmeterol)
Methylxanthines (e.g., theophylline)

**Inhaled anticholinergic agents cause bronchodilation through inhibition of vagal stimulation of the airways. The availability of the long-acting anticholinergic agent tiotropium bromide has led to a shift toward using this agent as first-line therapy.

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14
Q

When is continuous supplemental oxygen indicated in COPD?

A
  • In patients with documented persistent hypoxemia (i.e., PaO2 <90%), continuous supplemental oxygen is indicated.
  • Patients with signs of cor pulmonale and right heart failure should also receive supplemental oxygen even with less severe hypoxemia.
  • Note that oxygen therapy is the only pharmacologic therapy that has been proven to improve survival and quality of life.
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15
Q

What sign related to BP is seen during acute asthma attack?

What breathing pattern is also sometimes observed?

A

A pulsus paradoxus (an increase in the normal fall in systolic blood pressure [BP] of ≤ 10 mm Hg or less observed during inspiration) can be seen. Severe paradox (≥25 mm Hg) is indicative of a severe attack. Note that as respiratory muscle fatigue develops and the patient can no longer generate increased intrapleural pressure, the paradox can disappear.

Paradoxic breathing pattern (inward movement of the abdominal wall and lower thorax during inspiration)

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16
Q

The development of thrombosis is increased by three major factors (Virchow’s triad):

A

stasis, alteration in blood vessels (injury), and hypercoagulability

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17
Q

Causes of hypercoagulability (8)

A
Postpartum period
Malignancy
Oral contraceptives
Deficiencies of protein S, protein C, and antithrombin III
Lupus anticoagulant
Activated protein C resistance (e.g., factor V Leiden)
Prothrombin gene mutations
Hyperhomocysteinemia
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18
Q

Most common PE Sx (4)

A
  • most prominent: sudden onset of unexplained dyspnea.
  • Pleuritic chest pain (increased with respiration)
  • Cough in roughly a third of patients.
  • Hemoptysis, although considered a classic finding, is relatively uncommon and usually indicates pulmonary infarction.
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19
Q

PE findings: vitals (3), cardiac and resp exam, other finding

A

Tachycardia
tachypnea
Low-grade fever (<101°F [38.3°C]) may be encountered

-The pulmonary examination in PE is often completely normal with less than half of all patients presenting with scattered rales as the sole finding.

-Cardiac examination may reveal signs of right-sided heart strain if the embolus is extensive. These include:
Loud pulmonic component of second heart sound (P2), best heard in left second intercostal space
Right-sided S3 (increased with inspiration)
Right ventricular heave (palpable lift over left sternal border)

-maybe Physical findings related to underlying lower extremity thrombosis; seen in only approximately a third of all patients.

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20
Q

In the patient who presents with shortness of breath and chest pain, the differential diagnosis includes: (6)

A
PE
Pneumothorax
Myocardial ischemia
Pericarditis
Asthma
Pneumonia
21
Q

In the patient with a massive PE who presents with hypotension and hemodynamic instability, also consider: (4)

A

MI with shock
Cardiac tamponade
Tension pneumothorax
Aortic dissection

22
Q

PE chest radiograph findings (5)

A

atelectasis (60% to 70% of patients)

Classic but less common:
Increased lung lucency in the area of embolus (Westermark sign)
Abrupt cutoff of vessel
Wedge-shaped pleural-based infiltrate (“Hampton hump”)
Pleural effusion, which if sampled by thoracentesis, is often hemorrhagic

23
Q

The classic patterns on ECG for PE (3) as well as the most common ECG finding (1)

A

Classic: S wave in lead I with a Q-wave and T-wave inversion in lead III (“S1-Q3-T3 pattern”) - in the context of right heart strain

Other signs of right heart strain are new right bundle branch block and ST-segment changes in V1 and V2.

The most common ECG finding is simply tachycardia and nonspecific ST-segment and T-wave changes.

24
Q

Tests for Dx PE

A

Chest radiograph
ECG
V/Q scan (best initial test after clear CXR)
Helical CT with IV contrast
Color-flow Doppler ultrasound (US) with compression - for proximal DVT (70% to 80% of all patients with PE have a proximal DVT)
D-dimers
Pulmonary angiogram (gold standard; 1% mortality)

25
Q

Modified Wells’ Criteria for the Clinical Assessment of PE (7)

A
Criteria - Score
Clinical symptoms of DVT 3.0
Other diagnoses less likely than PE 3.0
Heart rate >100 1.5
Immobilization or surgery in past 4 wk1.5
Previous DVT/PE 1.5
Hemoptysis 1.0
Malignancy 1.0

Probability of PE - Score
High - greater than 6.0
Moderate - 2.0 to 6.0
Low - less than 2.0

26
Q

The treatment of _______-the-knee (above/below) DVT is more controversial.

A

Below; These clots have a low risk of embolizing, although 15% to 20% progress to above the knee

27
Q

In which PE patients is thrombolytic therapy indicated?

A

In the hypotensive patient with massive pulmonary embolus

28
Q

During heparin therapy, why should platelet counts should be monitored?

A

Heparin-induced thrombocytopenia manifests as a dramatic drop in platelets 1 to 20 days after initiation of therapy and is believed to be an autoimmune destruction mediated through IgG.

29
Q

The goal for warfarin therapy is an international normalized ratio (INR) of the PT of ________.

A

2 to 3

30
Q

Advantages of LMWH include: (3)

A

Fixed dosages administered subcutaneously (possibly at home)
No need for laboratory monitoring
Decreased risk of DVT recurrence in some studies

31
Q

The diagnosis of PE and the need for anticoagulation can be documented by any of the following: (3)

A

angiogram positive for PE, DVT confirmed by US or venogram, or a high-probability V/Q scan in a patient with a high suspicion of PE.

32
Q

Anticoagulation can safely be withheld in patients with ________ (2). Anticoagulation can also be withheld in patients with low pretest clinical probability (based on Wells’ criteria) with _______ and either ______ or _______.

A

a normal V/Q scan or negative D-dimer test.

non-high probability lung scan and either negative venous Doppler studies or negative D-dimer test.

33
Q

The central pathophysiologic process in ILD involves _________ leading to ________, resulting in the following disturbances in lung function: (3)

A

chronic inflammation of the alveolar wall and surrounding structures; scarring and fibrosis
Decreased transalveolar gas diffusion
A restrictive respiratory pattern (resulting in decreased lung volumes)
Variable obstructive respiratory pattern (depending on the underlying etiology)

34
Q

There are close to 200 described causes of ILD. However, the majority of them can be grouped into four major divisions:

A

Pneumoconioses
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis (antigen deposition leading to antigen-antibody complexes; granulomas can result).
Drug-induced disease (cytotoxics, antibiotics)
Idiopathic/primary lung diseases (connective tissue diseases)

35
Q

Classic finding in ILD? Gold standard for Dx ILD?

A

fine expiratory crackles

Gold standard = lung Bx

36
Q

ILD CXR findings (2 common and 4 less common)

A

The typical chest radiograph findings in ILD are reticular or reticulonodular infiltrates with diminished lung volumes.
A variety of abnormalities, including alveolar infiltrates, hilar and mediastinal adenopathy, pleural disease, and honeycombing, can also be seen.

37
Q

The majority of cases of ILD are secondary to _________.
The cardinal clinical features of ILD are __________ (2).
Treatment of ILD involves removal of any underlying etiologies and ________(1) for selected conditions. Treatment options are limited beyond this.

A

direct or immunologic lung injury caused by inhaled or ingested substances
history of progressive dyspnea on exertion accompanied by a nonproductive cough
corticosteroid therapy

38
Q

A pleural effusion can be classified either as a _______ or ________.
Difference betw the two?

A

transudate or an exudate

transudate: rate of formation of pleural fluid exceeds the maximal rate of lymphatic clearance. The pleural capillary endothelium remains intact, and the protein content of the fluid is low.
exudate: loss of integrity of the pleural membrane and/or disruption of the lymphatic drainage. Elevated protein concentration.

39
Q

Pleural effusion transudates are caused by: (4)

A
Congestive heart failure (CHF) (increased capillary hydrostatic pressure)
Cirrhosis (decreased plasma oncotic pressure)
Nephrotic syndrome (decreased plasma oncotic pressure)
Pulmonary embolism (altered hemodynamics)
40
Q

Pleural effusion exudates are caused by: (7)

A

Bacterial pneumonia (damage to pleural membrane)
Metastatic disease, most commonly lung, breast, and lymphoma (blockage of lymphatic drainage via lymph node infiltration)
Pulmonary embolism (damage to pleural membrane)
Tuberculosis (damage to pleural membrane and blockage of lymphatic drainage)
Collagen vascular diseases, for example, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) (damage to pleural membrane from inflammation)
Mesothelioma (altered pleural membrane because of primary tumor of mesothelial cells)
Viral infection (damage to pleural membrane)

41
Q

Overall, the vast majority of transudates are caused by _______(1), whereas the combination of _______ (3) accounts for approximately 80% of exudates.
Does pulmonary embolism result in a transudate or exudate?

A

heart failure
pneumonia, metastatic disease, and pulmonary embolism
Pulmonary embolism can result in either a transudate or exudate.

42
Q

A large pleural effusion can result in the following physical findings: (4)
In addition, findings related to the underlying etiology may be present: (3)

A

Decreased tactile fremitus
Dullness to percussion
Absent or diminished breath sounds
Shift of trachea and heart away from affected side

Adenopathy (malignancy, tuberculosis)
Elevated neck veins, peripheral edema (heart failure)
Ascites (cirrhosis)

43
Q

Tests for Dx pleural effusion? (2)

A

chest radiographs: bilateral decubitus films in addition to the routine upright films.
diagnostic thoracentesis to determine if it is an exudate or transudate.

Further tests are req’d in cases of complicated parapneumonic effusion or malignant pleural effusion.

44
Q

A number of criteria have been proposed to differentiate transudates from exudates, but the most commonly used criteria were proposed by Light and colleagues: (4)

A

Pleural fluid-to-serum protein (albumin) ratio more than 0.5
Pleural fluid lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) more than 200 IU (or greater than two thirds of the upper limit of the laboratory’s normal serum LDH).
Pleural fluid-to-serum LDH ratio more than 0.6

If any one of the critical values is exceeded, the effusion is judged to be an exudate.

45
Q

Tx of pleural effusion: Tx of transudates and Tx of exudates (incl complicated parapneumonic effusion and malignant pleural effusion)

A

Transudates: managed simply by correcting the underlying problem; pleural membranes are intact, so restoring the normal Starling forces permits reabsorption. Diuretics, and rarely, a therapeutic thoracentesis to relieve dyspnea.

Exudates: may require local control of the effusion (drainage or sclerosis) as well as correction of the underlying disorder.
-Complicated parapneumonic effusion: requires drainage with tube thoracostomy (prevent loculation; also antibiotics penetrate poorly in these effusions). If loculation has already occurred, multiple tubes may be required. Alternately, streptokinase or urokinase can be instilled via the chest tube in an attempt to dissolve the loculations. In severe cases, surgical decortication may be required.
-malignant pleural effusions: problematic because Tx of the underlying malignancy is generally not possible. Often large, and reaccumulate after thoracentesis. Alternatives include:
Instillation of sclerosing agents such as bleomycin or minocycline via a chest tube
Application of talc or direct abrasion via thoracoscopy
Insertion of a pleuroperitoneal shunt

46
Q

Paraneoplastic syndromes assoc with lung cancer: (5)

A

Hypercalcemia (caused by PTH-like substance)
Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
Ectopic adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) secretion (with resultant Cushing syndrome)
Eaton-Lambert syndrome (a myasthenialike disorder seen in the setting of small cell cancer)
Hypercoagulable state (including migratory venous thrombophlebitis—Trousseau syndrome)

47
Q

Classification of lung cancers (4)

A

The four major histopathologic types of lung cancers can be separated into two major groups based on clinical grounds:
Small cell cancers (100% of which are associated with smoking)
Nonsmall cell cancers (further divided into squamous cell, large cell, and adenocarcinoma)

48
Q

Nonsmall cell lung cancers: staging? Tx?

A

Staged with TNM; For patients with limited tumors, surgical resection can result in cure. Unfortunately, these tumors are not very responsive to chemotherapy, limiting treatment options in disseminated disease.

49
Q

small cell lung cancers: staging? Tx?

A

metastasize rapidly, so staging is either as limited disease (overt disease confined to one hemithorax and the regional lymph nodes) or extensive disease (where there is further spread).
Surgery is generally reserved to relieve symptoms from the mass effect of the tumor (not to cure) but unlike nonsmall cell cancer, small cell cancers are generally quite responsive to chemotherapy.

(Remission and partial response occur frequently, but recurrence is common, leading to overall survival of approximately 5%)

50
Q

Findings assoc with lung cancer (5)

A
Classic physical findings associated with specific lung cancers:
Horner syndrome (sympathetic ganglion dysfunction with ptosis, miosis, enophthalmos, and anhidrosis)
A supraclavicular mass caused by a Pancoast tumor (apical tumor involving C8 and T1-2 nerve roots causing shoulder pain radiating down the arm)
SVC syndrome (upper extremity swelling with or without facial swelling because of vascular obstruction)

In addition, clubbing of the fingers and adenopathy (axillary or supraclavicular) are suggestive (but not pathognomonic) of an underlying malignancy.

51
Q

In the case of a solitary pulmonary nodule (a mass of _____ cm found on radiograph), approximately ______% turn out to be malignant; patients with a malignant nodule have a 5-year survival rate of _____%.

A