Research methods Flashcards

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1
Q

What are aims?

A

A general statement of what the researcher intends to investigate; the purpose of the study. They are developed from theories.

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2
Q

What is a hypothesis?

A

A clear, precise, testable statement that states the relationship between the variables to be investigated. Stated at the outset the outset of any study.

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3
Q

What are the two types of hypothesis?

Explain them.

A

Directional hypothesis - states the direction of the difference or relationship e.g higher / lower.

Non-directional hypothesis - states there is a difference but doesn’t state the direction.

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4
Q

When do you use the two different types of hypothesis?

A

Directional is used when the findings of previous research studies suggest a particular outcome.

Non-directional is used when there is no previous research or findings from earlier studies are contradictory.

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5
Q

What is the independent variable?

A

The variable that is changed / manipulated.

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6
Q

What is the dependent variable?

A

The variable that is measured.

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7
Q

What is operationalisation?

A

Clearly defining variables in terms of how they can be measured.

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8
Q

What are extraneous variables?

A

Any variable, other than the IV, that may have an effect on the DV if it’s not controlled. E.g. age, lighting in lab.
They are nuisance variables that don’t vary systematically with the IV.

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9
Q

What are confounding variables?

A

Any variable, other than the IV, that may have affected the DV so we cannot be sure of the true source of changes to the DV. E.g. Personality.
Confounding variables do vary systematically with the IV.

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10
Q

What are demand characteristics?

A

Any clue that may be interpreted by participants as revealing the purpose of the investigation. This may lead to participants changing their behaviour within the research situation meaning their behaviour is no longer natural, an extraneous variable that may affect the DV.

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11
Q

What are investigator effects?

A

Any effect of the investigator’s behaviour (conscious and unconscious) on the research outcome. E.g. actions of researcher, selection of participants, leading questions.

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12
Q

What is randomisation?

A

The use of chance in order to control for the effects of bias.

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13
Q

What is standardisation?

A

Using exactly the same formalised procedures and instructions for all participants in a research study. E.g. same environment, information and instructions.

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14
Q

What is experimental design?

A

The different ways in which the testing of participants can be organised in relation to the different experimental conditions.

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15
Q

Describe an independent groups design.

A

When two separate groups of participants experience two different conditions of the experiment. One group experience the experimental conditions, the other experiences the control condition.
The performance of the two groups is then compared.

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16
Q

Describe a repeated measures design.

A

All participants experience both conditions, the experimental and the control.
The two sets of data from both conditions would then be compared to see if there was a difference, this method compares ‘like with like’.

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17
Q

Describe a matched pairs design.

A

Participants are paired together on a variable or variables relevant to the experiment. Then one participant from each pair would be allocated to a different condition of the experiment.
The two sets of data are then compared.

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18
Q

Evaluate independent groups.

A

L - participants who occupy the different groups are not the same, so if a difference between the groups is found it could be due to individual differences rather than the effects on the IV.
L- less economical as each participant only contributes a single result only. Twice as many participants are needed to collect the same amount of data as a repeated measures.
S - order effects are not a problem.
S - participants are less likely to guess the aims.

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19
Q

How do you overcome individual differences in an independent groups design?

A

Random allocation, participants are randomly allocated to the different conditions.

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20
Q

Evaluate repeated measures.

A

L - order effects, the first condition could affect the second, could also create boredom or fatigue that might deteriorate / improve the performance on the second condition. (order effects are a confounding variable)
L - more likely participants will work out the aim of the study (demand characteristics)
S - participant variables are controlled and fewer participants are needed.

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21
Q

How do you overcome order effects in a repeated measures design?

A

Counterbalancing, half experience the conditions in one order, and the other half in the opposite order.

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22
Q

Evaluate matched pairs.

A

S - no order effects or demand characteristics.
L - participants can never be matched exactly so there will still be some differences that could affect the DV.
L - matching may be time-consuming and expensive, particularly if a pre-test is required. So this is less economical than other designs.

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23
Q

Describe lab experiments.

A

They are conducted in highly controlled environments.

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24
Q

What are the strengths of lab experiments?

A
  • There is high control over extraneous variables.
  • There is a high chance due to the control that any effect is due to the manipulation of the IV.
  • More certainty about demonstrating cause and effect so high internal validity.
  • Replication is more possible, this is vital in checking that the results are valid and not just a one-off.
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25
Q

What are the limitations of lab experiments?

A
  • May lack generalisability as lab environment is artificial.
  • In unfamiliar contexts participants may behave in unusual ways and so behaviour can’t be generalised (low external validity).
  • Participants are usually aware they are being tested in a lab and so may give way to demand characteristics.
  • Tasks carried out don’t represent real-life experience so low mundane realism.
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26
Q

What are field experiments?

A

Where the IV is manipulated in a natural, more everyday setting.

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27
Q

What are the strengths of field experiments?

A
  • Higher mundane realism because the environment is more natural.
  • Produces behaviour that is more valid and authentic.
  • Participants may be unaware they are being studies so there is high external validity.
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28
Q

What are the limitations of field experiments?

A
  • Loss of control of extraneous variables so cause and effect between the IV and the DV may be harder to establish.
  • Precise replication is often not possible.
  • Ethical issues, if participants are unaware they’re being studied they cannot consent to being studied and so the research might be an invasion of privacy.
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29
Q

What are natural experiments?

A

When the researcher takes advantage of a pre-existing IV. The change to the IV is not brought about by the researcher but would have happened even if the researcher wasn’t there.

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30
Q

What are the strengths of natural experiments?

A
  • Provide opportunities for research that may not otherwise be undertaken for practical or ethical reasons.
  • High external validity because they involve real-life issues and problems as they happen.
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31
Q

What are the limitations of natural experiments?

A
  • A naturally occurring event may only happen very rarely, reducing the opportunities for research.
  • Limit to the scope for generalising findings to other similar situations.
  • Participants may not be randomly allocated to experimental conditions, means researcher might be less sure whether the IV affected the DV.
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32
Q

What are quasi-experiments?

A

When an IV is based on an existing difference between people. E.g. age, gender.

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33
Q

What are the strengths of quasi-experiments?

A
  • Often carried out under controlled conditions and so share the same strengths of a lab experiment.
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34
Q

What are the limitations of quasi-experiments?

A
  • Can’t randomly allocate participants to conditions and therefore there may be confounding variables.
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35
Q

What is a population/ target population?

A

The large group of individuals that a researcher may be interested in studying.

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36
Q

What is a sample?

A

A group of people who take part in a research investigation, it is drawn from the (target) population. Ideally, the sample will be representative so that generalisability becomes possible.

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37
Q

How is there bias in a sample?

A

Certain groups may be over or under-represented within the sample selected.

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38
Q

What is a sampling technique?

A

The method used to select people from the population. They aim to produce a representative sample.

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39
Q

Describe a random sample.

A

All members of the target population have an equal chance of being selected.
To select, a complete list of all members of the target population is obtained. Then, all of the names are assigned a number, these numbers are then picked randomly through a lottery method or picking them out of a hat.

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40
Q

Describe a systematic sample.

A

When every nth member of the target population is selected.
A sampling frame is produced, which is a list of people in the target population organised into an order.
A sampling system is nominated (every 5th or 6th) or this interval may be determined randomly to reduce bias.
The researcher then works through the sampling frame until the sample is completed.

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41
Q

Describe a stratified sample.

A

Where the composition of the sample reflects the proportions of people in certain sub-groups (strata) within the target population.
The researcher first identifies the different strata that makes up the population, the proportions needed for the sample are then worked out and need to be representative.
The participants that make up each stratum are selected using random sampling.

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42
Q

Describe an opportunity sample.

A

A sample of anyone who happens to be willing and available. The researcher asks whoever is around at the time of the study.

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43
Q

Describe a volunteer sample.

A

This involves participants selecting themselves to be part of the sample, so also known as self-selection.
To select a volunteer sample a researcher may place an advert in a newspaper or on a common room notice board.

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44
Q

Evaluate random sampling.

A

S - free from researcher bias.
L - difficult and time-consuming to conduct, a complete list of the target population may be difficult to obtain.
L - could still end up with an unrepresentative sample.
L- selected participants could still refuse to take part meaning you could technically end up with a volunteer sample.

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45
Q

Evaluate systematic sampling.

A

S - avoids researcher bias.

S - fairly representative.

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46
Q

Evaluate stratified sampling.

A

S - avoids researcher bias.
S - produces a representative sample because it reflects the composition of the population, this means generalisation of findings become possible.
L - stratification is not perfect because the identified strata can’t reflect all the ways people are different, so complete representation is not possible.

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47
Q

Evaluate opportunity sampling.

A

S - convenient, it saves time and effort and is much less costly in terms of time and money.
L - suffers from bias, the sample is unrepresentative of the target population so findings can’t be generalised.
L - the researcher has complete control over the selection of participants and may avoid people they don’t like the look of (researcher bias).

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48
Q

Evaluate volunteer sampling.

A

S - collecting sample is easy, it requires minimal effort and so is less time-consuming.
L - problem of volunteer bias, asking for volunteers may attract a certain profile of person, one that is helpful, keen and curious. This might affect how far findings can be generalised.

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49
Q

Define ethical issues and state the four ethical issues.

A
Ethical issues arise when a conflict exists between the rights of participants in research studies and the goals of research to produce authentic, valid and worthwhile data. 
Informed consent
Deception
Protection from harm
Privacy and confidentiality
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50
Q

Describe the ethical issue informed consent.

A

Informed consent involves making participants aware of the aims or the research, the procedures, their rights (including the right to withdraw) and also what their data will be used for.
Participants should then make an informed judgement whether or not to take part without being coerced or feeling obliged.

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51
Q

Describe the ethical issue of deception.

A

Deception is deliberately misleading or withholding information from participants at any stage of the investigation. Participants who haven’t received adequate information when they agreed to take part cannot be said to have given informed consent.
Despite that, there are occasions when deception can be justified if it does not cause the participant undue distress.

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52
Q

Describe the ethical issue to protection from harm.

A

Participants should not be placed at any more risk than they would be in their daily lives, and should be protected from physical and psychological harm. An important feature is participants being reminded of the fact that they have the right to withdraw from the investigation at any point.

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53
Q

Describe the ethical issue privacy and confidentiality.

A

Participants have the right to control information about themselves (right of privacy). If this is invaded then confidentiality should be protected.
Confidentiality refers to our right, under the law in data protection, to have any personal data protected. This right to privacy extends to the area where the study took place.

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54
Q

State the three alternative ways of getting consent and describe them.

A

Presumptive consent - rather than getting consent from the participants themselves, a similar group of people are asked if the study is acceptable. If this group agree, then consent of the original participants is presumed.

Prior general consent - participants give their permission to take part in a number of different studies, including one that will involve deception. By consenting, participants are effectively consenting to be deceived.

Retrospective consent - participants are asked for their consent during debriefing, having already taken part in the study. They may not have been aware of their participation or they may have been subject to deception.

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55
Q

Describe the BPS code of conduct.

A

The BPS (British Psychological Society) has its own BPS code of ethics, these include ethical guidelines. Researchers have a professional duty to observe these guidelines when conducting research. These guidelines make sure that participants are treated with respect and consideration. Guidelines are implemented by the ethics committees who use a cost-benefit approach to determine if research proposals are ethically acceptable.

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56
Q

How do you deal with informed consent?

A

Participants should be issued with a consent letter or form detailing all relevant information that might affect their decision to participate. Assuming the participant agrees, the letter is then signed. For children under 16, a signature of parental consent is required.

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57
Q

How do you deal with deception and protection from harm?

A

At the end of the study, participants should be given a full debrief. This should include: true aims of study and any details not supplied during the study, what their data will be used for and they must be given the right to withdraw data if they wish, reassurance that their behaviour was typical or normal.
If participants require counselling, the researcher should provide this.

58
Q

How do you deal with confidentiality?

A

Personal details should be protected. It is common to record no details to maintain anonymity and use numbers or initials when referring to participants. Participants should also be reminded that their data will be protected throughout the process.

59
Q

What is a pilot study?

A

A small-scale trial run of the actual investigation. It allows the researcher to identify any potential issues and to modify the design or procedure, saving time and money in the long run.

60
Q

What is a single-blind procedure?

A

Where the participants are not told the aims of the research at the beginning of the study. The researcher however does know this information. It is an attempt to control for confounding variables and demand characteristics.

61
Q

What is a double-blind procedure?

A

Where neither the participants nor the researcher who conducts the study is aware of the aims of the investigation. A third party often conducts the investigation.

62
Q

Describe what an experimental group is.

A

The group that receives the treatment whose effect researchers wish to study.

63
Q

Describe what a control group is.

A

The control group is composed of participants who do not receive the experimental treatment. It is used as a baseline to be compared against with the experimental group.

64
Q

What is a naturalistic observation?

A

Watching and recording the behaviour in the setting within which it would normally occur. All aspects of the environment are free to vary.

65
Q

What is a controlled observation?

A

Watching and recording behaviour within a structured environment. There is control over variables.

66
Q

What is a covert observation?

A

Participants’ behaviour is watched and recorded without their knowledge or consent.

67
Q

What is an overt observation?

A

Participants’ behaviour is watched and recorded with their knowledge and consent.

68
Q

What is a participant observation?

A

The researcher becomes a member of the group whose behaviour he/she is watching and recording.

69
Q

What is a non-participant observation?

A

The researcher remains outside of the group whose behaviour he/she is watching and recording.

70
Q

Evaluate naturalistic observations.

A

S - high external validity as findings can be generalised to everyday life.
L - lack of control makes replication hard.
L - could be many uncontrolled extraneous variables.

71
Q

Evaluate controlled observations.

A

L - may produce findings that cannot be applied to real-life settings.
S - extraneous variables are less of a problem so replication is easier.

72
Q

Evaluate covert observations.

A

L - no problem of participant reactivity because they don’t know they’re being watched.
S - ensured that behaviour is natural so increased validity.
L - ethics of study, people may not want to be observed.

73
Q

Evaluate overt observations.

A

S - more ethically acceptable.

L - knowing that they are being watched may influence the participants behaviour.

74
Q

Evaluate participant observations.

A

S - the researcher can experience the situation as the participants do, giving increased insight into the lives of those being studied. May increase the validity of findings.
L - danger of researcher identifying too strongly with those being studied, means they might lose objectivity. (This is known as going native).

75
Q

Evaluate non-participant observations.

A

S - allow the researcher to maintain an objective psychological distance from their participants so there is less danger of them ‘going native’,
L - may lose valuable insight to be gained in a participant observation because they are too far removed from the people they are studying.

76
Q

What is an unstructured observation?

A

Writing down everything the researcher sees. It produces accounts of behaviour that is rich in detail.

77
Q

What is a structured observation?

A

Simplifying target behaviours that will become the main focus of the investigation. This observation allows the researcher to quantify their observations using a pre-determined list of behaviours and sampling methods.

78
Q

What are behaviour categories?

A

When a target behaviour is broken up into components that are observable and measurable.

79
Q

What are the two sampling methods?

A

Event sampling

Time sampling

80
Q

Describe event sampling.

A

Counting the number of times a particular behaviour (the event) occurs in a target individual or group.

81
Q

Describe time sampling.

A

Recording behaviour within a pre-established time frame. E.g. what a target individual is doing every 30 seconds.

82
Q

What is inter-observer reliability?

A

Observations that have been carried out by at least two observers. The observations made by these should be consistent in their judgements and data recorded should be similar.

83
Q

Evaluate structured observations.

A

S - makes the recording of data easier and more systematic.
S - data collected is likely to be numerical so analysing and comparing the behaviour observed is more straightforward.
L - less rich data as lacks detail.

84
Q

Evaluate unstructured observations.

A

S - more richness and depth of detail in the data collected.
L - greater risk of observer bias as there is no behavioural categories. The researcher may only catch behaviour that catches their eye and these may not be important or useful.

85
Q

Evaluate behavioural categories.

A

S - can make data collection more structured and objective but they should be as observable and measurable as possible to avoid further interpretation. The categories should also be exclusive and not overlap.

86
Q

Evaluate sampling methods.

A

S - event sampling is useful when recording behaviour that happens infrequently, using time sampling for this behaviour could mean it gets missed.
L - with event sampling, if the specified event is too complex the observer may overlook important details.
S - time sampling is effective in reducing the number of observations that have to be made.
L - time sampling might be unrepresentative of the observation as a whole.

87
Q

What is a questionnaire?

A

A set of written questions used to assess a person’s thoughts and experiences. It might be used as part of an experiment to assess the dependent variable, e.g. whether certain views are more popular among younger or older people.

88
Q

What is an open question?

A

A question with no fixed range of answers and respondents are free to answer in any way they wish.
They tend to produce qualitative data that is rich in depth and detail, but this may be difficult to analyse.

89
Q

What is a closed question?

A

A question that offers a fixed number of responses.

They often produce quantitative data that is easy to analyse but it might lack depth and detail.

90
Q

What is an interview?

A

A ‘live’ encounter where one person (the interviewer) asks a set of questions to assess an interviewee’s thoughts or experiences.

91
Q

What is a structured interview?

A

An interview made up of pre-determined questions that are asked in a fixed order.

92
Q

What is an unstructured interview?

A

An interview that works like a conversation. There are no set questions but there is a general aim that a certain topic will be discussed, interactions tend to be free-following. The interviewee is encouraged to expand and elaborate their answers as prompted by the interviewer.

93
Q

What is a semi-structured interview?

A

An interview where there is a list of questions that have been worked out in advance but interviewers are also free to ask follow-up questions when they feel it is appropriate.

94
Q

What are the strengths of questionnaires?

A
  • cost-effective.
  • can gather large amounts of data quickly because they can be distributed to large numbers of people.
  • can be completed without the researcher needing to be present.
  • the data collected is usually straightforward to analyse.
  • the data lends itself to statistical analysis and comparisons between groups can be made using graphs and charts.
95
Q

What are the limitations of questionnaires?

A
  • responses may not be truthful, they may be influenced by demand characteristics (social desirability bias).
  • they often produce a response bias (where respondents reply in a similar way, always ticking yes/no).
96
Q

What is the evidence for response bias?

A

Jackson and Messick 1961

  • tested acquiescence bias (tendency to agree with items on a questionnaire regardless of the context of the question).
  • used the F scale
  • created a reversed version of F scale
  • gave the original version of F scale questionnaire and the reversed version.
  • found a strong positive correlation between the two sets of results, this is not what you would expect.
97
Q

Evaluate structured interviews.

A

S - easy to replicate due to their standardised format.
S - format reduces differences between interviewers.
L - not possible for interviewers to deviate from the topic or elaborate their points. This could be frustrating for some.

98
Q

Evaluate unstructured interviews.

A

S - more flexibility, interviewer can follow up points as they arise and is more likely to gain insight into the worldview of the interviewee.
L - analysis is not straightforward, researcher may have to sift through irrelevant information and making conclusions could be difficult.
L - there is the risk that interviewees may lie for social desirability.

99
Q

What are likert scales?

A

One in which the respondent indicates their agreement with a statement using a scale of usually five points. The scale ranges from strongly agree to strongly disagree.

100
Q

What is a rating scale?

A

A scale that gets respondents to identify a value that represents their strength of feeling about a particular topic, usually using 1 through 5.

101
Q

What is a fixed choice option questionnaire?

A

Where there is a list of possible options and respondents are required to indicate those that apply to them.

102
Q

How do you design an interview?

A

Need to establish an interview schedule, which is the list of questions that the interviewer intends to cover. This should be standardised for each participant to reduce interviewer bias. The interview should be conducted in a quiet room as this will increase the likelihood that the interviewee will open up.
It is good to begin with neutral questions to make the participants feel relaxed and comfortable to establish rapport.
Interviewees should be reminded that their answers will be treated in the strictest confidence.

103
Q

How do you write a good question for a questionnaire?

A

Clarity is key, confused respondents will have a negative impact on the quality of information received.
Don’t overuse jargon (technical terms).
Don’t use emotive language or leading questions, this will show the author’s attitude and influence answers.
Don’t use double-barrelled questions and double negatives, respondents may only agree with half the question but not the other half. Double negatives can be difficult to decipher.

104
Q

What is a correlation?

A

A technique used to illustrate the strength and direction of an association between two or more co-variables. They are plotted on a scatter graph.

105
Q

What does a positive correlation mean?

A

As one co-variable increases, the other increases with it.

106
Q

What does a negative correlation mean?

A

As one co-variable rises, the other falls.

107
Q

What does a zero correlation mean?

A

Where there is no relationship between the co-variables.

108
Q

Can correlations establish cause and effect?

A

No, there is no manipulation of one variable and therefore it is not possible to establish cause and effect. Other variables (intervening variables) aren’t accounted for and could have an impact on the results.

109
Q

Describe the strengths of correlations.

A
  • they are a useful tool for research.
  • they provide a precise and quantifiable measure of how two variables are related.
  • they could suggest ideas for possible future research.
  • they are often used as a starting point to assess possible patterns between variables before researchers commit to an experimental study.
  • they are quick and economical to carry out, there is no need for controlled conditions or manipulation of variables.
  • data collected by others can be used so they are less time-consuming
110
Q

Describe the limitations of correlations.

A
  • they can’t demonstrate cause and effect between variables, therefore we don’t know which variable is causing the other to change.
  • the issue of third variable problem, another untested variable could be causing the correlation.
  • they can be misused or misinterpreted, they are sometimes presented as casual facts when they shouldn’t be.
111
Q

What is qualitative data?

A

Data that is expressed in words, it may take the form of a written description of the thoughts, feelings and opinions of participants.

112
Q

What is quantitative data?

A

Data that is expressed numerically.

113
Q

Evaluate qualitative data.

A

S - offers the researcher more richness and detail
S - much broader in scope and gives the participant more licence to develop their thoughts, feelings and opinions.
S - tends to have greater external validity as it provides a more meaningful insight into the participants worldview.
L - difficult to analyse
L - hard to statistically analyse so patterns and comparisons between data can be hard to identify.
L - conclusions often rely on subjective interpretations, these can be bias.

114
Q

Evaluate quantitative data.

A

S - simple to analyse, therefore comparisons between groups can be easily drawn.
S - tends to be more objective and less open to bias.
L - the data is narrower in scope and meaning and so it may fail to represent ‘real-life’.

115
Q

What is primary data?

A

Original data that has been collected specifically for the purpose of the investigation by the researcher. It is data that arrives first-hand from the participants.

116
Q

What is secondary data?

A

Data that has been collected by someone other than the person who is conducting the research, it is data that already exists. Often it has already been subject to statistical testing and therefore the significance is known.

117
Q

Evaluate primary data.

A

S - it is authentic data obtained from the participants themselves for the purpose of a particular investigation.
L - producing primary data is time-consuming and requires effort.

118
Q

Evaluate secondary data.

A

S - inexpensive and easily accessed, it requires minimal effort.
L - the quality and accuracy may vary, and the content may not match the researcher’s needs or objectives.

119
Q

What are the measures of central tendency?

A

Mean, median and mode.

120
Q

Describe the mean.

A

Add up all the values and divide this figure by the total number of values there are.
The mean is the most sensitive of the measures as it includes all the values, this means it is more representative. However, it is easily distorted by extreme values.

121
Q

Describe the median.

A

The median is the middle value in a data set when scores are arranged from lowest to highest.
Extreme scores do not affect the median, it is easy to calculate but it is less sensitive as not all scores are included.

122
Q

Describe the mode.

A

The mode is the most frequently occurring value within a data set.
The mode is a crude measure because it isn’t representative.

123
Q

What are the measures of dispersion?

A

The range and the standard deviation.

124
Q

Describe the range.

A

Taking the lowest value from the highest and adding one.
Adding one is a mathematical correction that allows for rounding.
It is easy to calculate but only takes into account the two most extreme values, this may be unrepresentative of the data as a whole.

125
Q

Describe the standard deviation.

A

It is a more sophisticated measure of dispersion, it is a single value that tells us how far scores deviate from the mean.
The larger the standard deviation, the greater the dispersion or spread within a set of data.
A low standard deviation means the data are tightly clustered around the mean, which might imply all participants responded in a similar way.
It is a more precise measure of dispersion because it includes all values, however this also means it can be distorted by an extreme value.

126
Q

What shape is a normal distribution?

A

Bell-shaped curve.

The mean, median and mode all occupy the same mid-point of the curve.

127
Q

What are skewed distributions?

A

Distributions that appear to lean to one side or the other.

128
Q

What is a positive skew?

A

Where most of the distribution is concentrated towards the left of the graph, resulting in a long tail to the right.
E.g. difficult test where only a few scored good.
The mode remains at the highest point, the median comes next but the mean has been dragged across to the right.

129
Q

What is a negative skew?

A

Where most of the distribution is concentrated towards the right of the graph, resulting in a long tail to the left.
E.g. an easy test.
The mean is pulled to the left, with the mode dissecting the highest peak and the median in the middle.

130
Q

What is statistical testing?

A

A way of determining whether hypotheses should be accepted or rejected. It tells us whether differences or relationships between variables are statistically significant or have occurred by chance.

131
Q

What are the conditions for a sign test?

A
  1. we need to be looking for a difference rather than an association.
  2. we need to have used a repeated measures design.
  3. we need data that is organised into categories, nominal data.
132
Q

What is the probability level in psychology?

A

0.05 / 5%, this is the level at which the researcher decides to accept the research hypothesis or not.
If the experimental hypothesis is accepted, there is less than 5% probability that the results occurred by chance.

133
Q

What is the calculated value in the sign test?

A

When the statistical test has been calculated the researcher is left with a number, the calculated value.

134
Q

What is the critical value in the sign test?

A

The values in the table are the critical values, they are found using the significance level.

135
Q

How do you determine whether an experiment is significant using the sign test?

A

The calculated value has to be equal to or lower than the critical value for the result to be regarded as significant.

136
Q

How do you do the sign test?

A
  1. turn the data to nominal data.
  2. add up the positives and negatives
  3. use the less frequent sign and call this S, this is our calculated value.
  4. compare the calculated value to the critical value using the table.
137
Q

What is peer review?

A

The assessment of scientific work by others who are specialists in the same field to ensure that any research intended for publication is of high quality. The experts should be objective and unknown to the author or researcher.

138
Q

What are the aims of peer review?

A
  1. to allocate research funding.
  2. to validate the quality and relevance of research.
  3. to suggest amendments or improvements.
139
Q

Evaluate peer review.

A

S - peer review establishes the validity and accuracy of research .
S - an anonymous reviewer is likely to produce a more honest appraisal.
L - having anonymous reviewers might allow rival researchers to criticise other researchers that have crossed them in the past, this is made more likely by limited research funding.
L - publication bias, publishers only publish headline grabbing findings to increase the credibility and circulation of their publication. This means research that doesn’t meet the criteria is ignored, this creates a false impression of current psychology.
L - peer review may suppress opposition to mainstream theories. Reviewers tend to be extra critical of research that contradicts their own view. Thus, peer review may slow down the rate of change within a scientific discipline.

140
Q

Describe the impact of psychology on the economy.

A

The implications of psychological research for the economy are concerned with how the knowledge and understanding gained from psychological research (theories and studies) may contribute towards our economic prosperity. E.g. Bowlby’s monotropy theory, pushed women out of work, reducing household income and raising unemployment, leads to less tax revenue and worse economy.
Development for drugs, absence from work costs economy £15 billion a year, psychological research into causes and treatments of mental illness therefore have an important role in supporting a healthy workforce.