Resi school answers Flashcards

1
Q

A patent airway is essential to life. What key points need to be considered when assessing the patency of a person’s airway?

A

Assess the client’s breathing by observing:

a) The work of breathing (recession, respiratory rate, depth, effort including the use of accessory muscle use).
b) The effectiveness of breathing (oxygen saturation, chest expansion, breath sounds).
c) Chest wall movement and any chest injury.
d) Whether the client can talk. Is the client breathless when talking? Are they able to talk in sentences or only single words?
e) If there is any pain being experienced by the client on inspiration or expiration
f) Position of trachea (midline or is deviation noted).
g) Auscultate for bilateral breath sounds including the lung peripheries.
h) That the stomach is not being ventilated and count respiratory rate. A nasogastric tube maybe required to be inserted to treat and prevent gastric dilatation.
i) The effects of inadequate respiration (heart rate, mental state)

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2
Q

Why is important to monitor the vital signs of a person with suspected airway compromise?

A

An assessment of the vital signs provides essential physiological information about patients. Impending critical illness and respiratory compromise can alter these signs. Monitoring of vital signs will identify deterioration in the person condition.

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3
Q

When would the nurse insert a Guedel’s airway (oropharangeal airway)?

A

When the spontaneously breathing person is unconscious or unable to maintain the patency of their own airway.

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4
Q

In what circumstances would a LMA be used?

A

Indicated as an alternative to the face mask for achieving and maintaining control of an airway, and has proved to be a valuable tool in the emergency management of a failed intubation, as it helps establish and maintain an airway

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5
Q

What is the nursing role following endotracheal tube intubation?

A

The nurse should check that the ET tube is in the correct place. this is done by watching for both equal and bilateral chest movements and listening for air entry. The nurse should secure the ET tube once it is in place to prevent it from moving

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6
Q

. List the nursing responsibilities when caring for a person with a tracheostomy tube insitu?

A
  • It is vital that the cuff pressure is checked regularly and that the cuff is deflated and reinflated at appropriate intervals to prevent the effects of pressure on the internal wall of the trachea. Suction should be applied above the cuff prior to deflation to remove any secretions.
  • Pre-oxygenation of person may be needed prior to suctions. • Need to treat suctioning and dressing changes a clean – aspetic procedures – needed to assist in reducing risk of resp infection
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7
Q

What is the purpose of artificial airway suctioning?

A

To remove secretions from the airways. Tracheostomy suctioning may improve the patency of the airway, oxygenation and gaseous exchange

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8
Q

Unconscious person who is breathing spontaneously with an oxygen saturation of 95% in room air.

Artificial airway needed?

If yes why?

Type of airway needed

A

Yes

To protect airway Oropharangeal airway.

Oxygen saturation monitoring is essential

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9
Q

. Person with a burn injury to 50% of their body after being trapped in a house fire

Artificial airway needed?

If yes why?

Type of airway needed

A

Yes

Airway may be compromised. Fluid replacement needed ETT

Oxygen saturation monitoring is essential.

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10
Q

Unconscious 10 year old boy postoperative inguinal hernia repair being cared for in recovery.

Artificial airway needed?

If yes why?

Type of airway needed

A

Yes

To protect airway Oropharangeal Or Nasal airway plus Hudson mask with 02 at 6/L

Oxygen saturation monitoring is essential

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11
Q

Unconscious person who is breathing shallow with an oxygen saturation of 82% in room air.

Artificial airway needed?

If yes why?

Type of airway needed

A

Yes

Shallow respirations and low oxygen saturations

Oropharangeal Non-rebreather – 10 to 15/L

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12
Q

Person with a burn injury to their hands as a result of spillage of boiling water.

Artificial airway needed?

If yes why?

Type of airway needed

A

NO

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13
Q

Unconscious person who is not breathing.

Artificial airway needed?

If yes why?

Type of airway needed

A

Yes

To protect airway Oropharangeal and bag and mask followed quickly by ETT

Oxygen saturation monitoring is essential

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14
Q

Unconscious person who is breathing spontaneously but has an oxygen saturation of 88%.

Artificial airway needed?

If yes why?

Type of airway needed

A

Yes

To protect airway Oropharangeal Or Nasal airway plus Hudson mask with oxygen at 6/Lpm

Oxygen saturation monitoring is essential

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15
Q
A
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16
Q

Oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airways

A

Oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airways can be used in-conjunction with bag and mask ventilation. These airways are used in the unconscious person who is unable to maintain their own airway. The nurse is able to insert both the oropharyngeal and nasopharyngeal airways and a Hudson mask can also be applied over these airways to ensure the person is being adequately oxygenated.

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17
Q

Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA)

A

Laryngeal Mask Airway (LMA) is a Latex-free, silicone rubber tube connected to an elliptical mask with an inflatable outer rim. To insert an LMA the person’s mouth needs to be opened and the tip of the cuff pressed upward against the palate so the cuff is flattened against it. The LMA is then pushed back along the person’s palate until resistance is felt. Once resistance is felt the mask is situated at the hypopharynx. The cuff of the LMA is then inflated with 2–4 ml air to create a seal.

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18
Q

Endotracheal tube (ETT)

A

Endotracheal tubes (ETT) are used to maintain the airway of people who are unable to maintain their own patent airway. ET tubes come in a number of sizes, and are measured by the size of their internal diameter. The choice of ETT size is a balance between choosing the largest size to maximise air flow and minimise airway resistance and the smallest size to minimise airway trauma. An ETT is inserted by a skilled practitioner. To insert the EET the larynx is viewed using a laryngoscope. A laryngoscope is a rigid instrument used to examine the larynx and to facilitate intubation of the trachea. The ETT is held in the operator’s dominant hand and is introduced into the right side of the month. The operator should be able to see the tip of the ETT pass in the larynx, between the abducted cords. The ETT is then passed approximately 1 cm through the vocal cords. Important—the cuff of the ETT should not be inflated until it is passed the vocal cords.

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19
Q

Tracheostomy tube

A

A tracheostomy tube is inserted through the creation of an opening in the trachea (i.e stoma) to enable the maintenance of a person’s airway. The placement of the tracheostomy tube can be either permanent or temporary—depending upon the reason the tracheostomy was needed in the first place. The tracheostomy tube is placed below the vocal cords. As a result air is no longer humidified or filtered. In addition the bypassing of the vocal cords can affect the person’s ability to talk. Tracheostomy tubes can be cuffed or un-cuffed. In people with a cuffed tracheostomy tube there is no passage of air passed the vocal cords and talking is not possible without an aid. In persons with an un-cuffed tracheostomy tube breathing occurs around the tube and the person has the ability to talk. Complications that can occur with a tracheostomy tube insitu include: loss of airway and infection, bleeding or pnuemothorax, aspiration of gastric content (particularly problematic in people with un-cuffed tubes), nerve damage or posterior tracheal wall penetration to name just a few

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20
Q

The primary objectives when caring for people with a tracheostomy insitu include:

A

• Ensuring there is a spare tracheostomy tube available in case of dislodgement. • Ensuring the tube is secure. This is achieved by ties that are secured around the tube and person’s neck. The nurse may require the assistance of a second person when changing tracheostomy tube ties. • The person needs to be fully informed at all times as to what the nurse is doing in relation to their tracheostomy tube. Understandably the person may become anxious if they feel their airway is being obstructed. • It is essential the nurse maintain standard pre-cautions when performing tracheostomy care. • When changing the ties of the tracheostomy the nurse needs to ensure they have a gloved assistant who is able to hold the tube securely throughout the procedure and that the tube is secure at the end of the procedure. Please note—this is a 2 person procedure. • When dressing the tracheostomy the nurse needs to ensure they have the correct dressing and that the stoma is cleaned thoroughly with normal saline. • It is important for the nurse to document the procedure in the person’s nursing notes.

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21
Q

Outline the body’s compensatory actions for

Respiratory Acidosis

A

Respiratory Acidosis = in respiratory acidosis the respiratory rate is depressed and is the cause of acidosis therefore renal system tries to compensate for respiratory acid-base imbalance due to respiratory disease.

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22
Q

Outline the body’s compensatory actions for the following imbalances:

Metabolic alkalosis:

A

Metabolic Alkalosis = shallow breaths blow off CO2 – decrease respiratory rate to retain CO2

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23
Q

Outline the body’s compensatory actions for the following imbalances:

Respiratory alkalosis

A

Respiratory Alkalosis = kidneys start excreting HCO3 - to compensate for alkalosis.

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24
Q

Outline the body’s compensatory actions for the following imbalances:

Metabolic acidosis

A

Metabolic acidosis = respiratory system compensates for metabolic acid-base imbalance by increasing resp rate

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25
Q

What are the indications for an intercostal catheter?

A

Pneumothorax, haemothorax, lung requiring re-expansion

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26
Q

Gravity is usually sufficient to drainXXX AND XXXXX from the pleural space

A

Gravity is usually sufficient to drainAIR AND FLUID from the pleural space

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27
Q

The connections of the intercostal catheter and drainage bottle should be checked for xxxxx and xxxxxxx

A

The connections of the intercostal catheter and drainage bottle should be checked for leaks and security

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28
Q

List safety issues relevant to the nursing care of a person with an intercostal catheter

A

Check connections tights; if water in drainage system keep bottles below level of chest; have normal saline bottle at bed side in case of accidental disconnection – ICC end can be placed in bottle of Normal Saline so no air enters pleural space. RN then has time to replace drainage system if needed; Check dressing for ooze and change as per hospital policy.

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29
Q
A
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30
Q

Identify the landmarks on the chest, which will assist you in finding the correct position to listen to the heart

A
  1. Aortic region (between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the right sternal border) (RUSB – right upper sternal border). 2. Pulmonic region (between the 2nd and 3rd intercostal spaces at the left sternal border) (LUSB – left upper sternal border). 3. Tricuspid region (between the 3rd, 4th, 5th, and 6th intercostal spaces at the left sternal border) (LLSB – left lower sternal border). 4. Mitral region (near the apex of the heard between the 5th and 6th intercostal spaces in the mid-clavicular line) (apex of the heart).
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31
Q

After this initial examination in the supine positions, several additional maneuvers should be accomplished in the thorough cardiac exam, as follows:

A
  1. Instruct the patient to turn onto their left side (left decubitus position) and listen with the bell of the stethoscope at the apex for mitral stenosis (low pitched diastolic murmur).
  2. Instruct the patient to sit upright and re-examine the 4 percordial regions, again with the diaphragm of the stethoscope.
  3. Instruct the patient to lean forward, exhale, and hold their breath. Listen with the diaphragm between the second and third intercostal spaces at the right sternal (aortic) and left sternal (pulmonic) areas for aortic regurgitation.
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32
Q

With reference to the above diagram, briefly explain the significance of:

P Wave: depolarisation of the artia

QRS complex: depolarisation of the ventrciles

T Wave: repolarisation of the ventrciles

A

P Wave: depolarisation of the artia

QRS complex: depolarisation of the ventrciles

T Wave: repolarisation of the ventrciles

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33
Q

What are the possible consequences of inaccurate chest electrode placement?

A

Inaccurate ECG reading and as a result in accurate diagnosis of client condition

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34
Q

List your initial actions when a person is not breathing.

A

Check airway and clear if obstruction found

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35
Q

What is the most appropriate action to clear a person’s obstructed airway?

A

Turn head to side and scope out debrie or use suction – wall suction and yankur sucker

36
Q

If the person is not breathing, what is the best way to determine if the heart is beating?

A

Listen with stethoscope for an apex beat

37
Q

How many minutes following cessation of breathing and heartbeat does it takes for brain damage to occur?

A

Six minutes

38
Q

What is the rate and ratio of compressions to breaths for a one person resuscitation of an adult person.

A

Rate 100 compressions per minute with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 rescue breaths.

39
Q

What is the rate and ratio of compressions to breaths for a two person resuscitation of an adult person?

A

Rate 100 compressions per minute with a ratio of 30 compressions to 2 rescue breaths.

40
Q

What rythms are lethal?

A

Asystol, Ventricular fibrillation & ventricula tachycardia if left untreated

41
Q

What rythms are potentially lethal?

A

arterial fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, third degree heart block, sinus tachycardia and sinus bradycardia

42
Q

Identify the appropriate endotrachela tube size for a female and male

A

Female—size 8

Male—size 9

43
Q

List the clinical signs that indicate resuscitation has been successful.

A

Breathing and heart rate have returned. Cardiac output is present

44
Q

List the observations that should be made post resuscitation.

A

Vital signs, connect client to cardiac monitor and observe rate and rhythm, monitor urine output as indicator of cardiac function, record oxygen requirements and oxygen saturations.

45
Q

Identify the various types of central venous access devices.

A

Central venous catheters, portacath, PICC line, Jugular vein catheters, etc

46
Q

List the complications of central venous access devices

A

Safety, correct measurement, information about procedures, prevent complications such as haemorrhage, leakage, disconnection, dislodgement of tube, etc

47
Q

Central venus catheter placement is checked by:

A

Chest X-ray

48
Q

CVP is a reflection of

A

pre-load of right ventricule

49
Q

Normal range for mean Central Venous Pressure (CVP) is:

A

extbook says 2-8cm/H20 when measured with a manometer or 2-5mm/Hg when using haemodynamic monitoring system

50
Q

What are the indications for CVP monitoring?

A

Decreased cardiac output/post-op, shock, use of inotropic drugs, etc

51
Q

How is the zero point established to enable the measurement the central venous pressure (CVP)?

A

Level of right atrium - diagram in textbook Lemone, Burke, Dwyer, 2011 page 218 –- or as per diagram in BRowna dn Edwards CRO

52
Q

Why is it important to ensure the CVP reading is taken with the client is the same position each time?

A

Enable accurate measurements to be obtained and results compared with previous findings to enable adequate assessment of client fluid status.

53
Q

Normal range for mean arterial pressure is?

A

70-105 mm/Hg

54
Q

What are the main nursing responsibilities when caring for a person with an arterial line insitu?

A

Monitor limb for discolouration, ensure connections secure, check for backflow, ensure monitoring equipment zeroed and working

55
Q

amiodarone

A

Amiodarone is used to treat ventricular tachycardia orventricular fibrillation.

Amiodarone affects the rhythm of your heartbeats. It is used to help keep the heart beating normally in people with life-threatening heart rhythm disorders of the ventricles (the lower chambers of the heart that allow blood to flow out of the heart).

56
Q

Why is it important to monitor the person who has been given IV tenecteplase for reperfusion arrhythmias?

A

Tenecteplase is a drug that is considered thrombolytic therapy. Thrombolytic therapy drugs work by converting proenzyme plasminogen to plasmin thereby dissolving the blockage to the coronary artery and enabling blood to flow to the area again – i.e reperfusion. As reperfusion arrhythmias can be lethal all clients receiving tenecteplase to treat plaque rupture and coronary artery occlusion should be monitored using electronic cardiorespiratory monitoring

57
Q
  1. What are reperfusion arrhythmias?
A

Arrhythmias that occur while medication that dissolves clots in coronary arteries is administered.

Reperfusion arrhythmias can occur at any stage throughout the treatment and may be lethal

58
Q

What assessments would be needed to verify your conclusions about the person’s fever and the cough?

A

CXR, FBC – specifically looking at white cells count

59
Q

The person’s temperature was 38.4 degrees Celsius and she has a dry cough. This could indicated:

A

Underlying chest infection – this is important as inflammatory responses in the body can lead to arterial plaque rupture and the myocardium being oxygen deprived and

Elevated temperature can also reduce the oxygen available to the heart

60
Q

Elevated CKMB and Troponin I

A

Elevated CKMB and Troponin I indicate that the client has had a myocardial infartcion

61
Q

Potential treatment for arrhythmia or thrombolysis.

A

thrombolysis.

62
Q

Briefly list how these risk factors contribute to CAD.

A

Smoking and high fat diet lay down plaque in coronary arteries which contributes to the narrowing coronary vessels.

Obesity increases workload on heart.

Stress can lead to increased HR elevated lipid levels, alteration in blood coagulation.

63
Q

ST Elevation in leads:

Leads 11, 111 & AVF

A

Inferior wall MI

64
Q

What medications have been ordered to reduce the incidence of the health risks to this person and how will they help?

A

Atorvastatin 40mg – reduce cholesterol

Ramipril 5mg – ACE inhibitor – reduce BP

Metoprolol 100mg, - ß-Blocker – reduce BP

Frusemide 40mg – Loop diuretic – used to reduce circulating fluid. Removes water and Na+ and K+. Risk of electrolyte imbalance.

Esomeprazole sodium 20 - H2-antagonistic drugs – reduces gastric secretions

65
Q

Amlodipine

A

Amlodipine is in a group of drugs called calcium channel blockers. Amlodipine relaxes (widens) blood vessels andimproves blood flow.

Amlodipine is used to treat high blood pressure (hypertension) or chest pain (angina) and other conditions caused by coronary artery disease.

66
Q

ECG leads V1 & V2

A

septal

67
Q

ECG

ii

iii

avf

A

Inferior

68
Q

ecg

1

avl

v5

v6

A

lateral

69
Q

ecg

v1

v2

A

septal

70
Q

What rhythms are shockable

A

Ventrical Fibrilllation and ventrical tachychardia

71
Q

Dopamine

A

Dopamine hydrochloride can stimulate alpha, beta and dopamine receptors. 0.5 to 2 microgram/kg/minute, increase renal blood flow. At infusion rates of 2 to 10 microgram/kg/minute, beta1- receptors are activated and cardiac output and systolic blood pressure increase. At infusion rates above 10 microgram/kg/minute, alphareceptors are activated, causing vasoconstriction, and both systolic and diastolic pressures increase.

72
Q

Atropine

A

Cholinergic and anticholinergic agents

Atropine is well absorbed following intramuscular administration, and peak plasma concentrations are reached within 30 minutes accompanied by an increase in heart rate which reaches a maximum at 15 to 50 minutes.

73
Q

Adrenaline

A

Adrenergic stimulants, vasopressor agents

Adrenaline stimulates the heart to increased output; raises the systolic blood pressure; lowers diastolic blood pressure; relaxes bronchial spasm and mobilises liver glycogen, resulting in hyperglycaemia and possibly glycosuria.

74
Q

Noradrenalin e

A

Acts predominantly on alphareceptors and beta-receptors in the heart. Noradrenaline, causes peripheral vasoconstriction (alpha-adrenergic action) and a positive inotropic effect on the heart and dilatation of coronary arteries (beta-adrenergic action). These actions result in an increase in systemic blood pressure and coronary artery blood flow

75
Q

Dobutamine

A

Primary activity results from stimulation of the betareceptors of the heart while producing comparatively mild chronotropic, hypertensive, arrhythmogenic and vasodilative effects.

Adrenergic stimulants, Inotrope

76
Q

Amiodaron e

A

Class III antiarrhythmic agent able to prolong the action potential duration and refractory period of atrial, nodal and ventricular tissues

Antiarrhythmic agents

77
Q

Lignocaine

A

Antiarrhythmic agents

In the heart, lignocaine reduces automaticity by decreasing the rate of diastolic depolarisation. Lignocaine is considered to be a class I (membrane stabilising) antiarrhythmic agent. The duration of the action potential is decreased due to blockade of the sodium channel and the refractory period is shortened.

78
Q

Sodium bicarbonate

A

Administration of sodium bicarbonate will increase the plasma bicarbonate concentration and help restore the plasma within the normal range (pH 7.37 to 7.42). Changes in acid/ base balance also stimulate compensation ion exchange mechanisms. When the extracellular hydrogen ion concentration increases, as in acidosis, there is a redistribution of potassium ions from intracellular to extracellular fluid. Administration of sodium bicarbonate can cause a redistribution of potassium ions into cells in patients with acidosis by decreasing the plasma pH.

79
Q

Magnesium

A

Magnesium is an essential body cation and the second most abundant cation of intracellular fluid.

80
Q

Potassium

A

Potassium ion is the principal intracellular ion of most body tissues. Potassium ions are involved in a number of essential physiological processes, including the maintenance of intracellular tonicity, the transmission of nerve impulses, the contraction of cardiac, skeletal and smooth muscle and the maintenance of normal renal function

81
Q

Respiratory acidosis:

A

Respiratory Acidosis = in respiratory acidosis the respiratory rate is depressed and is the cause of acidosis therefore renal system tries to compensate for respiratory acid-base imbalance due to respiratory disease

82
Q

Respiratory alkalosis:

A

Respiratory Alkalosis = kidneys start excreting HCO3 - to compensate for alkalosis.

83
Q

Metabolic acidosis:

A

Metabolic acidosis = respiratory system compensates for metabolic acid-base imbalance by increasing resp rate

84
Q

Metabolic alkalosis:

A

Metabolic Alkalosis = shallow breaths blow off CO2 – decrease respiratory rate to retain CO2

85
Q
A