Research revision Flashcards

- ALL RIGHTS, INCLUDING INTELLECTUAL PROPERTY RIGHTS GO TO THE AUTHOR OF THE BOOK THAT HAS BEEN USED. I DO NOT OWN ANYTHING - Within this deck are the quizzes from chapters 1-4, 6, 8-14, 17. These have been taken from Research Essentials: Foundations for Evidence-Based Practice by Susan L. Norwood. I do not own any of the material in this quiz. It is purely for study purposes ONLY. All credit goes to the author of the book Susan L. Norwood.

1
Q

A current priority area for nursing research is:

A. improvements in patient care and patient outcomes.

B. problems related to nurses’ professional identity.

C. staffing and nursing shortage issues.

A

A. improvements in patient care and patient outcomes.

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2
Q

What type of reasoning is reflected by the following set of statements? Patients who undergo abdominal surgery experience pain. Patients who undergo orthopaedic surgery experience pain. Therefore, all surgical patients experience pain.

A. deductive reasoning

B. inductive reasoning

C. intuitive reasoning

A

b. inductive reasoning

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3
Q

Basic research is undertaken to:

A. explain observations in clinical practice.

B. extend a discipline’s knowledge base.

C. find solutions to practical problems.

A

B. extend a discipline’s knowledge base.

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4
Q

Which of the following illustrates the iterative nature of the research process?

A. determining data collection strategies before actually beginning the data collection process.

B. developing control strategies as a part of each methodological decision.

C. revisiting sampling decisions after determining data collection strategies.

A

C. revisiting sampling decisions after determining data collection strategies.

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5
Q

A variable’s conceptual definition describes its:

A. direction of influence

B. measurement procedures

C. theoretical meaning

A

C. theoretical meaning

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6
Q

An example of data triangulation is determining an intervention’s effectiveness by:

A. asking both patients and nurses about their satisfaction with the intervention.

B. having patients complete a questionnaire and respond to interview questions.

C. presenting data analysis in both narrative form and a table.

A

A. asking both patients and nurses about their satisfaction with the intervention.

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7
Q

A basic assumption of the positivist paradigm is:

A. all events in the world have antecedent causes.

B. events in the world are unpredictable.

C. reality is subjective and therefore not fixed.

A

A. all events in the world have antecedent causes.

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8
Q

Grounded theory research refers to:

A. beginning a study with a firm theoretical theory as a guide.

B. developing a theory from qualitative research data.

C. using a theory to generate research hypotheses.

A

B. developing a theory from qualitative research data.

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9
Q

Which of the following questions is suggestive of an ethnography?

A. what are the norms of contraceptive use among female obstetrical nurses?

B. what is the lived experience of childbearing for women who postpone their first pregnancy until their 40s?

C. what is the process of fertility decision making among single women in the mid-30s?

A

A. what are the norms of contraceptive use among female obstetrical nurses?

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10
Q

On what domain do phenomenologists generally focus their inquiry?

A. cultural norms.

B. lived experiences.

C. social processes.

A

B. lived experiences.

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11
Q

The ethical principle that addresses minimising study risks and maximising benefits is:

A. beneficence

B. justice

C. respect for human dignity

A

A. beneficence

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12
Q

The inability to link study participants with their responses refers to:

A. anonymity

B. confidentiality

C. covert data collection

A

A. anonymity

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13
Q

Confidentiality refers to:

A. how private data are handled.

B. not publishing participants’ names

C. using ID numbers to track survey responses

A

A. how private data are handled.

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14
Q

Informed consent processes with 12-year-old children should involve:

A. applying the principle of substituted judgement.

B. obtaining their assent with legal consent.

C. videotaping the informed consent process.

A

B. obtaining their assent with legal consent.

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15
Q

If deception is used in a study, participants should be offered:

A. debriefing

B. process consent

C. a stipend

A

A. debriefing

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16
Q

The primary purpose of the literature review section of a research article is to:

A. demonstrate that the present research study is deserving of grant funding.

B. help the reader to understand that the article’s author is well-educated and knowledgeable about the topic.

C. identify what is known and what is not known about the research topic.

A

C. identify what is known and what is not known about the research topic.

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17
Q

You are interested in knowing more about the topic of breast cancer genetics. Which of the following articles would likely present the most complete report of all available research on the topic? A. “Breast cancer genetics:

A systematic review of the literature, 1999-2006,” Applied Nursing Research.

B. “The human genome project: Discovery of breast cancer gene will save millions of lives,” The New York Times.

C. “The relationship between breast and colon cancer: A new view of breast cancer genetics,” American Journal of Nursing.

A

A. “Breast cancer genetics: A systematic review of the literature, 1999-2006,” Applied Nursing Research.

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18
Q

The best place to look for current scholarly research about pain management for children would be:

A. a medical journal about cancer pain in children.

B. a research article about the topic, published in a peer-reviewed journal.

C. wikipedia.

A

B. a research article about the topic, published in a peer-reviewed journal.

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19
Q

What kind of information is typically NOT included in the literature review section of a research article or paper?

A. a critical description of previous research about the topic being studied.

B. a description of the questionnaire the author used to collect data.

C. statistics about the incidence and prevalence that relate to the topic being studied.

A

B. a description of the questionnaire the author used to collect data.

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20
Q

Which if the following databases would be the most useful if you were trying to locate information published in scholarly nursing journals?

A. CINAHL (Cumulative Index of Nursing and Allied Health Literature)

B. ERIC (Educational Resources Information Center)

C. Health Source: Consumer Edition.

A

A. CINAHL (Cumulative Index of Nursing and Allied Health Literature)

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21
Q

To a nurse seeking knowledge on a topic, a literature review article in a professional journal would be considered a:

A. bibliographic database

B. primary source

C. secondary source

A

C. secondary source

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22
Q

A landmark study is a study:

A. conducted in a wide geographic area.

B. that changed the literature on a topic.

C. whose authors were famous

A

B. that changed the literature on a topic.

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23
Q

The amplification and integration of findings from a set of related qualitative studies is referred to as a (an):

A. integrative review

B. meta-analysis

C. meta-synthesis

A

C. meta-synthesis

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24
Q

Research design refers to a study’s:

A. general layout

B. measurement processes

C. methodology

A

A. general layout

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25
Q

What is the most accurate label for the design depicted in the following diagram?

A. pre-experiment

B. quasi-experiment

C. true experiment

A

B. quasi-experiment

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26
Q

A researcher studying the effects of nursing home length of stay on emotional well-being of residents compared 100 residents within one week of admission with 100 residents who had lived in a nursing home fore one year. This is an example of a:

A. cross-sectional study

B. time-series study

C. trend study

A

A. cross-sectional study

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27
Q

Which of the following is an essential feature of all experimental research studies?

A. a control group

B. manipulation

C. randomization

A

B. manipulation

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28
Q

The major threat to validity in a non-equivalent groups pretest-posttest design is:

A. history

B. selection

C. testing

A

B. selection

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29
Q

A factorial research design is characterized by two or more:

A. data collection points

B. dependent variables

C. independent variables

A

C. independent variables

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30
Q

If a researcher needs to balance demands for internal and external validity in a study, which element is better to sacrifice?

A. external validity

B. internal validity

C. there is no conflict between these two typesof validity

A

A. external validity

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31
Q

A researcher studied the effects of using buffered versus unbuffered lidocain on discomfort during IV starts. Patients were assigned randomly to each study group; only the pharmacist had access to the list of group assignments. This process describes:

A. covert data collection

B. a cross-over design

C. double-blinding

A

C. double-blinding

32
Q

A sampling frame is:

A. a list of every member of the population

B. the delineation of internal and exclusion criteria

C. the researcher’s plan for obtaining study participants

A

A. a list of every member of the population

33
Q

A reseacher who is studying the effect of an intervention to decrease back injury asks 20 nurses to participate in the study and randomly assigns 10 to the experimental group and 10 to the control group. This method of sampling is referred to as:

A. convenience sampling

B. quota sampling

C. stratified random sampling

A

A. convenience sampling

34
Q

Sample size in a quantitative study is best determined by:

A. the Central Limit Theorem

B. quota considerations

C. power analysis

A

C. power analysis

35
Q

A nurse researcher who is interested in studying the career paths of deans nursing programs approached six deans whom she knew been active in AACN to participate in her study. This sampling strategy reflects what type of sampling?

A. convenience sampling

B. netwrok sampling

C. purposive sampling

A

C. purposive sampling

36
Q

In a quantitative study, the overriding criterion of adequacy for a sample is its:

A. homogeneity

B. representativeness

C. size

A

B. representativeness

37
Q

In quantitative studies, a smaller sample can be used when:

A. the difference between groups is expected to be small

B. the expected incidence of the phenomenom is expected to be small

C. the population is homogeneous

A

C. the populaion is homogenous

38
Q

The risk of smapling bias is greater in populations that are:

A. heterogeneous

B. homogeneous

C. stratified

A

A. heterogenous

39
Q

A researcher knows that the educational backgound of nurses at the study hospital is 50% associate degree, 35% baccalaureate degree, and 15% master’s degree. The researcher randomly draws names from each of these groups so that the final sample of 120 is comprised of 40 associate degree nuses, 40 baccalureate degree nurses, and 40 master’s degree nurses. This method of sampling is reffered to as:

A. disproportionate stratified sampling

B. proportionate stratified samplin

C. quota sampling

A

A. disproportionate stratified sampling

40
Q

The difference between a true score and an obtained score is referred to as:

A. error of measure

B. reliability

C. validity

A

A. error of measure

41
Q

Reliability is best defined as:

A. accuracy

B. consistency of measures

C. soundness of measures

A

B. consistency of measures

42
Q

Validity is best defined as;

A. accuracy

B. consistency of measure

C. soundness of measure

A

C. soundness of measure

43
Q

A reliability coefficient of 0.80 indicates:

A. the consistency between two sets of scores is 80%

B. the measure is 90% reliable

C. 80% of the variation in scores is due to real differences

A

C. 80% of the variation in scores is due to real differences

44
Q

What type of validity is concerned with adequacy of coverage of a content area?

A. constuct validity

B. content validity

C. criterion validity

A

B. content validity

45
Q

Which statement abou reliability is accurate?

A. if an instrument has reliability, its validity for a specific use can be assured

B. once an intrument has demonstrated reliability, it does not need to be re-assessed

C. reliability must be established each time an instrument is administered

A

C. reliability must be established each time an instrument is administered

46
Q

In qualitative research, the concepts of reliability and validity are translated to:

A. accuracy

B. creativity

C. credibility

A

C. credibility

47
Q

The major advantage of mailed questionnaires ove personal interviews is that they:

A. can be completed by more diverse types of respondents

B. have a higher response rate

C. offer the possibility of anonymity

A

C. offer the possibility of anonymity

48
Q

The chief advantage of self-repot data collection methods is their:

A. directness

B. privacy

C. reliability and validity

A

A. directness

49
Q

The major advantage of using existing data (such as records) for a study is:

A. efficiency

B. objectivity

C. privacy

A

A. efficiency

50
Q

Response rates tend to be highest with:

A. face-to-face interviews

B. fouc group interviews

C. telephone interviews

A

A. face-to-face interviews

51
Q

The chief advantage of using a summated rating scale to collect data is:

A. the ability to detect subtle gradations in the amount of an attribute

B. familiarity to respondens and ease of administration

C. they tend to have a high degree of reliability and validity

A

A. the ability to detect subtle gradations in the amount of an attribute

52
Q

Which of the following would be most appopriately measured with a visual analog scale?

A. annual income

B. episodes of domestic violence

C. fatigue

A

C. fatigue

53
Q

Which of the following is an xample of an in vivo biophysical measure?

A. arterial blood gas

B. blood pressure

C. urinalysis

A

B. blood pressure

54
Q

Outliers in a data set are:

A. scores that do not belong and should be deleted

B. unusual scores that should be examined

C. values that are not representative of the population under study

A

B. unusual scores that should be examined

55
Q

If the values for a set of scores cluster around high values, the distribution would be described as:

A. negatively skewed

B. positively skewe

C. symmetrical

A

A. negatively skewed

56
Q

Which measure of cental tendency should be used if a set values is severely skewed?

A. mean

B. median

C. mode

A

B. median

57
Q

A researcher collects data about anxiety among college freshman. Scores range from 0 to 100. When a frequancy distribution is constructed, it is apparent that most scores are greater than 80; very few scores have low values. Th emost appropriate measure of central tendency for describing these findings would be the:

A. mean

B. median

C. mode

A

B. median

58
Q

What is the actual process that occurs with hypothesis testing?

A. acceptance of the null hypothesis if the data indicate it is probably incorrect

B. proving that the alternative hypothesis is true

C. rejection of the null hypothesis if the data indicate that it is probably incorrect

A

C. rejection of the null hypothesis if the data indicate that it is probably incorrect

59
Q

Which of the following scenarios describes a Type I error?

A. concluding there is a difference between groups when in fact real population differences do not exist

B. concluding there is no difference between groups when in fact there is no real population difference

C. concluding there is no difference between groups when in fact there are real population differences

A

A. concluding there is a difference between groups when in fact real population differences do not exist

60
Q

The most comon reason for committing a Type II error is:

A. failure of the independant variable to have an effect on the dependent variable

B. poor theoretical reasoning

C. small sample size

A

C. small sample size

61
Q

A researcher wants to describe the relationship between gender and smoking status. The appropriate statistical procedure for describing this relationship would be:

A. a contingency table

B. pearson’s r

C. a t-test

A

A. a contingency table

62
Q

Which of the following correlation coefficients indicates the strongest relationship between he variables being examined?

A. -0.65

B. 0.05

C. 0.40

A

A. -0.65

63
Q

A researcher wants to compare pre- and post- medication ratings of pain. The appropriate statistical test for this situation would be:

A. independent t-test

B. paired t-test

C. pearson’s r

A

B. paired t-test

64
Q

A researcher finds a statistically significant ANOVA. To determine which group(s) is/are different, the researcher next needs to conduct:

A. confirmatory analysis

B. post hoc analysis

C. secondary analysis

A

B. post hoc analysis

65
Q

ANCOVA is a statistical procedue in which:

A. data on more than one dependent variable are examined simultaneously

B. the effects of an independent variable on a dependent variable are adjusted for the effects of an extraneous variable

C. the effects of two or more independent variables are examined simultaneously

A

B. the effects of an independent variable on a dependent variable are adjusted for the effects of an extraneous variable

66
Q

Which intellectual process in qualitative analysis typically goes on while the researcher is still in the field?

A. comprehending

B. synthesizing

C. theorizing

A

A. comprehending

67
Q

The core or genetic activity in qualitative analysis is:

A. content analysis

B. constant comparison

C. triangulation

A

A. content analysis

68
Q

What approach to data analysis is a hallmark of a grounded theory study?

A. constant comparison

B. immersion and crystallization

C. quasi-statistics

A

A. constant comparison

69
Q

If a qualitative researcher reports that the data analysis process was guided by Colaizzi’s procedures, you would expect the study to be a (an):

A. ethnographic study

B. grounded theory study

C. phenomenological study

A

C. phenomenological study

70
Q

The end-product pf the data analysis process in an ethnography is a (an):

A. core category

B. explanatory theory

C. taxonomy

A

C. taxonomy

71
Q

The most appropriate synonym fro a research critique is:

A. criticism

B. scrutiny

C. summary

A

B. criticism

72
Q

Which of the following dimensions of a research critique addresses the study’s conceptual underpinnings?

A. interpretive

B. substantive

C. theoretical

A

C. theoretical

73
Q

Critique of a study’s stylistic dimension considers its:

A. conclusions and interpretations of findings

B. organization and readability

C. research design

A

B. organization and readability

74
Q

The comparative evaluation phase of the research utilization process includes:

A. deciding on instrumental versus conceptual utilization of study findings

B. determining the cost:benefit ratio of the innovation

C. evaluating the scientific integrity of the studies being used as evidence

A

B. determining the cost:benefit ratio of the innovation

75
Q

After reading research findings that indicate children are less anxious about painful procedures when they listen to music through headphones, a nurse decided to search for more evidence about his practice. This is an example of:

A. conceptual uilization

B. confirmatory analysis

C. substantive evaluation

A

B. confirmatory analysis

76
Q

Translational research examines:

A. goal achievement and unintended effects of an innovation

B. how different implementation strategies affect adoption of an innovation

C. the similarity between the setting in which research findings were generated an dthe setting in which they will be appied.

A

B. how different implementation strategies affect adoption of an innovation