Resp Flashcards

1
Q

What are small cell lung cancer associated hormones?

A

ADH, ACTH, Lambert Eaton

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2
Q

What are squamous lung cancer associated conditions?

A

PTH, Clubbing, HPOA, Ectopic TSH

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3
Q

What are adenocarcinoma associated conditions?

A

Gynaecomastia, HPOA

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4
Q

What are the stages of sarcoidosis?

A

1 BHL, 2 BHL and infiltrates, 3 infiltrates without BHL, 4 fibrosis

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5
Q

What indicates a good prognosis in sarcoidosis?

A

HLA B8, Erythema Nodosum, polyarthritis, fever

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6
Q

What is the first line investigation for asthma in adults?

A

FBC for eosinophilia or fractional nitric oxide. Bronchodilator reversibility with spirometry is diagnostic.

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7
Q

What does respiratory alkalosis + normal PaO2 indicate?

A

Anxiety

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8
Q

What does respiratory alkalosis + reduced PaO2 indicate?

A

Pulmonary Embolism (PE)

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9
Q

What is the target oxygen saturation for COPD once CO2 is normal?

A

94-98%

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10
Q

What is the treatment for allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis?

A

Prednisolone

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11
Q

What are the stages of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis (IPF)?

A

Small peripheral changes in lower zones -> ground glass -> honeycombing

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12
Q

What do ground glass changes indicate?

A

Organising pneumonia

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13
Q

What is CURB65 criteria?

A

RR >30, DBP <60

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14
Q

When is a chest tube indicated?

A

Purulent fluid, culture or pH <7.2

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15
Q

What causes a left shift in the oxygen dissociation curve?

A

Lower acidity, temperature, 2-3 DPG, HbF, carboxy/methyhaemoglobin

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16
Q

What causes a right shift in the oxygen dissociation curve?

A

Raised acidity, temperature, 2-3 DPG

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17
Q

What conditions are associated with bronchiectasis?

A

CF, Measles, Hypogammaglobulinaemia, Aspergillosis

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18
Q

What happens if you have high EPO due to altitude or marathon running?

A

Secondary polycythaemia increases stroke risk

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19
Q

What is the cut-off for pulmonary arterial pressure?

A

> 20

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20
Q

When is NIV indicated in COPD?

A

In T2RF that does not improve with medical therapy

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21
Q

What happens to TLCO in asbestosis?

A

It is reduced

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22
Q

What is the treatment for Chlamydia psittaci?

A

Doxycycline

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23
Q

What is EAA?

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis with a primarily granulomatous inflammatory response

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24
Q

What does normal PCO2 in acute severe asthma indicate?

A

Life threatening condition

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25
Q

What is the treatment for High Altitude Pulmonary Edema (HAPE)?

A

Descent, oxygen, nifedipine

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26
Q

What indicates bronchiolitis obliterans in a patient with rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Dyspnoea and obstructive pattern on spirometry

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27
Q

How much does smoking increase lung cancer risk?

A

x10, asbestos x5, both x50

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28
Q

What is the association of bronchiectasis with eosinophilia and fungal hyphae?

A

Allergic bronchopulmonary aspergillosis treated with oral prednisolone

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29
Q

What can oral itraconazole be used for?

A

As a steroid sparer

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30
Q

What are Light’s Criteria for exudative effusion?

A

Requires one of the following: Pleural fluid protein / Serum protein >0.5, Pleural fluid LDH / Serum LDH >0.6, Pleural fluid LDH > 2/3 * Serum LDH upper limit of normal

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31
Q

Is glucose used in Light’s Criteria?

A

No

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34
Q

What are the symptoms of Eosinophilic Granulomatosis (Churg Strauss)?

A

Nasal polyps, unmasked by Granulomatosis with Polyangitis, sinus pain, and nephrotic syndrome.

35
Q

What are common occupational asthma triggers?

A

Flour, Isocyanates, Cadmium, Platinum Salts.

36
Q

How can acute mountain sickness be prevented?

A

Acetazolamide prevention.

37
Q

What is the treatment for HACE?

A

Descent and Dexamethasone treatment.

38
Q

What is the treatment for HAPE?

A

Descent, Nifedipine, Dexamethasone, and Acetazolamide.

39
Q

What does a raised transfer factor indicate?

A

Asthma, haemorrhage, left to right shunts, polycythaemia.

40
Q

What does a low transfer factor indicate?

A

Everything else.

41
Q

What is the most common organism in bronchiectasis?

A

Haemophilus influenza.

42
Q

What spirometry pattern is seen in patients with rheumatoid and bronchiolitis obliterans?

A

Obstructive pattern.

43
Q

What is the chance of being a carrier or having CF in AR conditions?

A

50% chance of carrier, 25% chance of having.

44
Q

What are the genotypes for alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

PiZZ= Emphysema, PiMM= Normal, PiMZ= Carrier.

45
Q

What causes Malt workers lung?

A

Aspergillus clavatus.

46
Q

Why won’t NIV work in bronchiectasis?

A

Too many secretions.

47
Q

What syndrome causes primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

Kartageners syndrome.

48
Q

What improves survival in COPD after quitting smoking?

49
Q

What are the criteria for LTOT?

A

Po2 of <7.4 or above with secondary polycythaemia, nocturnal hypoxaemia, peripheral oedema, or pulmonary hypertension.

50
Q

What are contraindications to lung cancer surgery?

A

SVC obstruction, FEV <1.5, malignant pleural effusion, and vocal cord paralysis.

51
Q

What is the treatment for alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Lung volume reduction surgery.

52
Q

What happens to KCO in obesity?

A

You get a raised KCO and restrictive picture.

53
Q

What causes EAA?

A

Hypersensitivity pneumonitis from thermophilic actinomycetes (saccharopolyspora rectivirgula).

54
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Bupropion?

A

Inhibition of norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake and antagonism of nicotinic acetylcholine receptors.

55
Q

What are the symptoms of primary ciliary dyskinesia?

A

Recurrent chest infections and subfertility.

56
Q

What are the BiPAP pressures?

A

E comes before I. E=5, I=10.

57
Q

What is diagnostic for OSA?

A

Polysomnography (PSG).

58
Q

What three systems are involved in granulomatosis with polyangitis?

A

ENT, respiratory, and kidney.

59
Q

What are the stages of COPD?

A

> 80% mild stage 1, 50-79% moderate stage 2, 30-49% severe stage 3, <30% very severe stage 4.

60
Q

What percentage of sarcoidosis patients improve without treatment?

A

Most sarcoidosis patients.

61
Q

What is linked with poor prognosis in pneumonia?

62
Q

What are the characteristics of squamous cell lung cancer?

A

PTHrp, clubbing, HPOA.

63
Q

What are the characteristics of small cell lung cancer?

A

ADH, ACTH, Lambert Eaton.

64
Q

What does Azithromycin require before use?

A

LFTs and baseline ECG as it can cause long QT.

65
Q

How is occupational asthma diagnosed?

A

Serial peak flows at home and work.

66
Q

What is ARDS?

A

Non-cardiogenic sudden onset pulmonary oedema with hypoxaemia and Po2/Fio2 <300.

67
Q

What is Varenicline used for?

A

It is a partial nicotine agonist, started 1 week before the stop date and continued for 12 weeks.

68
Q

What is the first line treatment for OSA?

A

Weight loss then CPAP.

69
Q

What does coal dust exposure not cause?

70
Q

What infection is associated with bird keepers?

A

Chlamydia psittaci.

71
Q

What is catamenial pneumothorax?

A

Endometrial tissue in the lungs.

72
Q

What eosinophil count indicates asthma in adults?

A

Raised eosinophil count of 0.6 x 10^9/l or feNO >= 50.

73
Q

What are the characteristics of silicosis?

A

Multiple and small well-rounded nodules, particularly in the upper zone.

74
Q

Does amyloidosis cause bronchiectasis?

75
Q

What is the management for asymptomatic secondary haemothorax?

A

Always conservative management.

76
Q

Does LTOT improve survival in COPD?

77
Q

What is the consequence of ICD?

A

Loss of HGV licence, 1 year off driving for normal drivers.

78
Q

What condition is associated with hyponatraemia?